Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aircraft & Flying > B717 Operations/Cobham SOPs > Flashcards

B717 Operations/Cobham SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the company fixed reserve fuel?

A

30 minutes fuel at a consumption rate applicable to holding at 1,500ft above the destination airport at the appropriate Landing weight.

OM-A2 Page 4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is variable reserve calculated?

A

10% of Trip Fuel from origin to destination or;

Fuel reqd to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1,500ft above the destination airport in ISA conditions (167 kgs).

OM-A2 Page 4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is holding fuel calculated?

A

The holding fuel consumption rate at FL200 applicable to the appropriate aircraft weight.

OM-A2 Page 4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If I require 30 minutes weather holding and 30 minutes traffic holding, how much holding fuel am I required to carry?

A

30 Minutes

Holding fuel is not cumulative.

OM-A2 Page 4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How much additional fuel must be carried to cover a depressurisation that occurs enroute?

A

Enough fuel to allow the aircraft to descend as necessary and proceed to an alternate aerodrome then fly for 15 minutes at holding speed at 1,500ft above aerodrome elevation in international standard atmosphere (ISA) conditions; and make an approach and landing.

OM-A2 Page 4-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During refuelling operations with passengers on board, how many cabin crew are required?

A

1 Cabin Crew member for every 72 passengers or part thereof.

OM-A2 Page 4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where a departure port “Maximise Outbound” is paired with “Minimise Inbound” port, which is the overriding consideration?

A

Minimise Inbound

OM-A2 Page 4-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What CAO contains details regarding what constitutes a “suitable aerodrome” for a B717?

A

CAO 82.0 Appendix 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is a B717 permitted to fly?

A

380nm

OM-C1 Page 2-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An adequate aerodrome must have what minima?

A

Minima for the expected runway +500 feet and 2,000m Visibility for a period of 30 mins before the earliest possible arrival time and 30 mins after the latest time of possible arrival.

OM-C1 Page 2-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the minimum permitted speed for operations above FL200?

A

Vmin+15 KIAS

OM-B1 Page 11-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the maximum permitted speed for operations above FL200?

A

Vmax-10 KIAS

OM-B1 Page 11-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does the FMS max altitude change when engine and wing/tail anti ice is selected on?

A

No - at high altitude the aircraft may become thrust limited and a descent must be commenced immediately.

OM-B1 Page 11-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is FL370 available as a cruise altitude?

A

When the aircraft gross weight is below 42,000 kgs.

OM-B1 Page 11-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the maximum permitted ROD when below 3,000ft?

A

2,000 FPM

OM-B1 Page 11-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is operation with IDLE CLAMP not permitted?

A

In the circuit area and when the slats are extended.

OM-B1 Page 11-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Can PAD procedures occur during refuelling?

A

Yes provided there are no other general board passengers on board.

OM-A2 Page 4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What 6 conditions are required if refuelling is to take place whilst passengers are boarding, disembarking or remaining on board during a transit?

A
  • CC1 is to be informed.
  • Seatbelt sign must be off and no smoking sign on.
  • The cabin emergency lights must be armed.
  • The area around the aircraft stairs and adjacent area likely to be used during an evacuation must e clear of any hazards.
  • The APU or engines must not be started or stopped whilst refuelling equipment is connected to the aircraft.
  • No transmission on HF shall be made during refuelling.

OM-A2 Page 4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Should the APU be shut down in the event of a fuel spillage?

A

No

OM-A2 Page 4-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is considered a fuel spillage?

A

When a fuel quantity likely to create a fire hazard is spilled within 15m of the aircraft or ground fuelling equipment.

OM-A2 Page 4-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the requirements when a fuel spillage occurs?

