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rotation test Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what test differentiates staph aureus from non pathogenic staph

A

coagulase

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2
Q

principle of the catalase

A

differentiates between staph species and strep species

1ml of 3% hydrogen peroxide if bubbles appear, then it is +

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3
Q

what test is used to distinguish the coliform bacteria from the enteric pathogens?

A

TSI- pathogens are usually nonlactose fermenters

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4
Q

collection and transportation of anearobic specimens, what type of collection system is not suitable for anearobic cultures?

A

routine swabs

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5
Q

how could you differentiate listeria monocytogenes from cornebaterium dipetheroids?

A

motility - L is positive C is negative

CAMP test- L is positive C is negative

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6
Q

how could you differentiate alpha streptococci from S. pneumonia?

A

S. pneumoniae is P disc positive (suscpetible) all others are negative

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7
Q

what agar is used fro kirby bauer sensitivity testing?

A

mueller-hinton

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8
Q

which enteric pathogen would be last likely to survive if the stool is left at room temperature fro an extended period of time or refrigerated?

A

shigella

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9
Q

organisms that cause food poisioning?

A

campylobacter, E. Coli, shigella, salmonella, s. aureus

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10
Q

what organism is a gram neg, motile, oxidase pos, rod wth a grape-like odor?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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11
Q

which genus contains, chormogenic, gram =, motile rods, which have been implicated in septicemia, pulmonary, and urinary tract infections?

A

serratia

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12
Q

what ist he most common oragnism in the human intestine?

A

bacteroides spp.

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13
Q

which genus and species is best cultured in an alkaline peptone medium and causes a severe type of diarrhea producing rice water stools?

A

vibrio cholera

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14
Q

to which lancefield group do most of the human pathogens which are beta hemolytic streptococci belong?

A

group A

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15
Q

how do you differentiate the genus Enterobacter from Klebsiella?

A

motility E is pos

K is neg

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16
Q

interpretation of TSI rxc?

A

K/K- alkaline/ alkaline- non fermenter
K/A - alkaline/acid- glucose fermetner
A/A- acid/acid- sucrose or lactose and glucose fermenter
h2s is black

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17
Q

how does a gram pos, and gram neg, bacteria differ?

A

gn are red and have more lipid in the cell membrane, preventing them from drying out during the decolorizer and acid alcohol allowing them to lose the primary dye and take up the counter dye

where as gp are purple and have less lipid so decolorizer and acid alcohol have littler affect

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18
Q

the “satellite phenomenon” indicates that staph has what factor?

A

V factor

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19
Q

what is beta-lactamase?

A

enzymes that a bacteria posses that makes them resistant to penicillin drugs

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20
Q

what sugar is fermented by all enterobaceriaceae?

A

glucose

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21
Q

meningitis due to Haemophilus influenzae is most common in which age group?

A

infants to young children

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22
Q

which genera of enterobactericeae are nonmotile?

A

klebsiella and shigella

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23
Q

which genera of enterobacteriaceae are resistant to many antibiotics and are frequently found in noscomial infections

A

serratia and proteus

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24
Q

which organism is most frequently isolated from a cat or dog bite?

A

pasteurella multocida

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25
Q

from what type of specimens are members of the genus lactobacillus isolated?

A

GI trac, vaginal and urines (female)

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26
Q

what steps must be taken to identify campylobacter in laboratory?

A

use campy plate in 42 degree microaeophillic environment, seagull gram stain, tumbling motility, ox and cat pos

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27
Q

what antibiotics are added to thayer-martin media? why are they added?

A

vancomysin - inhibits gram pos
colistin- inhibits gram neg
nystatin- inhibits fungal
to inhibit normal commensal organisms

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28
Q

what are facultative organism

A

microorganisms that can metabolize aerobically or anaerobically

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29
Q

in the performance of a gram stain, what effect would omitting the iodine step have on the final color of gram positive and gram neg organisms?

A

crystal violet would not adhere tot he cells and the stain will be pink

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30
Q

which organism can be normal in the upper respiratory tract?

A

small amounts of pathogens are normal, must be more tan the amount of NF to be significant

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31
Q

which sterilization method utilizing heat is the most effective and useful fro the clinical lab?

A

steam autoclave

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32
Q

which organism could young staph growing on SBA be confused with?

A

group A

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33
Q

appearance of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in a urethral smear

A

intracellular gram negative, coffee bean shaped diplococci

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34
Q

if oragism are seen on a direct gram-stained smear but are not recovered on routine culture, what type of organism is implicated?

A

anaerobe

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35
Q

which body fluid is often cultured in an effort to trace salmonella typhi carriers?

A

bile

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36
Q

what ist he appearance of an encapsulated organism on blood agar and what effect does the capsule have on the organisms virulence?

A

mucoid and increased virulence

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37
Q

principle of the decarboxylase test

A

reactions: puple- yellow (=)-purple (+)

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38
Q

definition of MIC

A

minimum inhibitory concentration: lowest concentration of antimicrobial that inhibits bacterial growth

39
Q

incubation conditions for anaerobes

A

no oxygen (bio bag) and place din gas pak providing CO2 at 36 degrees. use anaerobic media K&V (laked blood agar)

40
Q

what terms are used to describe the morphology of the members of the genus corynebacterium

A

chinese letters
palisade
picket fence

41
Q

characteristics of bacterial spores

A

hard and thick walled capsule, dormant, non reproductive

42
Q

interpretation of reactions on the XLD

A

highly selective also differential
salmonella (red colonies with black centers)
shigella (red colonies)
lactose positive, yellow

43
Q

biochemical characteristics of E.coli

A

lactose fermenter; indole and methyl red pos

urea and h2s neg

44
Q

appearance (colonial morphology) and pathogenicity of klebsiella pneumoniae

A

large, pink, mucoid, stringy colonies on MAC

45
Q

what screening test is used in the lab to differentiate E.coli 0157:H from normal strains of E.coli

A

mac with sorbital; latex agg serotyping

46
Q

what test can be used to differentiate the two species of proteus?

