Rosh Review highlights Flashcards
(171 cards)
1
Q
Nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus can be caused by the medication?
A
Lithium
2
Q
Myxedema is a life threatening condition of _______
with a classic presentation of these 3 s/sx?
A
Hypothyroidism
Hypotension, hypothermia, and bradycardia
3
Q
Medication most appropriate to treat Myofascial pain syndrome
A
Cyclobenzaprine
4
Q
Medication most appropriate indicated for fibromyalgia
A
Pregabalin
5
Q
Tinea corporis is also known as ?
A
Ring worm
6
Q
Opiate withdrawal symptoms may be achieved with what medication?
A
Clonidine and antiemetics
7
Q
What class drug is the most frequent cause of poisoning leading to a variety of anticholinergic symptoms?
A
TCA (Amitriptyline)
8
Q
Cholinergic Toxicity acronym for symptoms
A
SLUDGE
Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI cramps, emesis
9
Q
Urge incontinence is classified as urinary urgency with inability to delay urination.
If behavioral approaches are not helpful, what is the next anticholinergic therapy ?
A
Oxybutinin or Tolterodine
10
Q
A patient with salicylate toxicity from aspirin will present with what symptoms? what is the treatment?
A
Fever, tachypnea, diaphoresis, tinnitus and vertigo.
Tx- Sodium Bicarb (traps S-Acid in urine)
11
Q
Meniere’s disease tetrad of symptoms?
A
Vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.
12
Q
What is the treatment for peritonsillar abscess?
A
ABX (Augmentin + Septra) and Needle Aspiration or I and D
13
Q
which antibiotic is most appropriate fir otitis media on a child that has a history of rash with amoxicillin?
A
Cefdinir
14
Q
Most common type of prostate cancer?
A
Adenocarcinoma
15
Q
Oral Leukoplakia is associated with_____
Oral Hairy Leukoplakia is associated with_____
A
Oral Leukoplakia- 50%–> dysplasia of malignancy 2t Tobacco.
Oral Hairy Leukoplakia (tongue)- EBV or HIV
16
Q
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa is susceptible to what cephalosporin?
A
Cefepime
17
Q
Maintenance treatment of COPD patient group C (FEV<45%)?
A
Tiotropium (Lon acting anticholinergic)
18
Q
Most common cardiac rhythm abnormality in Anorexia Nervosa?
A
Bradycardia
19
Q
A patient US shows an empty gestational sac, and no fetal pole. HcG is at 1,000. What is the next treatment?
A
Repeat HcG after 48-72 hours
HcG < 1500 without IUP require conservative management.
20
Q
Diabetic agent with increased risk of MI?
A
Thiozilidinediones (Rosiglitazone)
“Increases insulin sensitivity in fat and muscles”
21
Q
medication that is indicated in patients with an acute coronary syndrome or hx of MI for anticoagulation therpay?
A
Ticagrelor (Not for Stroke)
22
Q
medication considered in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation at low risk for stroke?
A
Aspirin
23
Q
Common oral anticoagulant that specifically inhibits factor Xa, resulting in predictable anticoagulation
therefore requires no routine monitoring?
A
Apixaban
24
Q
Cluster B patients are distinguished by what characteristics?
A
Dramatic, emotional, self destructive, and erratic
25
Cluster A patients are distinguished by what characteristics?
odd and eccentric
26
Cluster C patients are distinguished by what characteristics?
anxious and fearful
27
Nephrotic syndrome associated with Hodgkin's and NHL?
Minimal change Nephrotic Syndrome
28
MC is associated with Good Pasture syndrome?
Rapid Progressive Glomerulonephritis
29
which medication is used in the long-term treatment of schistosomes infection?
Praziquantel
30
Which virus is Roseola Infantum associated with?
HHSV 6
31
Roseola Infantum is characterized by ?
High fever lasting 3-4 days that effervesces with the appearance of a rash.
32
Diabetes medication that cause hypoglycemia, pancreatitis, and is contraindicated in gastroparesis?
Glucagon Like Peptide 1 (GLP-1)
33
classic signs of malignant hyperthermia include muscle rigidity 2T increased Ca2+ accumulation (Succinylcholine) what is the treatment?
Dantrolene
34
A poorly HTN controlled patient with a throbbing headache and vision changes should not be treated with?
Triptan or Ergotamine (Adrenergic agonists)
includes ACS, PAD, cerebrovascular, or angina
35
Most common malignancy in men age 15-35?
Testicular cancer
36
MC pathogen in cat or dog bite?
Pasteurella Multocida
37
Pathogen responsible for cat scratch fever?
Bartonella Henselae
38
Other than aspirin, what medication should be avoided in children recovering from flu or chicken pox?
Bismuth subsalicylate
39
a rash that includes oral mucosa, lips, conjunctivae and genitals. Cause by ______ and ________
Sulfonamides, allopurinol and Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Steven-Johnson syndrome
40
Abruptio Placentae risk factors include?
