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Microbiology > final exam guide > Flashcards

final exam guide Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Bacterial capsules are associated with what property?

A

primary virulence factor

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2
Q

what phase of the bacterial growth curve is best for biochemical testing?

A

exponential growth phase

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3
Q

what type of environment (aerobic, anaerobic, or microaerophilic) is provided by the candle jar?

A

microaerophilic

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4
Q

what is the purpose of the Albert’s stain?

A

used to stain metachromatic granules of corynebacterium diptheriae

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5
Q

give an example of a differential, enriched, and selective media

A 
enriched = blood agar
differential = McConkey
selective = MacConkey OR thayer martin
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6
Q

what are the standard conditions for the autoclave?

A

15 lbs/square inch
121 degrees
for 15 minutes

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7
Q

what is the most abundant organism found in the human intestinal tract?

A

bacteroides

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8
Q

what is the most important single test that differentiates staphylococcus aureus from non-pathogenic staphylococci ?

A

coagulase

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9
Q

alpha streptococcus viridians are the most important cause of what serious illness?

A

SBE

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10
Q

what is the only significant pathogen in the throat?

A

group a beta strep

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11
Q

Enterococcus ( which is BEA + and 6.5% NaCl+) belongs to which lancefield group?

A

D

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12
Q

foul smelling pus from an abcess which yields gram positive cocci in chains on gram stain would be indicative of what organism?

A

anaerobic strep

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13
Q

how do you identify Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?

A

dextrose and oxidase +

gram =

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14
Q

how do you identify Neisseria Meningitidis ?

A 
gram =
oxidase +
dextrose and maltose +
grows on thayer martin
can be normal in throat
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15
Q

what three antibiotics are added to Thayer-Martin to make it a selective medium for pathogenic Neisseria?

A

Vancomysin
colistin
nystatin

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16
Q

what are the general characteristics of the family Enterobacteriaceae?

A

glucose fermenters
oxidase =
peritrichous flagella

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17
Q

what is the appearance of a positive test for citrate?

A

blue color on slant and/or growth

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18
Q

what is the appearance of a positive test for indole?

A

red color

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19
Q

what is the appearance of a positive test for H2S?

A

black

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20
Q

what is the appearance of a positive test for phenylalanine

A

dark green color

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21
Q

what is the appearance of a positive test for VP?

A

pink-red color

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22
Q

what is the reagent used for the indole test?

A

kova’s reagent

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23
Q

what are the reagents used for the nitrate test?

A

sulfanilic acid and alpha-naphthylamine

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24
Q

what are the reagents used for the phenylalanine test?

A

10% ferric chloride

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25
Q

what are the reagents used for the VP test?

A

alpha-naphthol

potassium hydroxide

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26
Q

what is the best means to differentiate the genus enterobacter from the genus klebsiella?

A

motility

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27
Q

which genera are urea positive?

A

proteus

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28
Q

LDC differentiates what organism from non-pathogenic H2S producers, such as citrobacter and proteus?

A

salmonella

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29
Q

what is the causative agent of hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome due to its production of Verotoxin ( also known as shigella-like toxin)?

A

e. coli 0157

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30
Q

what are the characteristics of serratia marcesens ?

A 
chromogenic 
antibiotic resistant
associated with UTI 
hospital acquired infections
people with wounds who are outside a lot
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31
Q

what test differentiates proteus mirabilis from proteus vulgaris? (both of which who can swarm on SBA or chocolate agar)

A

indole
M is =
V is +

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32
Q

which genera are phenylalanine positive?

A

proteus
providencia
morganella

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33
Q

which organisms causes an infection of the mesentery suggestive of actue appendicitis?

A

yersinea

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34
Q

K/A with gas and H2S in TSI is suggestive of what intestinal pathogen?

A

salmonella

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35
Q

what non-pathogenic organism is biochemically so similar to shigella that isolates that are biochemically identified as shigella must be typed?

A

alkalecense dispar

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36
Q

what is the difference between a food poisoning and a food infection?