A

indole
P. vulgaris +
P. mirabilis =

47
Q

which species might e considered as contaminants if they were isolated from a blood culture

A

coag neg staph
corynebacterium
bacillus spp.

48
Q

if two organism are to be used as quality control for a particular test or procedure, should their reactions be the same or different

A

they have to be different one demonstrating a pos and one demonstrating a neg

49
Q

what are the designations for the cell wall, flagellar, and capsular antigens in bacteria? which antiges can mask the cell wall antigen in serological typing?

A

cell wall = O
falgella= H
** capsule = K or Vi

50
Q

the safety hood should be used for which procedures in the micro lab

A

respiratory, AFB, funal, stool cultures

51
Q

what characteristics of a specimen might cause you to suspect an anaerobce and on what type of lab media should such a culture be inoculated

A

strong odor and from a deep wound, or abscess

BAP MAC CHOC PEA ANA ANA W/KV ET broth

52
Q

what is the gram stain morphology of bacteroides and fusobacterium

A

bacteroides: GNR with rounded ends; pleomorphic
fusobacterium: GNR with pointed ends

53
Q

what types of specimens are suitable for anaerobic culture?

which are unsuitable?

A

suitable: deep wounds, abscesses, tissue, blood, trans-tracheal aspirate, sterile body fluids, supra pubic aspirate,
unsuitable: stools, urines, vaginals, etc

54
Q

what is the gram stain morphology of Neisseria meningitids and what sugars are utilized by this organism

A

gram negative coffee bean shaped diplococci, glucose and maltose

55
Q

what stains are used for staining members of the genus mycobacterium

A

ziehl-neelsen

56
Q

what is the N-acetyl-L-cysteine the most common agent used for sputum concentrations for AFB cultures?

A

because it is a mucolytic agent that breaks up the specimen and enhances the recovery of mycobacteria, destroys NF,

57
Q

what is the colonial morphology of mycobacterium tuberculosis on lowenstein-jensen medium

A

rough tough apperance, buff colored, fuzzy,

58
Q

what can be used as a clearing agent to remove protein mateiral from a mycology specimen

A

KOH

59
Q

what is the procedure of choice for the demonstration of cryptococcus in CSF?

A

india ink

60
Q

what is the best single media for the primary isolation of fungus?

A

sabourauds

61
Q

what are the growth characteristics and other identifying characteristics of candida albicans?

A

germ tube pos
budding yeast with pseudohyphae
creamy white colonies

62
Q

what stage in the development of a parasite is best demonstrated by permanent stained smear?

A

troph

63
Q

which method of concentrating stool specimens is best for which parasites?

A

flotation- nematode, cestode, eggs, and coccidia occysts sedimentation- trematode eggs operculated ont show on flotation they will sink

64
Q

how can you differentiate the various species of plasmodium

A

P. falciparum- schiznot has 8-36 merozoites

maleariae has a band and merozoites in the shape of a flower`

65
Q

biochemical reactions of staph epi

A

catalase pos and coag neg

66
Q

which genera are oxidase positive

A

pseudomonas
neisseria
campylobacter

67
Q

rapid methods of ID for the enterobacteriaceae

A

API
enterotube
micro-ID less than 4 hours
minitek

68
Q

which growth factors are required by the various species of haemophilus

A

X and V

69
Q

which fungi are dimorphic

A 
coccidiodes imits
blastomyces dermatididis
histoplasma capsulatum
paracoccidiodes braziliensis
sporothrix shenckii
70
Q

haemophilus aegypticus

A

pinky eye

71
Q

bordetella pertusis

A

whooping cough

72
Q

brucella abortus

A

brucellosis/ malto fever/ undulant fever

73
Q

haemophilus influenzae

A

meninigitis

74
Q

haemophilus ducrey

A

chancroid

75
Q

bacillus anthracis

A

anthrax (woolsorters disease_

76
Q

clostridium perfringes

A

gangrene

77
Q

clostridium tetanus

A

lock jaw

78
Q

listeria monocytogenes

A

stillbirths

79
Q

clostridium difficile

A

pseudomembranous diptheria

80
Q

borrelia recurrentis

A

relapsing fever

81
Q

leptospira

A

hemorrhagic jaundice

82
Q

treponema pallidum

A

syphilis

83
Q

enteric fever

A

salmonella typhi

84
Q

treponema carateum

A

pinta

85
Q

treponema pertenue

A

yaws

86
Q

corynbecaterium diptheria

A

klebs-lobeffler bacillus

87
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae

A

friedlanders bacillus

88
Q

haemopnilus aegypticus

A

kock-weeks bacillus

89
Q

strep pneumoniae

A

lobar pneumonia

sepsis

90
Q

strep pyogenes (group A)

A

RHEUMATIC FEVER, SCARLET FEVER

91
Q

group D enterococci

A

uti and wound infections

92
Q

s. aureus

A

food poisioning

osteo myelitis

93
Q

strep. agalactiae (group B)

A

neonatal meninigitis and sepsis

Microbiology (6 decks)

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