A
  • Refuelling operation suspended and Fire Services (ARFF or Local) notified.
  • Refuelling should not recommence and engines not started until fire hazard is removed.
    Passengers remaining on board or embarking/disembarking shall be removed to a point at least 15m from the spillage.
  • GPUs, vehicles or power operated loading devices within 15m of the spilled fuel are shut down.
  • Maintenance work of any nature on or within the aircraft is suspended Nd not recommended until the spilled fuel is removed.

OM-A2 Page 4-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance permitted for takeoff of B717? Where is the procedure for transferring fuel between tanks on the ground found?

A

1,500lbs or 682kgs

OM-B1 Page 10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Line Up Allowance for a B717 for both a 90 degree turn and 180 degree turn?

A

90 Degree - 27m
180 Degree - 42m

FCOM Performance Page PD 13.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How long is a daily inspection valid for?

A

24 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the maximum permissible taxi speed on a dry taxiway?

A

30 KIAS

OM-A2 Page 5-39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the maximum permitted taxi speed for operations on a wet taxiway?

A

20 KIAS

OM-A2 Page 5-39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the maximum permitted taxi speed when operating on the ramp area, turning 90 degrees and operating on a contaminated or slippery surface?

A

10 KIAS

OM-A2 Page 5-39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the maximum permitted breakaway thrust?

A

78% N2

OM-B2 Page 11-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What types of Circuit Breakers are not permitted to be reset?

A
  • Fuel Pump
  • Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump

OM-B2 Page 5-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When do sterile flight deck procedures apply?

A
  • After the cabin crew advise the cabin is secure until 10,000 feet.
  • During descent from 10,000 until the flight crew park the aircraft and turn the ‘fasten seat belt’ sign off.

OM-A2 Page 5-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When does the emergency only contact period apply?

A
  • When the power is applied for takeoff until the gear is up.
  • When the landing gear is extended for landing until the aircraft comes to a complete stop on the runway or enters a taxiway.
  • During a RTO until the aircraft has come to a complete stop and the captain has made a PA.

OM-A2 Page 5-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What 5 conditions must be met prior to conducting a single engine taxi?

A
  • APU started and APU ELEC available.
  • All hydraulic systems must be fully serviceable.
  • ENGINE COOL EAD has appeared.
  • Taxiway and Aprons are not wet.
  • Any other limitations as published in OM-C1.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What 5 items should the captain cover during the Cabin Crew brief?

A
  • Flight Time.
  • En-route WX conditions and wheat her cabin service may be affected.
  • Forecast WX at the next destination.
  • Refuelling Locations.
  • Security Requirements.

OM-A2 Page 5-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the CDL and where can it be found?

A

CDL - Configuration Deviation List - Back of MEL book in aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If overnighting away from engineering facilities, can a pilot conduct a daily walk around and are there any conditions associated with this?

A

Yes - A note entered into tech log and an engineer to do walk around within 2 landings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When selecting ‘Confirm Engine Out’ on FMS, does this limit the autoflight bank angle to 15 degrees? When should 15 Degrees be selected on FCP?

A

No - When the SDP requires a turn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are some Hydroplaning prevention techniques?

A
  • Slow firm landing - No greasers.
  • Lower nose wheels quickly.
  • Maximise use of reverse thrust at high speeds.
  • Avoid heavy braking above dynamic hydroplaning speed.
  • Ensure slow speed when rolling over/turn in on painted surfaces.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Name the three types of Hydoplaning:

A
  1. Dynamic
  2. Viscous
  3. Reverted Rubber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the Dynamic hydroplaning speeds for the B717 main and nosewheels?

A

112 KIAS - Mainwheeks
95 KIAS - Nosewheels

8.6 x square root of tyre pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Are landing distances required to be factored in the event of an emergency?

A

No

CAO 20.7.1b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the best rate of climb speed (approx) for the B717?

A

230 - 250 KIAS depends on weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why is engine anti-ice switched on one engine at a time?

A

To ensure the ingestion of melted ice does not result in engine flameout or stall in both engines simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the speed requirement for a stable approach?

