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Cobham > RSC 1 Theory > Flashcards

RSC 1 Theory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the recent experience requirements by day?

A

3 take-offs; and at least 3 landings as PF or;

in the simulator day or night

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2
Q

What are the recent experience requirements by night?

A

3 take-offs; and at least 3 landings as PF or;

in the simulator day or night and Passed the last RSC

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3
Q

The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft:

A
  • IFR; or

* NVFR.

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4
Q

To fly single-pilot IFR, must have completed:

A
  • flight test single-pilot aircraft; or

* instrument proficiency check in a single-pilot aircraft.

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5
Q

To conduct a: IFR Flight

A

3 instrument approaches or;

RSC in an aircraft/Sim previous 90 days

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6
Q

To conduct a: 2D instrument approach

A

2D instrument approach in an aircraft/Sim previous 90 days

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7
Q

To conduct a: 3D instrument approach

A

none

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8
Q

To conduct a: azimuth guidance operation

A

azimuth guidance operation in an aircraft/Sim previous 90 days

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9
Q

To conduct a: CDI operation

A

CDI operation in an aircraft/Sim previous 90 days

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10
Q

To conduct a: Circling approach

A

Cyclic training (12 months)

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11
Q

To conduct: Any Flight or RSC

A

3 line flights 35 days OR;

  • 3 Take off and landing 90 days and
  • 1 line flight within 35 days OR;
  • RSC 60 days
  • Requires HTT, HPT or CP approval
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12
Q

To conduct: Line flight

A

Line Check in previous 1 year

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13
Q

Flight below LSALT as PIC at night requires?

A

Flight below LSALT at night in previous 60 days

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14
Q

What are the minimum static pressure instruments required? PVT, AWK, Freight CHTR<5700kg, NVFR CHTR (CAO 20.18)

A

ASI
ALT
VSI (not NVFR)
ALT Static or dual flush static ports

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15
Q

What are the minimum gyroscopic instruments required?

PVT, AWK, Freight CHTR<5700kg, NVFR CHTR (CAO 20.18)

A

AH
DG
T+Slip
Duplicated PWR(not NVFR) + Monitor

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16
Q

What are the minimum other instruments required?

PVT, AWK, Freight CHTR<5700kg, NVFR CHTR (CAO 20.18)

A 
Compass
Clock (watch Ok) 
OAT
Pitot Heat (not NVFR)
Windshield Wiper
FDR, CVR
XPDR &amp; ADSB (CTA)
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17
Q

What are the additional minimum other instruments required? CHTR >5700kg

A 
2nd ALT
2nd AH
Clock (built in)
GPWS
IFR in CTA – AAI or Alt alert
Weather Radar
All equipment must be serviceable unless:
•	CASA approved
•	PUS
•	Pax convenience
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18
Q

What are the additional minimum other instruments required? CHTR >18,000kg

A

3rd AH with 30 minutes independent power source

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19
Q

What are the additional minimum other instruments required? CHTR, RPT & AWK(RFDS + Ambulance)

A

Autopilot with: Roll, HDG hold
Pitch, ALT hold
IFR Co-pilot
Maximum 3 days since failure

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20
Q

Aircraft Lighting requirements? (at night)

A

1) Passenger Lights (not required if not carrying passengers)
2) Pilot Compartment lights
3) Position and Anti-Collision lights
4) Instrument illumination
o with intensity control
5) Landing Light (2 required if carrying passengers CHTR)
6) Emergency light =Torch: 1 per crew member

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21
Q

What are the lighting and aircraft requirements for using min Vis on an ILS?

A 
FD or AP(LOC, GP)
Failure warning (AH and DG)
HIRL
HIAL 
RVR
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22
Q

You are conducting an RNAV and the ATIS says the HIAL is U/S, requirements?

A

+0.9 km to minima (all NPA)

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23
Q

You are conducting an NDB and the ATIS says the HIAL is U/S, requirements?

A

+0.9 km to minima (all NPA)

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24
Q

You are conducting a VOR and the ATIS says the HIAL is U/S, requirements?

A

+0.9 km to minima (all NPA)

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25
Q

You are conducting an ILS and the ATIS says the HIAL is U/S, requirements?

A

1.5 km Vis Minimum

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26
Q

You are conducting an ILS and the ATIS says the RVR is U/S, requirements?