HTN, trauma, and cocaine use
| painful vaginal bleeding
41
Gold standard testing for herpes virus?
Viral culture and PCR
42
A patient with chronic ethanol usage should be admitted if presents the following what 3 symptoms?
Fever, tachycardia, and hyperextension.
43
carcinoid tumors triad?
diarrhea, rash, and flushing
44
MC use post partum depression medication with fewest side effects? (undetectable in infant serum)
Sertraline
45
Lead poisoning >____ requires chelation. Lead poison oral and IV treatment include ?
Chelation= >45
Succimer PO (IV EDTA)
46
Dupuytren contracture is associated with what disease?
Diabetes Mellitus
47
Treatment for acetaminophen toxicity
N-Acetylcysteine
48
hypertension treatment for cocaine toxicity
Benzodiazepines and Phentolamine
49
Alpha Thalassemia is more common in what race?
SE Asian descent
50
Thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, rash, and arthralgias/myalgias think?
Rocky mountain Spotted fever
51
Antibiotics preferred to treat Bordetella Pertussis?
Macrolides
52
St John's Wort is notoriously known for decreasing effects of ______ medication, causing_____?
Warfarin' Ischemic Strokes
53
Rabies exposure requires Immunoglobulin treatment and ___ doses of inactivated rabies vaccine over ___
4 doses of vaccine over 14 days
54
Antidote for methanol?
Fomepizole
55
Oil of wintergreen contains what?
5G of salicylates
56
Antibiotics for AOM can be deferred if child is?
>/= 2 yoa or has mild-moderate symptoms
57
Gottron's papules (knuckle violaceous papules, proximal muscle weakness, periorbital heliotrope rash
Think what disorder?
Polymyositis Dermatomyositis
58
MC pathogen of AOM in children?
H. Influenza
59
Staccato cough, afebrile, and hyperinflated or expanded lungs in a neonate 19 weeks or less think?
Chlamydial pneumoniae
60
Physical complaints from various organ systems that cause impairment.
Symptoms change, disorder is persistent.
Somatic Symptom Disorder
61
Purposely feigning illness using deception to attain goals.
Factitious Disorder
62
hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperpigmentation, abdominal pain w NV think what disorder?
Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison's)
63
DTaP is given_____ age_____
TDaP is given______ age____
Both vaccines are acellular.
Before the age of 7
After the age of 7 (D comes before T)
64
2T sun exposure pearly papule lesion with rolled borders and telangiectasias?
MC type of skin cancer and Dx with shave biopsy
Basal Cell Carcinoma
65
Lesion is also 2T sun exposure presents as a non-healing indurated and ulcerated papule
"Central erosion or ulceration"
Squamous cell Carcinoma
66
Hyperextendable joints, long protruding ears, long face, prominent jaw, micro penis and large testicles
Fragile X syndrome
67
Why is peptic ulcer disease a RF for Nephrolithiasis ?
Increased use of acid antacids
68
Anterior uveitis, IBD, restrictive pulmonary disease, and back pain you think what?
Ankylosing spondylitis (HLA-B27)
69
Benign murmur low and short tone that reduces in intensity with inspiration, sitting or standing?
Still's Murmur (Venous Hum increases with maneuvers)
70
- Anemia - Fever -Thrombocytopenia -Renal failure
| - Neurologic findings
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
71
How many weeks in between should there be for live vaccines?
4 weeks
72
Hyperpigmentation, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia think what disorder?
Primary Adrenal insufficiency (Addison's Disease)
73
When testing for acromegaly, what blood test should you order?
Insulin Like Growth Hormone (IGH-1) "Not HG"
74
Treatment for Histoplasmosis?
Itraconazole (Amphotericin B)
75
succinylcholine is contraindicated in spinal cord injuries within 3-6months why?
Sux causes hyperkalemia as Spinal cord injuries--> denervation syndromes (same with MS and ALS)
76
Diaphoresis, lacrimation, and piloerection are symptoms of withdrawal to what substance?
Opioids
77
How many café Au let spots are required for Neurofibromatosis 1
6
78
Delayed tendon reflex relaxation is associated with what disorder?
Hypothyroidism
79
True or false Carpal Tunnel is a common complication of what disorder ?
Hypothyroidism
80
TIA risk anticoagulant recommendations?
Low or moderate risk TIA = Aspirin alone
High Risk TIA= Aspirin plus clopidogrel
81
Abnormal facies, cleft palate, hypercalcemia, and seizures (Jitteriness) think of what newborn genetic disorder?
DiGeorge Syndrome (Chromosome 22 deletion)
82
What is the treatment for Dry socket?
Iodoform gauze saturated with Eugenol (Oil of cloves).
83
What is the MC incontinence in elderly?
Urge (Detrusor overactivity Tx= anticholinergics)
84
MC manifestation of abusive head trauma in infants?
Retinal hemorrhage
85
WBC counts >100K, Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphate, and Philadelphia chromosome thin what D/O?
Chronic myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
86
Pancytopenia, gingival hyperplasia, WBC > 100K, and Auer rods?
Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)
87
MC childhood malignancy (Esp. Down syndrome), CNS Sx (fever MC), hepatosplenomegaly, LAD think ?
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)
88
MC leukemia in adults, B Cell Clonal Malignancy, "Smudge Cell" think ?
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
89
What differentiates foot and mouth disease versus Herpangina ?
Herpangina- Lesions @ palate, uvula, tonsils
F and M disease- lesions@ tongue, anterior oral cavity, and hands and feet.
90
Bulimia Nervosa SSRI of choice for treatment?
Fluoxetine
91
Girl with normal development of breasts but no menstruation or has no axillary or pubic hair think ?
Complete Androgen insensitivity syndrome?
92
Which IV sedative --> metabolic acidosis with high doses and prolonged use?
Propofol
93
What is the alternate treatment for Pasteurella Multocida for PNC allergy ?
Cefuroxime and Clindamycin
94
When you see Wickham's Striae yo think what D/O?
Lichen Planus (Pruritic, Polygonal, purple, papule)
95
Treatment of OCD in children or adolescents?
Sertraline or Fluoxetine
96
Contraindication of Methotrexate in ectopic pregnancy?
Renal Insufficiency
97
Tick borne illness with skin ulcers and LAD
Tularemia (Streptomycin)
98
Which of the following causes secondary osteoporosis in women?
Corticosteroid use
99
what is the step process in treatment of pheochromocytoma?
Alpha Blockade prior to Beta blockade
| Phentolamine followed by Labetalol
100
Cholesterol medication that can exacerbate Gout
Niacin
101
Decreased PTH, hypocalcemia, and hyperphosphatemia you think?
Hypoparathyroidism 2T Parathyroid removal/ radiation
102
N acetylcysteine is administered within_____ of Tylenol ingestion for reduced risk of hepatotoxicity.
8 hours (If over 8 hours--> loading dose of 140 mg kg needed)
103
which serum biomarker would be elevated in a patient with epithelial ovarian carcinoma?
Cancer Antigen 125
104
Neonatal bacterial conjunctivitis prevention and treatment?
Gonorrhea= Topical Erythromycin
Chlamydia= Oral Erythromycin
105
Etomidate a non barbiturate used in rapid sequence intubation is known for what common side effect?
Myoclonic Jerks
106
Hyperkalemia can cause
Wide QRS, Prolonged PRI, Peaked T waves
107
Hyper magnesia can cause
hyporeflexia, prolonged PR and QT interval, and wide QRS
108
Chvostek sign can be seen in what biochemical lab abnormality ?
Calcium (Hypocalcemia)
109
Chlordiazepoxide is what kind of medication and when is it used?
Benzodiazepine often used as anti-seizure medication
110
Can phenytoin be used for anti-seizure medication?
No, it does not treat alcohol withdrawal syndrome seizures.
111
Most common medications for ADHD
Methylphenidate and Atomoxetine (Non-stimulant)
112
xanthomas on the extensors and abdominal pain that radiates to back think hyper_____ --> __________
Hyper triglyceride levels: --> Pancreatitis
113
Retinopathy is caused by DM or HTN, what is MC to be seen under fundoscopic exam if Retinopathy is present?
Micro aneurysms or hypervascularization
114
1st Metatarsal fractures with _____ or more displacement require?
1mm or more: Immediate Ortho referral
115
Biggest difference between erysipelas and Cellulitis?
Cellulitis has poorly demarcated borders.
Erysipelas has clear demarcated borders and lymphatic streaking is present (Lymphatic involvement).
116
Pyelonephritis in a pregnant patient (in/out patient)?
1st- Cipro or Septra inpatient (outpatient= cipro)
2nd- Ampicillin/Gentamycin or 3rd Generation cephalosporin
117
In an AIDS patient pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine medication is the treatment of choice for what?
Toxoplasma Gondii
118
Pathognomonic finding for Cerebral toxoplasmosis Gondii?
Multiple ring enhancing lesions on CT
119
Which is the most concerning in malignant melanoma ABCDEs?
Border irregularity of lesion
120
Major cause of perinatal infections to include sepsis and meningitis?
Group B Strep (Strep Agalactiae).
121
NSAID contraindicated in Gastric Bypass patients due to black box warning?
Meloxicam
122
Most appropriate initial pharmacologic agent to treat prostate cancer?
Leuprolide
123
Drugs that are used for iron chelation in overdose cases?