A

Aircraft speed is within +10/-5 knots of Vapp an/or correcting.

OM-A2 Page 5-53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the 6 additional parameters that apply to achieve a stable approach?

A
  • Aircraft is in the landing configuration.
  • Thrust setting is appropriate for the approach configuration and prevailing conditions.
  • Before Landing checklist is complete.
  • Sink-rate is not greater than 1,000 fpm. If the approach requires a greater sink-rate, a special briefing should be accomplished.
  • Only small attitude changes are required to maintain the desired flight-path.
  • Only small heading changes to maintain the aircraft aligned along the extended runway centreline.

OM-A2 Page 5-54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When can a missed approach/go around be conducted?

A
  • A missed approach may be conducted from any point during the approach until the thrust reversers are deployed.

OM-A2 Page 5-55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If a rear cabin crew seat is unserviceable, where should CC3 be seated? If both Cabin Crew seats are unserviceable, where should CC4 be seated?

A

Rear row seat ‘C’

Rear row seat ‘D’

OM-A2 Page 6-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If the cabin intercom system is unserviceable, how will the cabin crew advise CC1 the useable SOP calls?

A

Via the PA system.

OM-A2 Page 6-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

At a non-towered aerodrome, by what time must a broadcast on the CTAF be made when inbound?

A

30nm

OM-A2 Page 8-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If operating to a runway less then 45m wide, when does alternate fuel need to be carried in relation to crosswind?

A

X-wind exceeds 30 kts for a dry runway or 20 kts for a wet runway.

OM-B2 Page 11-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When may the FMS be operated in NAV mode below the MSA?

A
  • in VMC.
  • The aircraft is under radar control.
  • The FMS is following a SID/STAR or Instrument approach.

OM-B2 Page 11-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What 4 FMS transactions are permitted below the MSA?

A
  • NAV RAD selections.
  • ENG OUT selection.
  • Direct to F-PLN.
  • Activation of pre programmed SEC FLT PLN.

OM-A2 Page 5-31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where is the company designated touchdown zone and what must occur if a landing will occur after that point?

A

Visual aim point to 300m past that point.

A go around must occur.

OM-A2 Page 5-57

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What conditions apply to the conduct of a drift down circuit?

A
  • Must be a Controlled or CTAF(R) airport.
  • Both VHF radios operative.
  • TCAS is operative.

OM-A2 Page 5-52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When inbound to a CTAF, when should the CTAF be monitored?

A

By 15,000 ft

OM-A2 Page 9-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What 6 conditions apply to the conduct of a straight in approach at a CTAF?

A
  • the PIC must be able to asses the wind direction and strength.
  • Broadcast made on CTAF at 10nm stating intention to conduct straight in approach.
  • Conduct all manoeuvring to establish aircraft on final outside of 3nm.
  • Make broadcast at 3nm stating established on final.
  • All exterior lights on (LDG, Strobe, Beacon).
  • Give way to aircraft in circuit.

OM-A2 Page 9-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What 4 pre flight procedures are required prior to RVSM operations?

A
  • Review of reported and forecast turbulence en-route.
  • Review of maintenance documentation.
  • During pre-flight inspection condition of static sources and skin around static sources and any other component that effects Altimeters system accuracy.
  • Primary Altimeters must read within 50ft of each other.

OM-A2 Page 5-27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When conducting the Altimeter check for RVSM airspace after TOC, what must the primary Altimeters be within?

A

200 ft

OM-A2 Page 5-43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of RTOW chart should be used if the Thrust Reversers are unserviceable?

A

Type 3 - Packs Off, Manual V Speeds

OM-B2 Page 12.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What 2 things are to be checked before calling 80 kts?

A
  • 80 knots has been attained on Airspeed Indicator.

- T/O Clamp appears on FMA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What 2 things should be checked prior to calling “Positive Rate”?

A
  • Positive rate on VSI and Altimeter.
  • V2 has been achieved.

OM-B2 Page 6-2

61
Q

When must both pilots be seated at the controls of the aircraft?

A
  • During takeoff and landing.
  • During an instrument approach.
  • when the aircraft is flying less then 10,000ft above terrain.
  • In turbulent conditions.

OM-A2 Page 5-4

62
Q

When must your iPad be stowed or mounted in the aircraft?

A
  • During takeoff and landing.
  • During an instrument approach.
  • When the aircraft is flying below 1,000ft above terrain, and in turbulent conditions.

OM-A2 Page 5-6

63
Q

What is the minimum number of Cabin Crew required for B717-200 operations?

A

1 Crew for every 50 passengers or part thereof.

OM-A2 Page 10-28

64
Q

When may auto V speeds be used?

A

When the runway is dry and balanced.

OM-B2 Page 11-5

65
Q

When is the latest time a FO must be at the aircraft prior to an originating flight?

A

40 mins

OM-C1 Page 2-1

66
Q

What are the company recommended avoidance distances from thunderstorms?

A

Above 20,000ft: 20nm
10,000ft - 20,000ft: 10nm
Below 10,000ft: 5nm (10nm if OAT is below 0C

67
Q

When landing on a runway less then 45m wide, what 3 systems must be available?

A
  • Braking Systems.
  • Anti-Skid Systems.
  • Reverse Thrust Systems.

OM-B1 Page 11-2

68
Q

How can you depart an airport in IMC/at night?

A
  1. Via a SID.
  2. Fly the SDP.
  3. Manoeuvre as required provided:
    - Do not turn off centreline until aircraft has climbed through the circling minima minus 200ft.
    - Do not cross the circling area boundary below the 10nm MSA boundary minus 500ft.
    - Do not cross the 10nm MSA boundary below the 25nm MSA boundary minus 500ft.
    - Do not maintain level flight below MSA/LSALT.

OM-A2 Page 5-41

69
Q

Are we permitted to land on a contaminated runway?

A

Operations are not permitted on a contaminated runway.

70
Q

From what point during descent can the speed brake no longer be used?

A

Once flap is selected beyond 20 degrees.

B717 AFM Limitations

71
Q

What is Vapp? And how is a wind additive calculated?

A

Vapp is the greater of Vref+5 Kts or Vapp+wind additive.

Wind additive is half of the steady state wind greater then 20 Kts or full gust, whichever is greater.

B717 FCOM 2 Operating Procedures

72
Q

What is the maximum wind additive permitted to be added to Vref?

A

20 Kts to a total of Vref+20

FCOM 2 Operating Procedures.

73
Q

What steps are taken if the fuel quantity crosscheck results in an error exceeding 3%?

A
  1. A reading from the Magnetic dripless sticks should be conducted & be within 3% of either of the 2 previous quantities.
  2. If above fails to resolves discrepancy:
    - HFO may authorise departure provided:
    No more then 5% discrepancy.
    Full tank inspection to be undertaken ASAP but no lat then the next 2 landings.
74
Q

When must the autopilot be disconnected during a 2D/3D approach?

A 
2D = DDA -100 (MDA-50)
3D = Prior to touchdown

OM-B1 Page 11-4

75
Q

When must the autopilot be disconnected during a visual approach?

A

Slope provided by electronic means = 200ft
Slope provided by visual means = 600ft

OM-B1 Page 11-4

76
Q

To ensure a stabilised approach, when must the aircraft be established on the extended runway centreline during the conduct of a offset NPA?

A

300 ft

OM-B1 Page 5-54

77
Q

When must a go/around or missed approach be conducted? (8 items)

A
  1. The aircraft is not stable or becomes unstable below 1,000ft.
  2. During a normal configuration approach the sustained descent rate becomes greater then 1,000ft/min below 1,000.
  3. During an abnormal configuration approach the rate of descent exceeds 300ft/min more then the planned descent rate.
  4. An ILS Glideslope warning occurs at anytime below 1,000ft unless established on a 3 degree slope to the visual aim point.
  5. A GPWS Sinkrate Warning occurs below 1,000ft.
  6. A bounced or abnormal landing occurs after which continuing the landing would be unsafe.
  7. A safe landing cannot be completed in the remaining runway length.
  8. Either flight crew experiences a loss of situational awareness below MSA.

OM-A2 Page 5-55

78
Q

For takeoff with visibility less then 550m, what 3 aircraft systems must be operational?

A
  • Braking Systems.
  • Anti-Skid.
  • Thrust Reverses.

OM-A2 10-2

79
Q

What 7 Aerodrome characterisations are required for low visibility Procedures (take-off with via below 550m)?

A
  • CASA approves operation on the particular runway.
  • ATC has advised low vis procedures are in force.
  • Runways that require a turn of more then 15 degrees at the runway head or below 200ft are not approved for take-off with vis less then 500m.
  • Aircraft may take-off with RV or RVR of less then 550m but not less then 350m.
    Runway edge lighting with spacing not exceeding 60m is operational.
  • Either runway centreline lighting or runway centreline markings are clearly visible.
  • Crosswind is 15 knots or less.

OM-A2 Page 10-3

80
Q

What is required to be monitored when shutting down an engine?

A
  • Fuel off indication.
  • N1, N2 and TGT DECAY.

OM-B1 Page 4-31

81
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

Rapid change in wind direction and/or velocity that results in airspeed changes greater then 15kts or vertical speed changes greater then 500fpm.

82
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

Rapid change in wind direction and/or velocity that results in airspeed changes greater then 15kts or vertical speed changes greater then 500fpm.

83
Q

Are CTA steps or boundaries considered when SDPs are developed?

A

No

OM-B1 12-2

84
Q

Does a standard 10nm Left/Right turn to overhead require an AoB of 15 degrees?

A

No, a standard Left/Right turn is not considered a SDP so does not require a 15 degree AoB.

OM-B1 Page 12-2

85
Q

What is the standard EO Acceleration altitude for an NJS B717?

A

800 ft AAL.

OM-B1 Page 12-4

86
Q

What wording on a RTOW Chart identifies the chart as depicting balanced field length?

A

“Optimum flap dry” in the top right corner.

OM-B1 Page 12-5

87
Q

What 2 things must occur before a crew member can occupy a cabin crew seat for the purposes of deadheading?

A
  • Approval of HFO.
  • The CPT must be notified.

OM-A1 2.8.3

88
Q

When must a Routine Reportable Matter (RRM) be reported to the ATSB?

A

Within 72 hours.

OM-A1 3.5.2 Page 3-5

89
Q

After submitting an external report the OCC should be advised if?

A
  • Following an event that is an IRM.
  • or if the incident or accident is expected to lead to possible media exposure.

OM-A1 3.5.3 Page 3-6

90
Q

Should passenger use of first aid oxygen be reported? Does a phone call need to be made to HFO?

A

Yes internally via an ASIR/SOR.

Exempt from the telephone reporting requirement.

OM-A1 3.5.4 Page 3-6

91
Q

If a Go-Around is conducted, what report must be submitted?

A

OCR

OM-A1 3.12.2 Page 3-13

92
Q

How should a defect at an aerodrome be reported? Eg: windsock missing

A

Via an OCR

OM-A1 3.13 Page 3-13

93
Q

Can boarding be commenced prior to the completion of security and safety checks?

A

No

OM-A1 4.8.1 Page 4-6

94
Q

What should immediately happen if an airport security officer advises a passenger has returned a positive ETD test?

A

The passengers baggage should be immediately removed from the aircraft.

OM-A1 4.10 Page 4-7

95
Q

In the event that Passenger restraint devices are used, what 2 things must occur?

A
  • PIC is advised.
  • Arrangements made to have the Police attend at the next port to take the passenger into custody.

OM-A1 4.13.2 Page 4-8

96
Q

What is the maximum number of PICA permitted to be carried on NJS Aircraft?

A

2 unless you have written approval or they are all members of the same family and considered not dangerous.

OM-A1 4.14.1 Page 4-9

97
Q

Who must be advised of the carriage of a PICA?

A
  • PIC
  • CC1

OM-A1 4.14.1 Page 4-9

98
Q

What term is used when a passenger is refused travel?

A

“Unfit for travel”

OM-A1 4.20.2 Page 4-15

99
Q

What 2 things must be on a certificate of fitness to travel by air?

A
  • The person is fit for travel.
  • the person is not suffering from an infection or contagious disease in the infective stage.

OM-A1 5.13.1 Page 5-6

100
Q

Can a person requiring hearing aids be seated in an emergency exit?

A

Yes provided they use the hearing aid during takeoff and landing.

OM-A1 5.13.4 Page 5-8

101
Q

Can stretcher patients be carried on a B717?

A

No

OM-A1 5.13.1.11 Page 5-9

102
Q

How many mentally disturbed passengers may be carried on a flight?

A

1

OM-A1 5.13.1.12 Page 5-10

103
Q

If a mentally disturbed passenger is carried, how many PICAs can be carried?

A

Only 1 PICA

OM-A1 5.14.1.12 Page 5-10

104
Q

If carrying a group of 15 or more children, what rows should they be seated in?

A

125 Seat - Rows 6-10
Business - Rows 8-12

OM-A1 6.3 Page 6-2

105
Q

What 3 things must the PIC do to ensure that any cargo is loaded in accordance with the applicable manuals (AFM/FCOM/Company)?

A
  1. Confirming that the load supervisor has certified on the load sheet that the aircraft loaded and restrained IAW the load distribution instructions and approved load restraint system.
  2. Verifying & Certifying the W&B load sheet prepared for the flight.
  3. Conducting external and internal inspection of the aircraft IAW FCOM.

OM-A1 6.14.1 Page 6-11

106
Q

If a passenger is injured whilst walking to the aircraft, what is the PIC required to do?

A
  • Ensure the passenger is assisted as required.
  • Submit a report to the SD within 24 hours

OM-A1 8.2.6 Page 8-3

107
Q

Is approach slope guidance required at an alternate airport?

A

No

OM-A1 10.10 Page 10-24

108
Q

After what wind strength should the control system and surfaces be inspected for damage if they have not been adequately restrained?

A

35 Kts

OM-A2 5.2.2 Page 5-2

109
Q

Can a person under 18 be allocated a seat on the flight deck?

A

No

OM-A2 5.5 Page 5-8

110
Q

Can a flight depart a maintenance base with a unserviceable cockpit door?

A

No

OM-A2 5.5.3 Page 5-10

111
Q

Does the PIC require a route endorsement for a tech stop or alternate?

A

No

OM-A2 5.6.5 Page 5-15

112
Q

Post maintenance check flight must only be carried out when the weather is?

A

8km visibility and cloud base is the circling minima plus 500ft at the departure and destination aerodrome.

OM-A2 5.6.18 Page 5-24

113
Q

When must a flight crew report a flight level deviation irrespective of the cause?

A

300 feet or more from the aircraft assigned level.

OM-A2 5.6.24 Page 5-27

114
Q

What is the national RFFS frequency?

A

131.0

OM-A2 5.6.31 Page 5-29

115
Q

If ‘Unable RNP’ is displayed on the FMS during flight what 2 actions should occur?

A
  • a check of the RNP tolerance set in the FMS.
  • advise ATC and an alternate arrival or departure procedure may be required (ie: radar vectors)

OM-A2 5.8.6 Page 5-38

116
Q

What aircraft systems must be available to conduct LAHSO?

A
  • Nosewheel Steering
  • Antiskid
  • Reverse Thrust
  • Lift Spoilers

OM-A2 5.14.4 Page 5-56

117
Q

After a RTO when the aircraft comes to a stop and there is no chance of a passenger evacuation, which PA should the captain give?

A

The Alert Cancel PA.

OM-A2 7.6.2 Page 7-5

118
Q

After a RTO for a minor issue that is resolved without the need to taxi back to the bay, does the cabin crew need to report ‘cabin secure’ a second time?

A

Yes

OM-A2 7.8 Page 7-7

119
Q

What type of de-icing fluid is available to NJS aircraft?

A

Type 1

ON-A2 11.5.3.1 Page 11-5

120
Q

When does Holdover Time begin?

A

With initial application of fluid.

OM-A2 11.5.4 Page 11-5

121
Q

If the OAT is below 0 and aircraft surfaces are free from ice/snow ect and it’s raining, is De Ice/anti-ice required?

What if it’s not raining?

A

Yes

No

OM-A2 11.6 Page 11-6

122
Q

Can an engine be started if there is a small amount of snow/ice in the engine inlet?

A

No

OM-A2 11.7 page 11-6

123
Q

What 4 maintenance items may CAMO authorise the PIC to conduct?

A
  1. Exterior Inspection.
  2. Globe Replacement.
  3. F.C.M Tasks
  4. Bird Strike Inspection (DPFIBS)

OM-A2 12.5.1 Page 12-21

124
Q

In the FMS Takeoff mode with auto flight engaged, when will the rudder revert to Series?

A
  1. change in roll mode.

2. Slat retraction

125
Q

If you have a ‘Brake Overheat’ warning and the brake temperature is above 450 degrees, how far away from the aircraft should ground personnel be maintained?

A

At least 25m

OM-B1 7.12 Page 7-8

126
Q

Are CTA steps and boundaries considered when SDPs are developed?

A

No

OM-B1 12.2.1 Page 12-2

127
Q

What must the captain ensure if there are multiple MEL items on an aircraft?

A

The the inter relationship will not:

  1. Result in a degradation of safety.
  2. And/or undue increase in crew workload.

MEL 1.2 PRE-2

128
Q

In the event of an unserviceable Cabin Crew seat the CC will sit in a passenger seat close to their station, does this need to be changed on the Load Data Sheet?

A

No, allowances are made for crew movement throughout the cabin at any stage of flight during the calculation of the C of G window.

OM-B7 3.9 Page 3-9

129
Q

In the event of a windshear encounter during approach, what should be the initial pitch angle target prior to WAGS FD guidance?

A

15 Degrees nose up.

FCOM Vol 2 Page SP.30.34

130
Q

What would cause master caution lights to illuminate and warnings such as ‘PITOT CAPT FAIL’/‘AOA HEAT R FAIL’/‘STATIC R HEAT’ to occur when the fuel switch is selected ON during engine start?

A

Air Data Heat Switch selected OFF

FCOM Vol 2 NP.40.3

131
Q

How long must engines be operated at idle power before takeoff?

A

3 minutes

FCOM Vol 3 NP.60.2

132
Q

During an airspeed unreliable event, what warning must never be disregarded?

A

Stick Shaker

FCOM QRH Airspeed Unreliable

133
Q

How do you purge the Oxygen mask of smoke or fumes?

A

Click the mask to EMER as required.

FCOM QRH Smoke/Fire/Fumes

134
Q

How is Spoiler Float indicated?

A

Spoiler float is indicated when a rapid roll occurs during extension of flaps beyond 25°.

FCOM Vol 2 Page EP.20.27)

135
Q

Can a pilot defer a NSOF Not Safety of Flight defect?

A

No

OM-A2 Page 12-21

136
Q

During a PRM Approach, are ATC Deviation Advisories required to be read back?

A

No

137
Q

In the event that TCAS becomes inoperative during a flight, operationally what should be considered?