A

0.8 km Vis Minimum

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27
Q

You are conducting an ILS and the ATIS says the HIRL is U/S, requirements?

A

1.2 km Vis Minimum

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28
Q

You are conducting an ILS without the autopilot or FD, requirements?

A

1.2 km Vis Minimum

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29
Q

You are conducting an ILS however the fail flag on the DG is U/S, requirements?

A

1.2 km Vis Minimum

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30
Q

You are at a controlled aerodrome with interleaved circuitry lighting, spacing doubles due to a failure, are there any requirements?

A

published minimum visibility multiplied by a factor of 1.5

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31
Q

You are at a non- controlled aerodrome with interleaved circuitry lighting, spacing doubles due to a failure, are there any requirements?

A

No?

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32
Q

You are nominating an alternate due lighting, what are the requirements there if PAL?

A

2 VHF radios or 1 VHF and 1 HF with 30 Mins holding fuel

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33
Q

An aerodrome has portable lighting and a responsible person, do you require an alternate?

A

No.

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34
Q

An aerodrome has PAL lighting and STBY power, do you require an alternate?

A

Yes.

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35
Q

An aerodrome has PAL and a responsible person, do you require an alternate?

A

Yes.

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36
Q

An aerodrome has PAL, STBY power and a responsible person, do you require an alternate?

A

No.

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37
Q

An aerodrome has PAL, portable lighting and a responsible person, do you require an alternate?

A

No.

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38
Q

What is the range of a VOR or DME at: 10,000-15,000ft

A

120 nm

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39
Q

What is the range of a VOR or DME at: 0-5000ft

A

60 nm

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40
Q

What is the range of a VOR or DME at: 20,000ft and above

A

180 nm

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41
Q

What is the range of a VOR or DME at: 5000-10,000ft

A

90 nm

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42
Q

What is the range of a LOC at: <5000 ft

A

30 nm

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43
Q

What is the range of a LOC at: 5000ft and above

A

50 nm

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44
Q

What is the range of a LOC at: 2000ft +-10deg

A

25 nm

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45
Q

What is the order of precision of radio aids?

A

LOC-GPS-VOR-NDB

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46
Q

Navigation tolerance on a VOR?

A

1/2 scale

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47
Q

Navigation tolerance on an NDB?

A

± 5°

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48
Q

Navigation tolerance on a DME Arc?

A

± 2 nm

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49
Q

When does a GPS enter TERM mode?

A

< 30 nm

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50
Q

When does a GPS enter ENR mode?

A

> 30 nm

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51
Q

When does a GPS enter APP mode?

A

< 2 nm IAF

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52
Q

When does a GPS enter LNAV mode?

A

IAF

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53
Q

What is full scale deflection in LNAV mode?

A

0.3 nm

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54
Q

What is full scale deflection in ENR mode?

A

2 nm

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55
Q

What is full scale deflection in APP mode?

A

0.3 nm

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56
Q

What is full scale deflection in TERM mode?

A

1 nm

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57
Q

IFR and CHTR Radio Communication Requirements?

A

1 VHF Radio

HF, If out of VHF coverage

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58
Q

Radio Navigation Systems required for RPT and CHTR:

A

GNSS (any TSO) and 1 ADF or VOR
Or;
2 TSO 145, 146, 196a

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59
Q

Radio Navigation Systems required for AWK & PVT:

A

GNSS (any TSO) and 1 ADF or VOR
Or;
1 TSO 145, 146, 196a

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60
Q

How much fixed reserve is required?

A

30 min 625lbs (200) 650lbs (300)

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61
Q

How much variable reserve is required?

A

10% for other than mission flights

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62
Q

Is the DHC-8 a Qualifying multi-engine aircraft?

A

Yes, 2 pilot operated and meets CAO 20.7.1B

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63
Q

Take of minima?

A 
0ft	550m require:
Runway edge lighting (60m)
Centreline lights/markings
CTAF(R), Day only
Otherwise 800m
64
Q

You are departing a CTAF VMC night, what is the minima?

A

0ft 800m

65
Q

You are departing a CTAF by day, what is the minima?

A

0ft 550m

66
Q

You are departing a CTAF by day, the edge lights have failed what is the minima?

A

0ft 800m

67
Q

You are departing a CTAF by day, the centreline lights have failed however there are cats eyes along the centreline what is the minima?

A

0ft 550m

68
Q

When not issued a transponder code by ATS in class G IFR squawk?

A

2000.

69
Q

Vat Cat B?

A

91-120

70
Q

Vat Cat C?

A

121-140

71
Q

Initial/Intermediate approach speed Cat B?

A

120-180, 140 for reversal

72
Q

Initial/Intermediate approach speed Cat C?

A

160-240

73
Q

Final approach speed Cat B?

A

85-130

74
Q

Final approach speed Cat C?

A

115-160

75
Q

Circling Max speed Cat B?

A

135

76
Q

Circling Max speed Cat C?

A

180

77
Q

M.A. Max speed Cat B?

A

150

78
Q

M.A. Max speed Cat C?

A

240

79
Q

Circling Area Cat B?

A

1.68 nm

80
Q

Circling Area Cat C?

A

2.66 nm

81
Q

Circling Area Cat D?

A

4.2 nm

82
Q

When are life jackets required?

A

> 50 miles.

Not required for non RPT or CHTR if app over water

83
Q

When are life rafts required?

A

> 120 minutes @ normal cruise or

>400 miles whichever is the less

84
Q

If carrying life rafts are there any extra requirements?

A

1 life raft, 1 ELT required

A set of Flares

85
Q

Do we require an ELT?

A

Greater than 50nm require ELT 406 MHz (CAR 252A)

86
Q

What are STARs Designed for?

A

Traffic flow, LSALT, Airspace segregation, Noise abatement, reduction in workload

87
Q

What are SIDs Designed for?

A

Traffic flow, Obstacles, Airspace segregation, Noise abatement

88
Q

What is the nominal SID gradient?

A

3.3% gradient required or more if stated

89
Q

You are conducting a PVT & AWK flight by day, the destination has an RNAV only what are the planning requirements?

A

Alternate required or > 8km Vis &

90
Q

You are conducting a PVT & AWK flight by night, the destination has an RNAV only what are the planning requirements?

A

Alternate required

91
Q

You are conducting a PVT & AWK flight by night, the destination has an NDB only what are the planning requirements?

A

None

92
Q

You are conducting a RPT & CHTR flight by night, the destination has an NDB only and the ADF 2 is U/S what are the planning requirements?

A

Alternate required

93
Q

You are conducting a RPT & CHTR flight by day, the destination has an NDB only and the ADF 1 is U/S what are the planning requirements?

A

Alternate required or > 8km Vis &

94
Q

How much cloud must there be below the alternate minima to require an alternate?

A

> 4/8ths, >SCT

95
Q

When must a TAF be valid?

A

o 30 min before ETA

o 60 min after ETA

96
Q

If planning on having a responsible person available for lighting, when must they be in attendance?

A

30min before ETA to parking

97
Q

When can you operate below LSALT/MSA Day/Night

A
  1. ATS Radar Vectors
  2. DME/DGA arrival,
  3. instrument approach or holding procedure,
  4. Take-off and landing
  5. during climb after departure from an aerodrome
  6. in day VMC
98
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach by day?

A
  • Clear of cloud
  • continuous visual reference to the ground or water
  • visibility > 5km or aerodrome is in sight
  • within 30nm
99
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach by night, no aids or approach lights?

A

Clear of cloud
continuous visual reference to the ground or water
visibility > 5km
circling area

100
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach by night, not below ‘on slope’ on the T-VASIS or PAPI?

A 
Clear of cloud
continuous visual reference to the ground or water
visibility > 5km
5 nm
7 nm if runway has an ILS
101
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach by night, not below the ILS glide path with less than full scale?

A 
Clear of cloud
continuous visual reference to the ground or water
visibility > 5km
10 nm
14nm for 16L &amp; 34L YSSY
102
Q

When must a missed approach be conducted?

A
  1. during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
  2. during an instrument approach and below MSA the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect, or the radio aid fails; or
  3. visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RH from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
  4. a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling; or
  5. visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.
103
Q

What is a Wet runway?

A

surface water < 3 mm deep
slush or loose snow equivalent to surface water < 3 mm deep
moisture on the surface to cause it to appear reflective

104
Q

What is a Contaminated runway?

A

> 25% of the runway within the required length and width being used covered by:
water, or slush, >3 mm deep
loose snow >20 mm deep
compacted snow or ice

105
Q

Can we land/depart a Wet runway?

A

Yes.

106
Q

Can we land/depart a Contaminated runway?

A

No.

107
Q

The climb gradient required in the take-off configuration is?

A

positive @ speed at which the aeroplane becomes airborne

108
Q

The climb gradient required in the take-off configuration landing gear fully retracted is?

A

Gross 2.4% Net 1.6% speed V2

109
Q

The climb gradient required during acceleration in level flight from V2 is?

A

1.2% @ Min 400 feet

110
Q

The climb gradient required in the en-route configuration is?

A

Gross 1.2% Net 0.4% @ maximum continuous power

111
Q

The climb gradient required in the approach configuration is?

A

2.1% @ not more than 1.5 VS

112
Q

The climb gradient required in the landing configuration is?

A

3.2% @ 1.3 VS with all engines operating.

113
Q

The climb gradient required in the Missed Approach is?

A

2.5% (152ft / nm)

114
Q

The net flight path is designed to clear all obstacles by?

A

The net flight path of the aeroplane clear by at least 35 feet vertically all obstacles

115
Q

The net flight path is designed to clear all obstacles by when wet?

A

15 feet

116
Q

The tolerance on the altimeter is?

A

±60ft

117
Q

If the altimeter is reading ±68ft, can the flight depart?

A

Yes, providing the other is reading ±60ft and next check it reads within ±60ft.

118
Q

If an Altimeter reads >±75ft, what happens?

A

U/S

119
Q

Position uncertain means what on the FMS?

A

ANP>RNP

120
Q

Satellite position alarm means what on the FMS?

A

GPS error for longer than:
27 seconds ENR
7 Seconds TERM
7 Seconds APP/LNAV

121
Q

GNSS # Fail means what on the FMS?

A

That particular GNSS has failed

122
Q

GPS Integ means what on the FMS?

A

RAIM is unavailable or a fault is detected. DME may still be in use.

123
Q

None means what on the FMS?

A

There is no integrity monitoring. GPS accuracy is not affected however monitoring is required with other sources.

124
Q

Aircraft engines shall not be started within how many metres of a sealed building?

A

5

125
Q

Aircraft engines shall not be started within how many metres of an aircaft?

A

8

126
Q

Aircraft engines shall not be started within how many metres of an exposed public area?

A

15

127
Q

Aircraft engines shall not be started within how many metres of a unsealed building?

A

15

128
Q

Aircraft engines shall not be operated within how many metres of fuelling equipment, exposed public areas or aircraft if they lie behind and within 15 deg of the exhaust?

A

15m at taxi power

23m at power required to initiate movement

129
Q

On a TAF BC means?

A

Patches

130
Q

On a TAF BL means?

A

Blowing

131
Q

On a TAF DR means?

A

Drifting

132
Q

On a TAF FZ means?

A

Freezing

133
Q

On a TAF MI means?

A

Shallow

134
Q

On a TAF PR means?

A

Partial

135
Q

On a TAF SH means?

A

Showers

136
Q

On a TAF TS means?

A

Thunderstorm

137
Q

On a TAF VC means?

A

in the Vicinity

138
Q

On a TAF BR means?

A

Mist

139
Q

On a TAF DU means?

A

Dust

140
Q

On a TAF UP means?

A

Unidentified precipitation

141
Q

On a TAF VA means?

A

Volcanic ash

142
Q

On a TAF SS means?

A

Sandstorm

143
Q

On a TAF SQ means?

A

Squall

144
Q

On a TAF SN means?

A

Snow

145
Q

On a TAF SG means?

A

Snow grains

146
Q

On a TAF SA means?

A

Sand

147
Q

On a TAF RA means?

A

Rain

148
Q

On a TAF DS means?

A

Duststorm

149
Q

On a TAF PO means?

A

Dust devil

150
Q

On a TAF DZ means?

A

Drizzle

151
Q

On a TAF FC means?

A

Funnel cloud

152
Q

On a TAF FG means?

A

Fog

153
Q

On a TAF FU means?

A

Smoke

154
Q

On a TAF GR means?

A

Hail

155
Q

On a TAF GS means?

A

Small hail/snow pellets

156
Q

On a TAF HZ means?

A

Haze

157
Q

On a TAF PL means?

A

Ice pellets

Cobham (18 decks)

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