Deferoxamine- Parenteral only
Deferasirox- Preferred 2T ease of use (PO)
124
Study of choice to diagnose epiglottitis ?
Indirect Laryngoscopy (Nasopharyngeal scope)
125
Clozapine 2nd Generation anti-psychotic requires monitoring of _______ due to causing ______.
WBC/ Absolute Neutrophil count: Severe nuetropenia
126
A 5 year old patient presents wit positive Rapid strep but has anaphylaxis with PCNs what is the TOC?
"Cefdinir is a great alternate for non-immediate hypersensitivity but not for anaphylaxis"
Clindamycin
127
Which can be a potential benign cause of hiccups ?
Hyponatremia
128
Treatment of leiomyoma for patients that wish to retain fertility?
Myomectomy
129
Frequent ear infections and persistent ear drainage despite appropriate antibiotic use think?
Cholesteatoma
130
MCC of cholesteatoma?
Prolonged Eustachian Tube Dysfunction
131
Symptoms of Lidocaine overdose include?
Metallic taste, tremor, and bradycardia
132
Uncomplicated treatment of UTI for pregnant patient?
Amoxicillin - cephalexin- Nitrofurantoin
133
Complicated/Pylonephritis treatment of UTI for pregnant patient?
3rd Generation cephalosporin or Amp/Gentamycin
134
Treatment of Malaria Falciparum?
Chloroquine
| Complicated Quinidine + Doxycycline
135
Anemia of chronic disease treatment in CKD due to decreased erythropoietin?
Darbepoetin
136
Medications that cause gingival hyperplasia?
CCBs, cyclosporin, and phenytoin
137
Difference between Bacterial tracheitis and Croup?
Bacterial tracheitis are toxic appearing, respiratory failure, and mucopurulent secretion
(+) pseudo membrane @ epiglottis
138
Multiple central joint pain that improves with exercise in a young <30 yo adult think of what disorder?
Ankylosing Spondylitis (Rheumatoid A. = peripheral joints)
139
Thrombosis, splenomegaly and proliferation of all 3 myeloid cell lines thin what?
Polycythemia Vera
140
Serum Ferritin levels of < ___ mcg/L is diagnostic.
15 mcg/L
141
Hypokalemia is also associated with what other electrolyte disorder?
Hypomagnesemia
142
Shistocytes on blood smear you think what disorder?
Thombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
143
Child that has thrombocytopenia post viral illness think?
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
144
Myxedema Coma is associated with?
Severe Hypothyroidism (Hyponatremia MC)
145
What thyroid drug blocks release of stored thyroid hormone?
Iodine
146
Methimazole and PTU MOA?
Block Thyroid hormone synthesis
147
In differentiating BB or CCB overdose what differences do you see?
BBs --> AMS and hypoglycemia
CCBs --> Hyperglycemia
148
Fetal Heart Rate Mnemonic
Variable- Cord Compression
Early- Head compression
Accelerations- OK
Late- Placental insufficiency (VEAL CHOP)
149
Antiarrhythmic that leads to Torsades de pointes
Procainamide
150
Prolonged bleeding time with normal INR, PT, and PTT?
Von Willebrand disease
151
Multiple spontaneous abortions think what?
Antiphospholipid Ab Syndrome
152
MC Pneumonia treatment for children < 5?
High dose amoxicillin
153
Where should the umbilical crod be cut after delivery?
3 cm from the Umbilicus
154
Treatment of vertigo with stress reduction, low salt diet, no tobacco or alcohol and physiotherapy mainly ____
Vestibular rehabilitation (Meniere's)
155
MC cardiac rhythm abnormality in Anorexia Nervosa
Bradycardia
156
A cherry red spot on fundoscopic exam what test is appropriate?
ECG
157
MC location for oral cancer
Tongue
158
Visual evoked potential testing is the study of choice for what disorder?
Optic neuritis
159
drug that induces Pseudotumor cebri?
Doxycycline (Tetracyclines)
160
Aortic enteric fistula is most common at?
Duodenum
161
Akathisia is defined as ?
Restlessness
162
Droplet precautions are for ?
Influenza and other mild virus.
163
Airborne precautions are for
TB, Measles, varicella,
164
Parkinsonian features with dementia think/
Lewy Bodies dementi
165
Flu vaccine may begin at what age?
2 months
166
Abdominal complication common with Nenoch-Schonlein Purpura?
Intussusception
167
Highest greatest effect against high triglycerides
Fibrate Gemfibrozil (Niacin if fibrate CI)
168
Bacterial Peritonitis treatment abx of choice?
3rd Generation Cephalosporin
169
Suggestion of congestive Heart failure?
3rd HS S3 Gallop
170
MCC of infectious lymphadenitis?
Staph Aureus
Henselae (Cervical or Axillae Lymphadenitis)
171
When in doubt, which is the best Anticoagulant ?
Dabigatran
