Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aircraft & Flying > B717 Limitations/Must Knows > Flashcards

B717 Limitations/Must Knows Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum ramp weight?

A

53,977 kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

A

53,524 kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

49,895 kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

A

45,586 kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor with the flaps/slats retracted?

A

+2.0g / -1.0g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor with the flaps and slats extended?

A

+2.0g / -0.0g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Manoeuvring Limit Load Factor with the slats extended and flaps retracted?

A

+2.0g / -0.0g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the maximum and minimum runway slope permitted?

A

+1.7% to -2.0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the maximum tailwind permitted?

A

10 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the engine takeoff limited crosswind component?

A

40 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What percentage N1 are you limited to when the crosswind is 40 Kts or tailwind is 10 Kts whilst taxiing?

A

50% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Vmo from ground to 26,000 ft?

A

340 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Vmo above 26,000 ft?

A

0.82 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the maximum Slat extension speed?

A

280 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the maximum flap extension speed from 0 to 10 degrees?

A

280 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the maximum flap extension speed from 10.1 to 20 degrees?

A

240 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the maximum flap extension speed from 20.1 to 25 degrees?

A

220 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the maximum flap extension speed from 25.1 to 40 degrees?

A

200 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the maximum slat extension mach number?

A

0.57 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the maximum gear extension speed?

A

300 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the maximum gear retraction speed?

A

250 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the maximum gear extended speed?

A

300 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the maximum gear extension/retraction or gear extended Mach number?

A

0.70 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the maximum tyre rating speed?

A

195 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the maximum certified altitude?

A

37,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How often must the remote access system for the cockpit door be checked?

A

At least once per flight day (FCOM) / Prior to first flight of day (NJS Ops)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What position must the FLOW switch on the overhead panel be in prior to takeoff?

A

NORM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?

A

7.86 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the maximum emergency relief pressure for the pressurisation system?

A

8.27 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When operating in ‘manual mode’ for cabin pressurisation, what is the primary limitation?

A

Must land and takeoff unpressurised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If ‘STAB OUT OF TRIM’ illuminates, when must the autopilot be disconnected?

A

For longer then 3 seconds if aircraft is stabilised and tracking glide slope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When can you not use the Amber Vmin speed as a reference for setting approach or landing target speeds?

A

If the airplane has not transitioned through the acceleration altitude, as defined on the FMS
TAKEOFF page under the title ACCEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

For an ILS approach with an inoperative glide slope, from what point should the FMS PROF mode or it’s vertical deviation indicator no longer be used?

A

The final fix (FAF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The ACARS is limited to transmission and receipt of messages that could cause an unsafe condition if: (3 items)

A
  1. Part or parts of the message is not received.
  2. The message is delivered to the wrong recipient.
  3. The message may be corrupted.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What must the GPWS terrain awareness feature NOT be used for?

A

Navigation based on its terrain display.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When must the terrain override switch be selected to OVRD?

A
  1. When landing at an airport not contained in the GPWS airport terrain database.
  2. When the FMS NAV is in the IRS ONLY mode of operation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When must the APU AIR switch be selected off?

A

Takeoff and inflight conditions

38
Q

What is the APU starter limit?

A

3 consecutive starts then 30 minute wait.

39
Q

What is the APUs maximum EGT?

A

100 %

40
Q

What is the APUs maximum rotor speed?

A

105 %

41
Q

What is the engines time limit for operating at takeoff or go around thrust?

A 
5 minutes (2 engines operating)
10 minutes (1 engine operating)
42
Q

What is the maximum TGT for takeoff or go around?

A

900 degrees

43
Q

What is the maximum TGT for maximum continuous thrust?

A

850 degrees

44
Q

What is the maximum TGT for engine start?

A

700 degrees

45
Q

What is the maximum TGT for an air start?

A

850 degrees

46
Q

What is the minimum normal oil pressure?

A

45 psi

47
Q

What is the minimum oil pressure for starting (ground/flight)?

A

35 psi / 25 psi

48
Q

What is the minimum oil pressure for takeoff/go around?

A

35 - 45 psi (varies with N2)

49
Q

What is the minimum oil pressure for maximum continuous thrust?

A

25 - 35 psi (varies with N2)

50
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for starting?

A

-40

51
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for MCT, Takeoff and Go Around?

A

20 degrees

52
Q

What is the maximum oil temperature for all operations?

A

160 degrees

53
Q

What is the engines maximum rotor speeds N1 and N2 during all operations?

A

100 %

54
Q

What is the engine starting time limits?

A

180 seconds - 15 seconds
180 seconds - 15 seconds
180 seconds - 15 minutes

55
Q

Can you takeoff with U/L or REV displayed on the primary engine display?

A

No

56
Q

Can the reverse thrust levers be used in flight?

A

No

57
Q

Can you use reverse to assist with directional control?

A

No

58
Q

Can manual rudder be used for takeoff?

A

No - rudder must be powered

59
Q

What is the minimum flap permitted for takeoff?

A

5 degrees

60
Q

When can the speed brakes no longer be used?

A

When the flaps are extended beyond 20 degrees

61
Q

What position must the spoiler/speed brake lever not be moved to in flight?

A

Ground spoiler position

62
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component?

A

38 Kts

63
Q

What are the upper and lower density limits for B717 Fuel?

A

0.76 kgs - 0.85 kgs

64
Q

What types of circuit breakers must never be reset?

A

Fuel pump and/or auxiliary hydraulic pump

65
Q

What are the limitations with relation to fuel loading?

A

If main tanks are full, fuel can be loaded in to centre tank.

If main tanks are not full, fuel can only be loaded into centre tank until full only if the zero fuel weight (ZFW) and center of gravity (CG) plus the center tank fuel do not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW) and CG limitations.

66
Q

What 2 conditions apply to the use of fuel as ballast in the centre tank?

A
  1. The fuel is not required for the completion of the flight.
  2. The ZFW and CG includes the weight of the ballast fuel.
67
Q

What is the maximum permitted fuel imbalance?

A

680 kgs

68
Q

Can you take off with ice or snow on top of the wing? What about if the a,ect “WING ICE DETECTED” is visible?

A

No for both

69
Q

What should be selected off if a windshield cracks during flight?

A

Windshield anti-ice and anti-fog

70
Q

What airspeed should not be exceeded below 10,000ft if any windshield heat is U/S?

A

315 Kts

71
Q

What airspeed should not be exceeded below 10,000ft in the event that the outer glass of the windshield cracks?

A

315 Kts

72
Q

What airspeed should not be exceeded below 10,000ft in the event that the inner glass of the windshield (CAPT/Centre/FO) glass is cracked?

A

235 Kts

73
Q

When is FL370 available?

A

When the aircraft gross weight is at or below 42,000 kgs

74
Q

What 6 items are checked in the takeoff essential items checklist (green EAD Box)?

A 
Stabiliser
Rudder Trim
Slats
Flaps
Parking Brake
Auto Ground Spoilers
75
Q

Describe the NJS Stabilised Approach criteria:

A

Airspeed: -5 / +10 Vapp and or correcting.
ILS Glideslope: Npt greater then half scale deflection.
PAPI: Not greater then 3 white or 3 red until established on 3 degree profile to runway aim point.
Tracking: Half scale deflection or 5 degrees (NDB)

Additional:

  1. Aircraft is in the landing configuration.
  2. Thrust setting is appropriate for the approach configuration and prevailing conditions.
  3. Before Landing checklist is complete.
  4. Sink-rate is not greater than 1,000 fpm. If the approach requires a greater sink-rate, a special briefing should be accomplished.
  5. Only small attitude changes are required to maintain the desired flight-path.
  6. Only small heading changes to maintain the aircraft aligned along the extended runway centreline.
76
Q

When must a missed approach be conducted:

A
  1. The aircraft is not Stable at or becomes unstable below 1,000 feet AGL.
    2 During a normal-configuration approach, the sustained rate of descent exceeds 1000 ft/min below 1,000 feet AGL.
  2. During an abnormal-configuration approach, the rate of descent exceeds the planned rate of descent plus 300 ft/min.
  3. An ILS “Glideslope” warning occurs at any time below 1000 feet AGL unless established on a 3 deg slope to the runway aiming point or when landing on a non ILS equipped RWY where the warning is obviously spurious.
  4. During a normal approach, the GPWS “Sink Rate” warning occurs at any time below 1,000 feet AGL; or during a no slat/no flap approach the warning continues below 100 feet.
  5. A ‘bounced’ or abnormal landing occurs after which, continuation of the landing would be unsafe.
  6. A safe landing cannot be completed in the remaining runway length.
  7. Either Flight Crew member experiences a loss of situational awareness below MSA.
77
Q

What is the fuel burn for running the APU in flight?

A

50 kgs per hour

78
Q

What is the fuel burn for having the engine anti-ice on during flight?

A

50 kgs per hour

79
Q

What is the fuel burn for having the engine, wing and tail anti ice on during flight?

A

125 kgs per hour

80
Q

What is the approx taxi fuel burn per minute?

A

15 kgs per minute

81
Q

What is the maximum bank angle permitted?

A

as indicated by the “Bank Angle Limit” displayed on the PFD when set to “AUTO”

82
Q

What PSI are captains required to ensure that the first aid O2 bottle indicate prior to dispatching from a maintenance base?

A

1500 PSI

83
Q

During a visual approach without electronic slope guidance, the auto pilot must be disconnected by what height?

A

600 ft

84
Q

The FMS must not be in NAV model below the MSA unless?

A
  1. Aircraft is under radar control.
  2. Tracking via programmed SID/STAR/IAP
  3. Aircraft is in VMC
85
Q

When flying an instrument approach procedure at night or in IMC, what 2 conditions apply to FLT PLN revisions?

A
  1. Waypoints must not be inserted into the approach waypoint sequence (unless specifically varied by direction in OM-C1).
  2. Approach waypoints must not be deleted. Any database altitude constraint that affects flight below the MSA, MORA or LSALT (as applicable) may only be
    amended to ensure compliance with the published approach.
86
Q

What are the 7 requirements for refuelling with passengers on board?

A
  • Seatbelt sign OFF
  • Smoking sign ON
  • CC1 Notified
  • No engine/APU started or stopped
  • Emergency Lights Armed
  • No HF radio transmission
  • Evac area clear
87
Q

What is the maximum crosswind permitted for the conduct of a low visibility takeoff?

A

15 Kts

88
Q

What are the limitations on extension and retraction of the landing lights?

A

Cool for 1.5 minutes after initial extension and 3.5 minutes for each subsequent.

89
Q

What is the limitation on operating the landing lights in still ambient conditions?

A

Do not operate for longer then 10 minutes

90
Q

What occurs when the fire handle is pulled?

A

Shuts off fuel and hydraulic valves, grips generator and silences all aural and vocal warnings if master warning push button has not been pushed.

91
Q

When will the ‘FUEL LEVEL LOW’ level 1 alert be displayed?

A

When centre tank quantity is below 450 kgs and either L or R tank quantity is below 907 kgs.

92
Q

When manoeuvring off track, how far off track will PROF still give valid guidance?

A

5 nm

Aircraft & Flying (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions