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Aircraft & Flying > Boeing 717 Systems > Flashcards

Boeing 717 Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the wingspan of a B717?

A

28.4m

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2
Q

With the NO SMOKE switch in ‘AUTO’, when will the NO SMOKING signs illuminate?

A

When the Landing Gear is extended.

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3
Q

With the SEAT BELTS switch in AUTO, when will the FASTEN SEATBELT signs illuminate?

A

When the Leading Edge slats are extended.

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4
Q

What does the THNDRSTRM switch do to the cockpits lights?

A

Overrides individual lighting controls to illuminate instrument and control panel floodlights full bright.

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5
Q

What does DCAS stand for and what aircraft system incorporates it?

A

Digitally Controlled Audio System - Communications

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6
Q

When are the overhead speakers muted?

A

When the CPT or FOs microphones are operated or the PA.

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7
Q

What does the Service Interphone System allow?

A

Communications between various service and maintenance locations around the airplane.

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8
Q

What does the ACARS system automatically transmit?

A

Airplane OUT, OFF, ON and IN times (OOOI).

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9
Q

What DUs are powered when the aircraft is in an emergency power condition?

A

DU1, DU2 and DU3.

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10
Q

How many VIAs are there? What are their functions?

A

2 VIAs (Versatile Integrated Avionics).

Data Display, FMC, CAWS, Master Warning and Caution light activation, flight data acquisition.

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11
Q

What are the 2 types of failure annunciators that can appear on the DUs?

A

Invalid Data - Data removed from screen.

Miscompared - Data is displayed with a Miscompared Flag.

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12
Q

If data displayed on a DU is momentarily ‘X’ed out and then returns, is the data still valid?

A

Yes

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13
Q

How many Pitot Tubes are there and where does each Pitot System feed to?

A

3 - Captains, FOs and auxiliary Pitot system.

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14
Q

What conditions must be met for the VIA to auto-tune an ILS frequency?

A
  • ILS Approach must be part of the active route and;
    Airplane is less then 50nm from TOD or;
    Less then 150nm from the landing runway threshold.
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15
Q

What height is PWS (Predictive Windshear) activated?

What height are cockpit alerts generated?

A

2,300 ft RadAlt

1,200 ft RadAlt

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16
Q

How far either side of heading are PWS (Predictive Windshear) detection available and what range (nm)?

A

+/- 40 degrees and 5nm ahead

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17
Q

Which hydraulic system provides pressure for extension and retraction of the landing gear?

A

The right hydraulic system.

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18
Q

Which hydraulic system provides pressure for the brakes?

A

Both Left and Right

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19
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering?

A

Both, however if one hydraulic system fails, steering is restricted in both direction and rate of turn to the side opposite the failed system.

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20
Q

If the emergency gear extension lever is raised, which hydraulic system is isolated from the landing gear?

A

The Right hydraulic system, therefore nose gear steering is restricted to the left.

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21
Q

If both hydraulic systems fail, are the wheel brakes still available to stop the airplane?

A

Yes, an accumulator of sufficient capacity is available to provide brake pressure to stop the airplane.

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22
Q

Where is the ground shift sensing mechanism located?

A

On the nose gear. The linkage connects the ground shift relays to the nose gear strut position.

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23
Q

How do you release the Landing Gear anti retract mechanism if it fails to release?

A

Pull out the Landing Gear handle, push the GEAR HANDLE RELEASE button, and then move the handle to the UP position.

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24
Q

Where do the flight instruments (airspeed, altimeter, MACH) get their information from?

A

Pitot tubes/Static ports feed into Air Data Modules which convert analogue data into digital electronic data. ADMs then feed this information to the ADIRU (Air Data Inertial Reference Unit).

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25
Q

How many fire loops are there in each engine?

A

2 - A and B

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26
Q

What occurs when the ENG FIRE handle is pulled to the fully extended position?

A
  • Closes the fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves.
  • Trips engine generator off.
  • Silences aural/vocal warnings if the MASTER WARNING light hasn’t been pushed.
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27
Q

How is the lavatory fire extinguishing system activated?

A

Automatically by a fusible tip melting on the Halon extinguisher discharge tube and discharging into the trash container.

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28
Q

How many photoelectric smoke detectors are located in the forward and aft cargo compartments?

A

8 (4 pairs) in the forward.

4 (2 pairs) in the aft.

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29
Q

How many photo-electric detectors need to detect a fire before the cargo compartment fire alarm will activate?

A

2 (in NORM position)

1 (in SINGLE position)

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30
Q

Where are the fire suppression discharge nozzles located in the cargo compartment?

A

Next to each smoke detector pan.

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31
Q

How long after a FWD/AFT CARGO SMOKE AGENT 1 DISCH switch light is pushed will the FWD/AFT CARGO SMOKE AGENT 2 DISCH illuminate flashing? How long will the second discharge last for?

A

Approx 6 Minutes

Approx 2 Hours

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32
Q

What type of thrust reverser is fitted to a B717?

A

Clamshell Type

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33
Q

What are the three main components of the FADEC system?

A
  • Throttle
  • Throttle Module
  • EEC Electronic Engine Control
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34
Q

What does the FADEC system do?

A
  • Converts pilot inputs to the throttles into electronic signals that are sent to the EECs.
  • EEC optimises engine operation based on prevailing atmospheric conditions, airplane and engine conditions and phase of flight.
  • EEC also transmits engine data to the FCCs and VIAs to be displayed on EAD and SD.
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35
Q

What part of the engine is N1 referring to?

A

The fan assembly and low pressure compressor.

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36
Q

What part of the engine does N2 refer to?

A

High Pressure Compressor.

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37
Q

Which turbine stages drive the N2 (high pressure) compressor?

A

1st and 2nd stages.

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38
Q

What compressor drives the accessory gear box?

A

N2 high pressure compressor.

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39
Q

What is EPR?

A
  • Primary thrust setting parameter.

- Ratio of turbine exhaust stream pressure to the engine inlet pressure.

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40
Q

How is Air flow Controlled through the N2 Compressor?

A

EEC controlled variable stator vanes.

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41
Q

What number is the ‘high limit’ for engine vibration?

A

4

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42
Q

What occurs when the EEC defaults to N1 mode?

A
  • An ‘X’ is displayed on the EPR indicator and dashes replace the EPR limit.
  • The autothrottle disconnects and remains disconnected as long as the engine is in N1 mode.
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43
Q

What controls the APU RPM, EGT, Air and electrical output?

A

Electronic Control Unit (ECU) in the E/E Compartment.

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44
Q

Which fuel tank does the APU normally feed from?

A

Right hand fuel tank.

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45
Q

What 3 positions can the APU door be in?

A

Closed, Fully Open, Ram

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46
Q

Where does the APU draw power from to start?

A

Aircraft Battery using DC Starter motor.

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47
Q

What 3 circumstances will cause an Auto APU shutdown during flight?

A
  • Overspeed 105%
  • APU Fire Warning
  • DC power bus losses power (APU ECU is powered by the DC Transfer Bus.
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48
Q

How many indications should be checked during an A/C power fire system test?

A

9 Indications:

L/R Master Warning Lights
L/R Fire Handles illuminate
3 x Level 3 alerts
1 x Level 0 alert
Aural attention tone
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49
Q

How many indications should be checked during a Cargo Smoke Test?

A

10 Indications:

Attention Tone
L/R Master Warning
4 PUSH lights on cargo panel illuminate.
2 x Level 2 alerts
1 x Level 0 alert
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50
Q

What is the MTOW?

A

53,524 kgs

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51
Q

What is the MLW?

A

49,895 kgs

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52
Q

What I the maximum Gear Retraction speed?

A

250 KIAS

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53
Q

What is the maximum Gear Extension speed?

A

300 KIAS

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54
Q

What is the certified maximum tyre rating speed?

A

195 KIAS

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55
Q

What position must the APU Air switch be in for Take-off and in-flight operations?

A

OFF position.

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56
Q

What is the APU starter motor duty cycle?

A

3 Consecutive start attempts, wait 30 mins prior to further start attempts.

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57
Q

How many portable Halon fire extinguishers are there and where are they located?

A

3 total.

1 behind FOs seat.
1 in fwd cabin and 1 in aft cabin both on right hand side.

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58
Q

What does the emergency lighting system consist of?

A
  • Cockpit emergency lights.
  • Cabin standby and emergency lights.
  • Emergency exit markers/locators/identifiers.
  • Cabin floor proximity emergency escape path lights.
  • Photo-luminescent floor proximity lighting.
  • External overwing escape path lights.
  • Tailcone escape path lights.
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59
Q

What powers the emergency lighting system and how long can that supply power?

A

Rechargeable battery packs and 10 minutes.

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60
Q

What cabin altitude will cause the oxygen compartment doors to automatically open?

A

14,150 ft

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61
Q

What cabin altitude will cause the NO MASKS alert on the EAD?

A

14,750 ft

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62
Q

How are the oxygen compartment doors manually deployed?

A

A PASS OXY MASK switch located on the right side bulkhead behind the FOs seat.

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63
Q

When the Engine Ignition Switch is in AUTO, when is the ignition turned on?

A
  • During engine start on ground.
  • On for flameout.
  • On if water is detected in the N2 stage.
  • On for 60 sec after turning engine anti-ice on.
  • On if engine surge is detected.
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64
Q

What is the maximum TGT for Normal and Air Start?

A

700 degrees - Normal.

850 degrees - Air.

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65
Q

What is the maximum TGT for take-off?

A

900 degrees.

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66
Q

What are the engine starter limits?

A

180 sec - 15 secs - 180 secs - 15 secs - 180 secs - 15 min.

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67
Q

What are the 3 idle speeds that can be set by the EEC?

A

Ground Idle
Flight Idle
Approach Idle - Engine anti-ice ON, Slats extend or Gear down.

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68
Q

What part of the aircraft is the PCDU associated with?

A

PCDU - Power Conversion and Distribution Unit

Associated with each Generator (IDGS)

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69
Q

In the event of a total loss of Normal AC power, how long can the aircraft batteries power critical flight instruments?

A

60 minutes.

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70
Q

How are the IDGs cooled?

A

Oil cooled

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71
Q

How many main batteries does the aircraft have? Where are they located?

A

3 Ni-Cad batteries connected in series.

E/E Compartment

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72
Q

How many PCDUs are there?

A

3 - one for each IDG and the APU

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73
Q

What is the primary source of DC power?

A

Transformer Rectifiers (TRs) located in PCDU.

TRs convert 115 volt AC power to 28 volt DC.

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74
Q

Where is the single point refuelling station located?

A

Right wing leading edge.

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75
Q

What is the fuel usage per hour of the APU?

A

159 kg/hr

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76
Q

How do you supply fuel to the APU via the centre tank?

A

Turn the centre tank fuel pumps on.

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77
Q

How can fuel quantity be determined in the event of a FQGS failure?

A

Magnetic dripless sticks installed at the bottom of each tank.

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78
Q

Where does the refuel control panel get its power from?

A

Emergency AC inverter which is connected to the battery direct bus when refuelling panel power switch is turned on.

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79
Q

Which fuel tanks can the engine suction feed from?

A

Left and Right.

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80
Q

Where are the centre tank boost pumps located?

A

In the right fuel tank.

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81
Q

Where is ballast fuel carried?

A

Centre Tank.

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82
Q

When does a RA appear on the PFD and ND?

A

When a threat airplane is approximately 25 seconds from The closest point of approach (CPA).

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83
Q

When does a TA appear on the ND?

A

When an airplane is 40 seconds from closest point of approach (CPA).

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84
Q

When does proximate traffic appear on the ND?

A

6nm and 1,200ft

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85
Q

What is the maximum permitted speed when the outer pane of the CPT or FO windshield is cracked?

A

315 KIAS

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86
Q

What is the maximum permitted speed when the inner pane of the CPT or FOs windshield is cracked?

A

235 KIAS

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87
Q

When would a red REV appear in the EPR gauge? When would an Amber REV appear?

A

Red - Uncommanded Thrust Reverser Deployment.

Yellow - Limits are exceeded and emergency reverse is selected.

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88
Q

What FMS page displays maximum altitude/drift down altitude for 1 engine inoperative?

A

PERF

Maximum Altitude line

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89
Q

When will the FUEL LEVEL LO Level 1 Alert occur?

A

Will indicate when Centre tank Level is below 450 kgs and either the Left or Right Tank Level is below 907 Kgs for 2 minutes.

FCOM Vol 3 Page Fuel 40.1

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90
Q

At what brake temperature will the BRAKE OVERHEAT Level 2 warning be annunciated?

A

When 1 brake exceeds 260 degrees and will go out when the temp reduces below 230 degrees.

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91
Q

What 4 items are required to operate in RVSM airspace?

A
  • 2 independent primary altimeter systems.
  • a Mode C transponder.
  • an Altitude alerting system.
  • an autopilot with height lock.

JEPPS ATC 5.1.3.1

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92
Q

What is the maximum overshoot of altitude permitted in RVSM airspace?

A

150 feet

JEEPS ATC 5.1.4.1

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93
Q

If one primary altimeter fails during flight in RVSM airspace, what are the flight crew required to do?

A
  • Couple the autopilot to the working altimeter.
  • Maintain increased vigilance of altitude keeping.
  • Notify ATC using the phrase “for information operating on one primary altimeter system”
94
Q

Why is it important to switch the external power switch off prior to disconnecting a GPU?

A

To cause a no break transfer. Failing o do this will result in a break transfer which will result in a bunch of unwanted alerts. The only way to remove alerts is to conduct a complete de-power.

95
Q

If a Captain considers a circuit breaker to be essential to flight and chooses to reset it, how long is the recommended cooling period?

A

2 minutes

FMS FCOM Operating Procedures Page NP20.2

96
Q

After starting the APU, how long should you wait before checking if the battery charging rate is less then 70? What may have failed if “BATT CHRGER FAILED” is displayed on EAD?

A

3 Minutes

APU Starter Relay

FCOM Operating Procedures Page NP20.6

97
Q

When will the CAWS not call ‘500’ or ‘1,000’?

A

When that point is within 30 feet of the approach minimums calls.

OM-B2 Page 6-1

98
Q

What does the right hydraulic system operate?

A
  • Landing Gear
  • Outboard Spoilers
  • Right Thrust Reverser
  • Rudder
99
Q

What does the Left Hydraulic System operate?

A
  • Left Thrust Reverser
  • Elevator Augmentation System
  • Inboard Spoilers
100
Q

On the Hydraulics System page a Letter ‘P’ next to the hydraulic pump symbol mean what?

A

The pump is commanded on with low pressure.

101
Q

What happens when the battery switch is turned off?

A

The battery is disconnected from the DC transfer Bus and a ‘BAT SWITCH OFF’ alert appears.

102
Q

If the battery switch is on but vertical lines are indicated on the battery symbol on the Electric Synoptic page, what does this indicate?

A

The Battery Switch is on but the battery is not charging.

103
Q

What 2 electrical busses does the emergency power switch provide power to when in the ARM position and a loss of normal power occurs?

A

Emergency AC Bus and Emergency DC Bus.

104
Q

How do you reset the Emergency Power when it is no longer required?

A

Turn the switch OFF momentarily then back to ARM.

105
Q

What does the speed trend vector indicate?

A

The end of the green line is the speed expected to be achieved in 10 seconds.

FCOM VOL 3 Page Inst 30.5

106
Q

When does SEL CTR PUMPS OFF EAD message appear?

A

When centre tank fuel has low fuel and either centre fuel pump has low pressure.

107
Q

What does the Pitch Limit Indicator show and when does it turn red?

A

The difference between Airplane AoA and Stick Shaker AoA and it turns red at Stick Shaker AoA.

108
Q

What is the normal operating Oil Pressure and at what pressure should flight at a reduced power level be conducted?

A

45psi and above is normal.
Oil pressure below 35psi is undesirable.

FCOM 2 Limitations

109
Q

What is the AC power rating and where is AC power generated?

A
  • 115V 400 hertz 3 phase.
  • Power comes from 2 engine driven IDGs & the APU driven generator.
  • AC power also available from external power receptacle.

FCOM ELEC Page 10.1

110
Q

What is the DC power system rated to and what are the sources of DC power?

A
  • 28 Volt.
  • Each PCDU has an Integrated Transformer Rectifier which coverts 115V to 28V.
  • 3 NICAD Batteries connected in Series.

FCOM ELEC Page 10.1

111
Q

What does EPCU stand for, where is it located and what does it do (4 Items)?

A
  • Electrical Power Control Unit.
  • E/E Compartment.
  • External Power Protection, Automatic Power Transfers, Emergency Power Automatic Activation, Galley Power Shedding.
112
Q

What does PCDU stand for, how many are there and what is there purpose?

A
  • Power Conversion and Distribution Unit.
  • 3 = one for each generator.
  • Receives power for IDGs/APU Generator and distributes to main generator busses.

FCOM 3 ELEC Page 10.2

113
Q

What is the purpose of the Ground Service Electrical Power Switch on the aft overhead panel?

A

To provide power to the ground service bus only.

FCOM 3 ELEC Page 10.2

114
Q

What are the 2 functions of the ARM position on the Emergency Power Selector?

A
  1. Performs Emergency Power Test.
  2. Automatically provide power to AC & DC emergency Busses when normal power is lost.

FCOM 3 ELEC Page 10.3

115
Q

What occurs when a Generator Switch is moved to the off position?

A

The respective generator is disconnected from its Generator Bus.

FCOM 3 ELEC Page 10.3

116
Q

When the APU Generator Switch is in the ON position, what busses are powered?

A

AC Tie Bus and Ground Service Bus.

FCOM 3 ELEC Page 10.3

117
Q

When the L/R BUS TIE switches are in the AUTO position, what system automatically opens and closes the relays?

A

The IEPS Integrated Electrical Power System opens and closes relays to satisfy power requirements.

FCOM 2 ELEC Page 10.4

118
Q

What components does the PCDU incorporate (6 Items)?

A
  • Generator control unit (GCU)
  • Transformer rectifier (TR)
  • Generator relay (GR)
  • Bus tie relay or main external power relay
  • DC tie relay
  • Various protective circuit breakers
119
Q

What is a No Break Power Transfer?

A

Allows power transfers to occur without power interruption.

120
Q

When may a Break Power transfer occur?

A
  • Unexpected loss of APU or IDG power ie: Flameout or uncommanded shutdown or;
  • Transfer from APU to External Power source.

FCOM 3 ELEC Page 10.7

121
Q

How can you tell if the DC Transfer Bus has failed?

A

ISIS and DU2 will be inoperative.

122
Q

What are some items that are powered via the DC Transfer Bus?

A
  • Fire Detection and Protection
  • APU Control
  • Engine Start pump
  • Display Unit 2
  • Emergency evacuation lights charging (when switch is in the off position)
  • ISIS
123
Q

If the DC Transfer Bus has failed, how are the engines shut down?

A

By pulling the respective Engine Fire Handles.

124
Q

What is the BUS TIE priority?

A
  1. APU
  2. External Power
  3. Right Generator
  4. Left Generator
125
Q

When is the Battery Charger operative?

A

Whenever the Ground Service Bus is powered and the Emergency Power system is not ON. The Battery charger is not related to the Battery Switch Position.

126
Q

What is Rotor Bow?

A

When the engine and rotor case distort due to higher metal temperatures at the top of the engine. This can result in higher then normal vibration after engine start.

Occurs between 20 mins and 5 hours after shutdown.

Motoring engine for 30 seconds prior to fuel ON will reduce distortion.

127
Q

Where are a majority of the pneumatic system components located?

A

In the engine nacelles and tail compartment.

128
Q

What does the PODS system do?

A

Detects overheat conditions in the tail compartment and along the tail and wing ice protection manifolds.

129
Q

When would both air conditioning systems shutdown?

A

In the event of an engine failure below 3,000ft.

130
Q

Which pneumatic system has a Ram Air valve?

A

The right system.

131
Q

Where are live animals transported and why?

A

Forward cargo bay because the rear bay is not heated.

132
Q

What does the gasper booster fan do and when selected on, what other switch should be selected if the packs are off?

A

Provides supplemental airplane ventilation.

Ram air valve should be selected open.

133
Q

If both fire loops detect an APU Fire, what 5 things occur?

A
  1. APU Shuts down.
  2. APU Fire alert appears on EAD.
  3. Master Warning Lights illuminate.
  4. Fire light on the external APU ground control panel illuminate.
  5. Aural/Vocal warnings and exterior fire warning horn sound.
134
Q

What occurs when smoke is detected in the lavatories?

A
  1. Master Caution lights illuminate.
  2. Alert appears on EAD.
  3. Light illuminates red on ceiling adjacent to Lavatory.
  4. Flight attendant master call lights illuminate red.
  5. Hi-Lo chime sounds on PA.
135
Q

How long (approx.) can the cargo fire suppression system suppress a fire and maintain an atmosphere that will prevent ignition for?

A

80 mins

136
Q

What are the indications of Cargo Smoke and/or Fire?

A
  1. Master Warning lights will flash.
  2. Cargo Smoke voice warning
  3. CARGO SMOKE EAD level 3 alert.
  4. Air synoptic page with red triangles indicating displayed on SD.
  5. Push light on FWD or AFT Cargo Smoke switch light will illuminate flashing.
137
Q

If both engine loops are detecting a fire, what indications occur?

A
  1. L/R Engine Fire Handles Illuminate.
  2. Fuel Switch Lights Illuminate.
  3. Aural/Vocal Warnings Sound.
  4. Engine L/R Fire EAD appears.
  5. Master Warning Lights Illuminate.
138
Q

What is the Maximum Ramp Weight?

A

53,977 kgs

139
Q

If starting with a tailwind greater then 10 kts, what should occur prior to turning the fuel switch ON?

A

Positive N1 indication.

FCOM 2 Operating Procedures

140
Q

If starting engines in winds greater then 30 Kts what is the consideration?

A

Aircraft should be positioned into wind.

FCOM 2 Operating Procedures

141
Q

If starting with a tailwind of 25 Kts or greater, what procedure should be carried out and where is the procedure found?

A

Deployed Thrust Reverser Start.

Aircraft Flight Manual in aircraft.

142
Q

What is checked by the EAD Green Box prior to Takeoff?

A
  1. Stab Trim not in green.
  2. Rudder Trim not centred.
  3. Slats not in Takeoff position.
  4. Flaps not in Takeoff position.
  5. Park Brake.
  6. Spoilers not armed - white “spoilers”.
143
Q

If after switching the APU off the APU RPM remains at approximately 20%, what does this indicate?

A

The APU starter relay is still engaged.

144
Q

How is the microphone boom reactivated after the O2 mask has been used?

A

By closing the O2 doors.

QRH EP.10.2

145
Q

How is an engine compressor stall indicated?

A

Engine thrust lost and rapidly rising or high TGT

146
Q

When may a “LAT FUEL UNBAL” alert be displayed?

A

When main tank quantities differ by more than 635 kgs.

FCOM VOL 2 Operating Procedures SP.100.1

147
Q

If the PODS fails to shut off an affected manifold, what alert is displayed?

If PODS automatically closes the manifold, what alert is displayed?

A

WING/TAIL MANF FAIL

or

WNG/TAIL ANTI ICE OFF

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.2

148
Q

What N2 does the start valve close during an auto engine start?

A

41%

FCOM Vol 3 Page Eng.10.5

149
Q

How are the Avionics Cooled?

A

Primary and backup fans
Or,
Venturi Airflow

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.8

150
Q

Is the Forward Cargo compartment heater available on the ground?

A

No

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.8

151
Q

Generally the APU conducts a NBPT when shutting down, under what conditions would this not occur?

A
  • FIRE CONT switch is selected to OFF & AGENT ARM or,
  • When the exterior ground APU toggle switch is moved to the SHUT OFF position, or
  • When the APU is shut down by the ECU following detection of an APU compartment fire.
152
Q

When centre tank fuel is used to power the APU, what fuel pumps should be on?

A

Right and Centre Pumps

FCOM Vol 3 Page APU.10.2

153
Q

Inflight, what 2 reasons will cause the APU to shutdown?

A

Fire
Over speed

FCOM Vol 3 Page APU.10.2

154
Q

How long can the aircraft batteries power critical flight instruments in the event of a loss of normal power sources?

A

60 minutes

FCOM Vol 3 Page ELEC.10.1

155
Q

What does the Avionics Cooling switch do and is it available on the ground?

A

When selected to FAN, the primary fan cools the avionics
When selected to OVRD, the fan is off an Venturi air cools the avionics.

The switch is inoperative on the ground.

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.8

156
Q

When conducting an engine start from an external air source, what is the minimum PSI the external source should be providing?

A

25 PSI

FCOM Vol 3 Page Eng.10.5

157
Q

When does the engine fire handle illumination go out?

A

When the fire is out out.

158
Q

During an auto engine start the EEC will command the engine to be ‘motored’ for 30 Secs prior to fuel On, why does it do this?

A

To reduce engine rotor and case distortion due to rotor bow. Rotor Bow can cause high engine vibration.

FCOM Vol 3 Page Eng.10.6

159
Q

During an auto engine start, what must the TGT be below before the EEC will allow fuel On?

A

150 degrees

FCOM Vol 3 Page Eng.10.6

160
Q

What 2 things does the EEC NOT monitor during an auto start?

A

Oil Pressure and N1

FCOM Vol 3 Page Eng.10.7

161
Q

Will the EEC abort an engine start during flight?

A

No

FCOM Vol 3 Page Eng.10.6

162
Q

During engine start when switching the fuel switch to ON, ‘PITOT CAPT FAIL’ and ‘PITOT AUX FAIL’ illuminates, what may cause this?

A

Air Data Heat switch is OFF with Fuel Switch ON

163
Q

When switching the fuel switch to OFF, what 2 things occur?

A

Shuts off Fuel to respective engine then turns the ignition off.

FCOM Vol 3 Page Fuel.30.2

164
Q

Max CLB speed on the FMS PERF page refers to what speed?

A

Best angle of climb

FCOM Vol 2 FMS Page FMS.30.3

165
Q

What trim system does the auto pilot use for trimming the horizontal stab?

A

Alternate System

FCOM Vol 3 Page Flt.10.7

166
Q

What are the indications of a fuel leak?

A
  • ENG L/R FUEL PRES EAD Alert
  • Lateral Fuel Imbalance.
  • Fuel visually leaking from wings.
  • Strong fuel odour in cabin.
  • High fuel flow indications.
167
Q

What are some reasons for a high hydraulic temperature?

A
  • Hydraulic pump failure in the associated system.
  • Internal by-pass or leakage of a hydraulic component within the affected system.
  • Pump cavitation due to excessive air in the system.
  • Long duration taxiing with high ambient temperatures.
  • Extended use of AUX and TRANS Hydraulic pumps.
168
Q

What switch lights do not illuminate when conducting the ANNUN LT TEST?

A
  • ENG Fire Handles
  • ENG Start Switch
  • Stick Pusher Push to Inhibit
169
Q

What occurs if a reverser deploys on flight?

A
  • Engine thrust reduces to Idle.
  • REV will be displayed in red inside EPR Arcs.
  • REV L/R DEPLOYED EAD alert

FCOM Vol 3 Page Eng.10.9

170
Q

What valve in the Pneumatic System regulates the 8th stage air to satisfy pneumatic pressure and temperature requirements in the system?

A

High Stage Valve

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.1

171
Q

How is pneumatic air cooled prior to being distributed throughout the pneumatic manifolds?

A

Fan discharge air cools 5th/8th stage air at the pre-cooler and is then discharged overboard.

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.1

172
Q

What side (L or R) does ground pneumatic source air enter the pneumatic system and how would air be distributed to the opposite side?

A

The Right side using the same plumbing as the Ram Air System.

The air can be distributed to the left side via the Pneumatic Isolavtion valve and Crossfeed Manifold.

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.2

173
Q

In flight with the Pneumatic Isolation Switch set to ‘Auto’, when will the Isolation Valve open?

A

When only one sub-system is supplying air, the isolation valve automatically opens to supply bleed air for airfoil ice protection.

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.2

174
Q

What monitors and controls pneumatic air pressure and temperature requirements requirements for the pneumatic system?

A

Pneumatic System Controller

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.2

175
Q

What 3 valves (per side) does the Pneumatic System Controller control?

A
  • PRSOVs
  • High Stage Valves
  • Fan Air Valves

FCOM Vol 3 Page Air.10.2

176
Q

What 2 Valves does the ‘Bleed Air Switch’ close when the switch is selected ‘OFF’?

A
  • PRSOV

- High Stage Valve

177
Q

How many PODS ‘loop sensors’ does the Tail compartment have? How many does the Anti-Ice manifold have?

A

Tail Compartment = 2

Anti-Ice Manifolds = 1

178
Q

If PODS fails to close an Anti-Ice valve after a failure in the manifold what alert is displayed?

A

WING/TAIL MANIFOLD FAIL

179
Q

What is the name of the Valve that controls the flow of air into the air conditioning system?

A

Flow Control Valves

180
Q

What valves do the ‘L or R Pack Switch’ close?

A

Flow Control Valves

181
Q

What 2 types of air does the Temperature Control Valve mix?

A

Conditioned Air and air from the Pre-Cooler.

182
Q

What 3 reasons will the Packs shutdown automatically?

A
  • Engine Failure below 3,000ft AGL
  • Packs Off selected in FMS
  • Duct Overheat detected
183
Q

When considering cabin pressurisation, How is negative pressure relieved?

A

Through the entrance galley door seals and a negative pressure relief valve in the aft pressure bulkhead.

184
Q

How is the tail compartment cooled on the ground?

A
  • With a pack on, a tail compartment cooling fan provides cooling.
  • Tail compartment air is exhausted overboard through the right air conditioning exhaust duct.
185
Q

How many pressure controllers are able to automatically control cabin pressurisation and what electrical Bus is their power controlled from?

A
  • 2 Pressure controllers (auto 1 and auto 2)

- DC Bus

186
Q

When does the cabin pressurise and/or depressurise during take-off?

A
  • Pressurises when the throttles are advanced for takeoff.

- Depressurises when the throttles are retarded during RTO.

187
Q

What cools the radio rack/avionics during flight?

A
  1. Primary Radio Rack Fan
  2. Backup Radio Rack Fan (If Primary Fails)
  3. Venturi airflow (if primary & Backup fans fail).
188
Q

How is the forward cargo compartment heated?

A

Electric Heater

189
Q

Is the forward cargo compartment heated on the ground?

A

No

190
Q

What 3 items will cause a Break Power Transfer when the APU is shut down?

A
  1. the cockpit APU FIRE CONT toggle switch is moved to the OFF & AGENT ARM position
  2. When the exterior ground APU toggle switch is moved to the SHUT OFF position
  3. When the APU is shut down by the ECU following detection of an APU compartment fire.
191
Q

With the aircraft connected to External Power (and EXT PWR switch ON) what fuel pumps can be used to start the APU?

A

Any right tank AC fuel pumps or Left pumps if fuel crossfeed lever is ON.

192
Q

If an APU Fault condition occurs during flight (with the APU on), when does the APU shut down?

A

10 mins after landing

193
Q

If the Aft Accessory Compartment overheats, what occurs to the APU bleed air supply on the ground? In Flight?

A
  • APU bleed air supply shuts off

- Bleed supply shutoff is inhibited during flight and during engine starting.

194
Q

What converts AC power to DC power?

A

Each PCDU has an integrated Transformer Rectifier.

195
Q

What are the engine IDGs and APU Generator rated at?

A

Engine - 35/40 KVA

APU - 40/60 KVA

196
Q

What are the 4 main things the Electrical Power Control Unit does?

A
  1. External Power Protection
  2. Automatic Power Transfers
  3. Emergency Power Activation
  4. Galley Power Shedding
197
Q

What happens when the battery switch is turned OFF?

A

The battery is disconnected from the DC Transfer Bus

198
Q

Is the emergency power selector operative with the battery switch selected OFF?

A

No

199
Q

What is the primary function of the Transformer Rectifers?

A

Convert 115V AC power to 28V DC power

200
Q

In the event of complete AC failure, how long will emergency power last?

A

60 mins

201
Q

What 4 busses does the emergency power system provide power too?

A
  1. Battery Direct Bus
  2. DC Transfer Bus
  3. Emergency AC Bus (through emergency inverter)
  4. Emergency DC Bus
202
Q

What turbine (HP or LP) drives the accessory gearbox and N2 Compressor?

A

High Pressure Turbine

203
Q

What turbine (HP or LP) drives the Fan and N1 compressor?

A

Low Pressure Turbine

204
Q

How many channels does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) have?

A

2

205
Q

What controls airflow through the N2 compressor to achieve smooth acceleration and deceleration?

A

EEC Controlled variable stator vanes

206
Q

How is the engine oil cooled?

A

Fuel cooled oil cooler

207
Q

In flight with the ignition switch in AUTO, what 3 things will cause both ignition units to energise?

A
  1. Flameout
  2. Water detected in the N2 Compressor.
  3. Combuster Instability
208
Q

How many ignition units are energised during a normal engine start?

A

1

The EEC alternates from 1 to the other between engine starts.

209
Q

What would cause the START AIR PRES LO alert to be displayed?

A

air pressure below 25 psi is sensed for more than 15 seconds after the ENG START switch has been pulled

210
Q

What time period is Rotor Bow likely to occur and what does it cause?

A

20 mins to 5 hours after shutdown

Vibration may be higher after start

211
Q

How can vibrations due to Rotor Bow be avoided?

A

Motoring the engine for 30 seconds prior to fuel On during engine start. The EEC does this during an auto start.

212
Q

What are the 6 reasons a start will be auto-aborted?

A
  1. Hung Start.
  2. Starter cutout speed (41% N2) not reached within the period of the starter duty timer (180 sec.).
  3. Hot Start, TGT exceeds 700°C or the rate of TGT increase would lead to a TGT exceedance.
  4. Fuel on condition not being satisfied.
  5. Loss of a valid N2 input.
  6. Certain failures of both channels of the EEC.a
213
Q

What 2 things does the EEC not monitor during engine start?

A
  • N1

- Oil Pressure

214
Q

Can an auto start be conducted in-flight?

A

No, all in-flight starts are manual starts

215
Q

When is the auto-relight function of the Ignition system disabled?

A
  • After shutdown.

- N2 speeds below 15%

216
Q

What does the Engine Synchroniser system match during takeoff? During Climb, Cruise and Descent?

A
  1. EPRs

2. Fan Speeds

217
Q

What 2 things do the Fire Loops provide?

A

Fire and overheat detection

218
Q

What occurs when manual rudder mode is selected or right hydraulic pressure to the rudder is low?

A

The rudder control tab unlocks and the rudder is controlled manually.

219
Q

What protects the empennage from extreme loads due to excessive rudder input?

A

Primary rudder limiter and backup rudder restricting system

220
Q

When is Fuel Return to Tank inhibited by the EEC?

A
  • Takeoff
  • Landing
  • Main tank fuel low
  • High fuel temperature
221
Q

When does the hydraulic system reference line on the Hyd synoptic appear?

A

After engine start when thrust has reached idle

222
Q

What must be done to release the brake pressure stored in the brake accumulator?

A

Operate the brakes manually

223
Q

Approx what pressure do the engine driven hydraulic pumps supply pressure to the system?

A

3,000 psi

224
Q

When is the WING ICE DET EAD alert disabled?

A

Takeoff, landing and in flight

225
Q

Which engine (L or R) provides bleed air to the Wing anti ice system?

A

Left

226
Q

Which engine (L or R) provides bleed air to the Tail anti ice system?

A

Right

227
Q

When should a clearance to start the engines be obtained from ATC?

A
  • When thrust needs to be increased above idle (Crossbleed Start)
  • When starting without airways clearance (maintenance)
228
Q

What indicates an engine compressor stall?

A
  • High TGT

- Loss of engine thrust.

229
Q

How is spoiler float indicated? What should your initial actions be?

A

Sudden roll when flaps extended beyond 25 degrees.

Retract flaps to 25 degrees.

230
Q

In the level 2 Alert HYD R PRES LOW why may an increasing Hyd QTY be indicated?

A

Due to foaming of Hydraulic fluid

231
Q

At what point during the takeoff and initial climb will the autopilot control the elevator?

A

After the all engine acceleration altitude.

Aircraft & Flying (5 decks)

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