A

food poisoning - staph aureus , preformed toxins, early on set of symptoms
food infection- salmonella , viable organisms, later onset of symptoms

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37
Q

what organism could be described as an oxidase positive glucose-fermenting rod commonly found in water and soil?

A

aeromonac hydrophilus

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38
Q

a gram negative coccobacillus isolated from a cat bike is most likely to be

A

pasturella multocida

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39
Q

a salt-loving organism responsible for gastroenteritis due to contaminated sea food is most likely to be ?

A

vibrio

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40
Q

what media is used to differentiate between oxidation and fermentation?

A

hugh-leifson

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41
Q

a gram negative coccobacillus isolated from a patient with endocarditis that is oxidase + catalase = indole + non-motile and weakly fermentative would most likely be?

A

cardio bacterium

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42
Q

what are the three most commonly isolated non-fermentative bacteria?

A

pseudomonas aerogenosa, acetobacter, stinotrophomonas

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43
Q

a non-fermentor with a blue-green pigment and a grape-like odor is?

A

pseudomonas aerogonosa

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44
Q

a non-fermenter that is a strong maltose oxidizer and a weak glucose oxidizer is?

A

stinotrophomonas montophilia

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45
Q

the causative agent of glanders is?

A

burholderia (pseudomonas mallie)

46
Q

a gram negative, oxidase negative coccobacillus

A

bordetella pertussis

47
Q

what genus of bacteria can be confused with neisseria beceause they are oxidase + and sometimes grow on Thayer-Martin and can be differentiated by gram stain since those organisms are gram negative rods rather than cocci?

A

morexella

48
Q

a yellow pigemented, oxidase + gram negative rod which can cause meningitis (especially in infants) is?

A

flavobacterium meningosepticum

49
Q

when is it the best time to try to isolate brucella from the bloodstream?

A

first three weeks

50
Q

Listeria and corynebacterium are best differentiated by what test?

A

motility

51
Q

what organism is described as a gram + aerobic partially acid-fast rod which usually appears on gram stain as a delicate branching rod?

A

nocardia

52
Q

why are routine sterile swabs (culturettes) NOT acceptable for anaerobic cultures?

A

not anaerobic

53
Q

the causative agent of pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) associated with over-treatment with antibiotics is?

A

clostridium difficile

54
Q

what anaerobic organism usually produces a black colony on laked blood agar?

A

prevetella melininegenica

55
Q

gram negative, pleomorphic rods which are non-spore forming and are strict anaerobes could be ___________?they are normal inhabitants of the mouth so can be isolated from infections of the nasopharynx, the sinuses, etc.

A

fusobacterium

56
Q

a gram positive branching rod isolated from “sulfur granules” obtained from a patient’s jaw is?

A

actinomiyces

57
Q

lactobacillus is most frequently isolated from vaginal swabs or?

A

adult female urines

58
Q

what anaerobic organism is a normal inhabitant of the skin most frequently isolated from 5-7 day old blood cultures where it is a contaminant?

A

propioni bacterium acnes

59
Q

acid-fast bacillus are usually catalase?

A

+

60
Q

what substance is the most commonly used agent for concentrating sputums in AFB culture becuase it decontaminates the sputum (removes normal flora organisms) is a mucolytic ( mucuous destroying) agent, and it does not damage the AFB?

A

N-acetyl-L-cystine

61
Q

an acid fast bacillus (AFB) producing a buff colored, dry heaped up colony that is niacin and nitrate positive is most likely to be ?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

62
Q

which species of organism causes a form of rat bite fever known as Haverhill fever and characteristically produces L-forms?

A

streptobacillus moniliformis

63
Q

in a sputum culture which reveals large numbers of WBC’s on gram stain but no organisms, one would suspect what organism?

A

legionella pneumophilia

64
Q

what respiratory pathogen is associated with primary atypical pneumonia (Eaton’s agent pneumonia) increased cold agglutination titre, and streptococcus MG?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

65
Q

the results of kirby-bauer susceptibility tests are reported as

A

sensitive, intermediate , or resistant

66
Q

the __________ is defined as the smallest concentration of a drug that completely inhibits growth

A

MIC

67
Q

for which diseases are blood cultures are the best means of identification?

A

sepsis, SBE, typhoid fever

68
Q

_______ is often added to blood culture media because it acts as an anticoagulant inactivates teh aminoglycosides and will neutralize the bactericidal effects of human serum

A

sudium polyanithol sulfonate

69
Q

which serological typing of Hemophilus influenza is the most pathogenic?

A

type B

70
Q

what organism is enhanced by cold temperatures?

A

Listeria

71
Q

the toxicity test for crynebacterium diptheriae is called the

A

elek test

72
Q

what is the test used to identify the alpha toxin of clostridium?

A

nagler

73
Q

what agar is used in kirby bauer sensitivity test?

A

mueller hinton

74
Q

what is a castaneda bottle?

A

blood culture bottler with slant off media, broth

isolates brucella

75
Q

the bacterial infection which is characterized by donovan bodies is caused by what organism ?

A

klebsiella granulomatis

76
Q

sulfa drugs

A

broad spectrum
compete with folic acid
aplastic anemia, granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia
toxic to kidneys

77
Q

penicillin

A

gram + organisms
interferes with cell wall synthesis
may produce allergies

78
Q

nonphotochromgens

A

unpigmented (except light yellow color which is not intensified by light)

79
Q

photochromgens

A

unpigmented in the dark, but pigmented in the light

80
Q

rapid growers

A

colonies appear in 3-5 days

81
Q

scotochromogens

A

pigmented even in the dark

82
Q

mycobacterium kansaii

A

group 1
nontuberculous mycobacterial pulmonary
photochromogen

83
Q

mycobacterium marinum

A

group 1
photochromogen
“swimming pool granuloma” a cutaneous infection when traumatized skin comes in contact inadequately chlorinated fresh/salt water

84
Q

M. szulgai

A

group II
scotochromogens
pulmonary disease similar to TB

85
Q

M. Tuberculosis

A

group III

causative agent of tuberculosis

86
Q

a slightly curved gram negative rod
oxidase +
sensitive to naladixic acid

A

campylobacter fetus s.s. jejni

87
Q

gram + CAMP +

A

Group B

88
Q

gram + lancet “p”disc

optochin sensitive

A

strep pneumoniae

89
Q

gram = rod
oxidase +
blue-green pigment
42 degree tube

A

pseudomonas aereogenosa

90
Q

gram + pleomorphic rods

hematin NAD “XV”

A

hemophilus influenza

91
Q

what agar does bordatella use?

A

potato-blood-glycerol

92
Q

what agar does C. diptheriae use?

A

potassium tellurite

93
Q

what agar does francisella use?

A

cystine-blood-glucose

94
Q

what agar does vibrio use?

A

thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt- sucrose TCBS

95
Q

what diseases dos bordetella pertusis cause?

A

whooping cough

96
Q

what disease does brucella cause?

A

undlent fever

97
Q

what diseases does hemophilus influenza cause?

A

meningitis

98
Q

what disease does hemophilius bucrydi cause?

A

chancroid

99
Q

what disease does chlostridium cause?

A

tetanus (tetani/ lock jaw)

100
Q

what disease does chlostridium perfringence cause?

A

gang green

101
Q

what disease does corynebacterium cause?

A

diptheria

102
Q

what disease does listeria cause?

A

still births

103
Q

what disease does leptospira cause

A

hemorrhagic jaundice

104
Q

what disease does treponema cardium cause?

A

penta

105
Q

what disease does Treponema palladium cause?

A

syphilis

106
Q

what disease does Treponema partenoe cause?

A

yaws

107
Q

what organism is this nickname used for: friedlanders bacillus

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

108
Q

what ogniams is this nickname used for: kochweeks bacillus

A

hemophilus aegypticus

109
Q

what is the nickname for this organism: hemophilus influenzae

A

pheiffer bacillus

110
Q

what is the nickname for this organism: mycobacteria leprea

A

(leprosy)

hansons bacillus

Microbiology (6 decks)

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