A
  • ATC should be advised.

- Drift down circuits should not be conducted

138
Q

Does Variable Reserve apply to Alternate fuel?

A

No

OM-A2 Page 4-2

139
Q

If an airport is classed Cat A by NJS, what requirements apply for the Captain? How long is the requirement valid for?

A

Self briefing using LMS.

Initial briefing is valid for 14 days, re-briefing is valid for 35 days.

140
Q

When must at least 1 pack be on for cabin cooling or heating?

A

When the temperature is less then 10 degrees or greater then 27 degrees

141
Q

If the cabin doors are closed, how will the holdover time and other de icing information relayed to Captain? Where should this information be recorded?

A

Via the inter phone

On the flight plan

142
Q

If you need to speak to a ground handling agent (ie: QF Broome) during descent, what level should this be completed by?

A

FL150

OM-A2 8.15.2

143
Q

If you need to speak to a ground handling agent (ie: QF Cairns) while holding, when should this be conducted?

A

When established at the holding altitude and outbound in the holding pattern.

OM-A2 8.15.2

144
Q

What are the three situations a visual approach at night is permitted?

A
  1. The prescribed visual segments at the end of a STAR procedure published in Jeppesen;
  2. Sydney Independent Visual Approaches at night in accordance with Sydney IVA procedures; or
  3. The Captain decides it is necessary following an abnormal or emergency situation.
145
Q

What conditions apply to the First Officer being permitted to act as Pilot Flying?

A
  1. All aircraft systems that have an adverse effect on aircraft handling must be serviceable
  2. Visibility must be 2000 m or greater
  3. The cloud base is 500ft or greater above the DA for the instrument approach being flown
  4. Crosswind must be 20kts or less
  5. Runway width must be 45 m or greater
146
Q

Describe the NJS stabilised approach criteria:

A

Airspeed: -5 / +10 Vapp and or correcting.
ILS Glideslope: Npt greater then half scale deflection.
PAPI: Not greater then 3 white or 3 red until established on 3 degree profile to runway aim point.
Tracking: Half scale deflection or 5 degrees (NDB)

Additional:

  1. Aircraft is in the landing configuration.
  2. Thrust setting is appropriate for the approach configuration and prevailing conditions.
  3. Before Landing checklist is complete.
  4. Sink-rate is not greater than 1,000 fpm. If the approach requires a greater sink-rate, a special briefing should be accomplished.
  5. Only small attitude changes are required to maintain the desired flight-path.
  6. Only small heading changes to maintain the aircraft aligned along the extended runway centreline.
147
Q

During the conduct of a non precision approach that requires manoeuvring to align with the runway, by how high should the aircraft be established on the runway centreline?

A

300 ft

148
Q

During the conduct of a localiser approach, at the minima the aircraft must be within what height of the minima to be considered stable?

A

Minus 0, plus 50ft

149
Q

When must a missed approach be conducted? (8 items)

A
  1. The aircraft is not Stable at or becomes unstable below 1,000 feet AGL.
    2 During a normal-configuration approach, the sustained rate of descent exceeds 1000 ft/min below 1,000 feet AGL.
  2. During an abnormal-configuration approach, the rate of descent exceeds the planned rate of descent plus 300 ft/min.
  3. An ILS “Glideslope” warning occurs at any time below 1000 feet AGL unless established on a 3 deg slope to the runway aiming point or when landing on a non ILS equipped RWY where the warning is obviously spurious.
  4. During a normal approach, the GPWS “Sink Rate” warning occurs at any time below 1,000 feet AGL; or during a no slat/no flap approach the warning continues below 100 feet.
  5. A ‘bounced’ or abnormal landing occurs after which, continuation of the landing would be unsafe.
  6. A safe landing cannot be completed in the remaining runway length.
  7. Either Flight Crew member experiences a loss of situational awareness below MSA.

Aircraft & Flying (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions