Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EOR: Family Med > Rosh Material #5 > Flashcards

Rosh Material #5 Flashcards

1
Q

type of eczema that mc occurs on arms and legs

A

nummular eczema (discoid eczema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

nummular eczema rash is described as __ shaped, pruritic scaly lesions

A

coin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tx for nummular (discoid) eczema

A

moisturizer
moderate to high dose topical steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

erythematous plaque surrounded by thick adherent scales

A

psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is this showing

A

non bullous impetigo
oozing and crusting rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is this showing

A

nummular eczema

round, oozing, crusting erosions
dry macules w. a fine scaly pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is this showing

A

pityriasis rosea

small oval, thick scaling plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is this showing

A

tinea corporis

thin scaly lesions w. central clearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

mc cause of waterborne and foodborne diarrhea

A

girardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

first line pharm for giraridia

A

less than 12 months old: metronidazole
1-3 yo: nitazoxanide
3 yo and older: tinidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 places girardia is commonly contracted

A

camping/backpacking
daycare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what food should be temporarily avoided after giardiasis due to temporary intolerance

A

lactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

is the diarrhea associated w. girardia bloody

A

nope!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3 PE findings of IDA

A

koilonychia
atrophic glossitis
angular cheillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do howell-jolly bodies make you think of

A

SSA
asplenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do schistocyes make you think of

A

hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how elevated are pancreatic enzymes in acute pancreatitis

A

more than 3x UNL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

diminished S1 heart sound followed by holosystolic or mid to late systolic murmur heard best over the apex

A

mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

aortic stenosis triad

A

exertional angina
dyspnea
presyncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

murmur heard best in left lateral decubitus position

A

mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

acute mitral regurgitation murmur is heard best at the __
and radiates to the __ rather than the axilla

A

apex
base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

chronic mitral regurgitation murmur is heard best at the __
and radiates to the __

A

apex
axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

acute mitral regurgitation murmur is described as __
chronic mitral regurgitation murmur is described as __

A

acute: midsystolic
chronic: blowing holosystolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

4 tx for acute mitral regurgitation

A

nitroprusside
dobutamine
intra-aortic balloon pump
emergency surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
inflammation of meibomian gland
chalazion
26
which leukemia is mc associated w. previous hx of hematologic disorder, including myelodysplastic syndrome, aplastic anemia, polycythemia vera
AML
27
rf for asthma
males in childhood females in adulthood atopy allergen exposure urban dwellers pollution respiratory infxns smoking obesity occupation
28
strongest predisoposing rf for asthma
atopy
29
3 components of asthma pathology
obstruction to airflow bronchial hyper-reactivity airway inflammation
30
FEV1 of asthma stages
intermittent: > 80% mild persistent: 80% or higher moderate: 60-80% severe persistent: < 60%
31
initial test for cholecystitis: gs test for cholecystitis:
initial: US gs: HIDA
32
diagnostic criteria for DM need to be repeated for confirmation unless
2 or more criteria are met
33
screening recs for T2DM
annually in pt > 35 yo or in pt < 35 yo w. rf
34
what is this showing
seborrheic keratosis
35
velvety, waxy lesions with "stuck on appearance"
seborrheic keratosis
36
tx for seborrheic keratosis
reassurance
37
rf for seborrheic keratosis
advanced age "barnacles of aging"
38
leser-trelat sign
rapid appearance of multiple SK lesions associated w. GI malignancy
39
at what age do kids usually start to cooperate w. PFTs
5
40
rf for emphysema
smoking alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency environmental exposures
41
3 PE findings of emphysema
pursed lip breathing barrel chest hyperresonance to percussion
42
2 PFT findings of emphysema
decreased FEV1:FVC increased TLC
43
emphysema in young, non smoker
alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
44
immunizations to avoid in severely immunocompromised pt
rotavirus MMR varicella zoster
45
3 vaccinations contraindicated in pregnancy
MMR varicella zoster
46
ASA and salicylate containing meds can cause what syndrome in peds
reye
47
what type of contraception may worsen symptoms of menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, or endometriosis-related pain
copper IUD
48
viral conjunctivitis is mc caused by
adenovirus
49
mc cause of achilles tendinitis
increased activity
50
heel and foot pain when first stepping out of bed or after period of inactivity improves w. walking or stretching calf
plantar fasciitis
51
where is pain w. plantar fasciitis felt
over sole of foot near calcaneus
52
2 tx for plantar fasciitis
stretching heel inserts
53
mc cause of infertility
PCOS
54
rotterdam criteria for PCOS
2/3: oligo or anovulation or both clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandorgenism or both polycystic ovaries by US
55
4 PE findings of PCOS
hirsutism menstrual irregularities acanthosis nigrans obesity acne
56
5 comorbidities associated w. PCOS
glucose intolerance metabolic syndrome OSA fatty liver endometrial hyperplasia
57
labs for PCOS
high LH to FSH elevated testosterone
58
mc cause of PCOS
insulin resistance
59
tx for PCOS
OCP lifestyle metformin
60
LAD in mono is mc located
posterior cervical chain
61
mono triad
fever tonsillar pharyngitis posterior cervical chain LAD
62
mono rash
generalied maculopapular uticarial petechial
63
dx for mono
heterophile abs test
64
anterior cervical chain LAD is associated w. (3)
CMV toxoplasmosis head/neck infxns
65
mono pt's need to avoid contact sports for __ weeks
4 weeks
66
According to USPSTF: mammography screenings should start at age __ and continue q __ years until age __
50 2 75
67
According to ACS: mammorgraphy screenings are recommended annually for women aged __ mammography screenings are recommended q 2 years for women aged __ and continue until __
45-54 55 and older woman is in good health and expected to live at least 10 more years
68
chronic eczematous dz of the nipple and areola w. an underlying carcinoma of the breast
paget's dz
69
mc site of FB obstruction
C6 -> at the level of cricopharyngeus
70
most FB can have obs x __
24 hr
71
3 indications for emergent removal of FB
battery sharp object signs of obstruction
72
pH in vaginal candidiasis
normal (<4.5)
73
valve condition associated w.: jugular venous A wave and left parasternal lift
pulmonary stenosis
74
valvular disorder associated w. TOF
pulmonary stenosis
75
what murmur produces a fluttering sensation in the neck, fatigue, cold extremities
tricuspid stenosis
76
what causes dysmenorrhea
increased PGF2alpha -> uterine contractions
77
inability of eye to abduct
lateral rectus CN VI palsy
78
lateral rectus CN VI palsy is concerning for
CVA
79
tx for noninflammatory comedome acne
topial retinoid azelaic acid/salicylic acid
80
tx for mild papulopustular and mixed acne
topical benzoyl peroxide and topical abx +/- topical retinoid
81
tx for moderate papulopustular and mixed acne
topical retinoid AND oral abx AND topical benzoyl peroxide OR oral isotretinoin monotherapy
82
3 tx for acne during pregnancy
oral or topical erythromycin topical clinda topical azelaic acid
83
oral abx for acne
doxycycline/minocycline
84
what acne med is pregnancy class X and pt must be on 2 forms of birth control to take it
isotretinoin
85
ixodes scapularis
lyme disease
86
how long does a tick need to be attached to transmit lyme dz
48 hr
87
what rash is pathognmonic for lyme dz
erythema migrans
88
sx of lyme dz: stage 1: stage 2: stage 3:
stage 1: erythema migrans, flu like stage 2: myocarditis, bilateral bells palsy stage 3: chronic arthritis, chronic encephelpathy
89
factors that increase risk for adverse cardiovascular event
age > 40 male AA current smoker total cholesterol > 200 HDL < 40 SBP > 130 current tx for HTN and DM
90
what fam hx increases risk for CVD
first degree male relative w. CVD before 55 yo first degree female relative with CVD before 65 yo
91
who should be assessed for ASCVD risk
all adults 40-75 yo
92
primary prevention w. statin by age
0-19: familial hypercholesteremia 20-39: LDL 160 or higher, FH CVD 40-75: LDL 190 or higher, DM
93
indication for high intensity statin in 40-75 yo
LDL 190 or higher ASCVD risk 20% or higher
94
indication for moderate intensity statin in pt 40-75 yo
DM ASCVD risk 7.5% or higher
95
labs for Crohn's
ASCA: positive pANCA: negative
96
pain with eye movement opththalmoplegia proptosis
orbital cellulitis
97
the mantoux TB test is a type __ hypersensitivity
IV
98
10 or more induration for TB test is positive for (5)
immigrants > 5 years ago IVDU homeless shelters/LTC/prison/hospital children < 4 yo exposure to adults in high risk categories
99
5 or more induration for TB test is positive for (6)
HIV recent TB contact CXR changes organ transplant TNF a inhibitors chronic steroids
100
leading cause of fatal anaphylaxis
PCN
101
colicky postprandial pain fever/erythema/tender gland
sialadenitis
102
etiology of sialadenitis: viral: bacterial: AI:
viral: mumps, HIV bacterial: staph/strep AI: Sjorgens
103
mc encountered infxn of neck space
ludwig's angina
104
cellulitis of sublingual and submandibular spaces often infxn of mandibular dentition edema and erythema tongue displaced upward
ludwig's angina
105
tx for sialadenitis
hydration warm compress gland massage sialogogues dicloxacillin
106
9 common teratogenic drugs
isotretinoin phenytoin diethylstillbestrol (DES) tetracycline lithium warfarin valproate/carbamazepine ACEI vit A
107
first line tx for trigeminal neuralgia
carbamazepine (antiepileptic)
108
FDA pregnancy categories
A: no risk in human studies B: no risk in animal studies C: small risk in animal studies D: strong e.o risk X: very high risk
109
life threatening complication of hypothyroidism
myxedema coma
110
hashimoto is a rf for what malignancy
non-hodgkin lymphoma
111
how long can it take for levothyroxine to be effective
6 weeks
112
acquired hypertriglyceridemia is associated w. what conditions
obesity T2DM renal dz hypothyroidism pregnancy etoh diet meds
113
hereditary hypertriglyceridemia is associated with what conditions
chylomicronemia familial combined hyperlipidemia familial dysbetailpoproteinemia (wtf?!)
114
blood in anterior chamber
hyphema
115
hyphema commonly occurs dt
blunt or penetrating injury
116
2 pt's at risk for vision threatening hyphema
anticoagulated dyscrasias
117
5 tx for pt not at risk of vision loss from hyphema
eye shield bed rest head of bed elevation pain control cycloplegia
118
5 PE findings of hyphema
decreased vision photophobia pain absence of red reflex unequal pupils
119
avoid __ in hyphema
antiplatelets/anticoagulatns
120
tx for adhesive capsulitis that affects ADLs
intra-articular steroid injxn
121
PE findings of COPD
increased A/P chest diameter prolonged expiratory phase splitting of second heart sound wheezes pursed lip breathing decreased heart and lung sounds dt hyperinflation
122
what drugs can cause SJS
sulfonamides antiepileptics allopurinol NSAIDs
123
what infxn is associated w. SJS
mycoplasma PNA
124
sx of SJS
flu like prodrome cutaneous lesions mucosal lesions uerthritis
125
coalescing erythematous macules with purpuric centers
SJS
126
how to differentiate toxic epidermal necrolysis from SJS
they are identical, but toxic epidermal necrolysis lesions cover > 30% of the body
127
most significant comorbid rf in SJS
HIV
128
in acute bronchitis, the cough lasts > __ days
5
129
when should antitussive be given in acute bronchitis
only when it interferes with sleep
130
tx for acute bronchitis
supportive
131
PID is mc caused by
chlamydia
132
first line med for pt w. hx MI or ACS
bb
133
all pt w. acute lbp and no red flags should be told to
remain active and limit bed rest
134
what DM med increases risk for vaginal candidiasis
empagliflozin
135
which DM med will show glucosuria on UA and urine dipstick
empagliflozin
136
injury and inflammation to wrist extensors
lateral epicondylitis
137
lateral epicondylitis is aka
tennis elbow
138
order of tx for lateral epicondylitis
1. imaging 2. conservative tx 2. reimaging to r.o missed injury 3. steroid injxn 4. surgical referral
139
golfers elbow
medial epicondylitis
140
average age for perimenopause
47
141
what lab is elevated in perimenopause
FSH
142
unopposed estrogen therapy increases the risk of
endometrial ca
143
best PE test for appendicitis
mcburney point
144
RLQ pain elicited by flexion of the knee and hip with internal rotation of the right hip
obturator sign -> low sensitivity
145
RLQ pain elicited by passive right hip extension
psoas sign -> poor sensitivity
146
pain that begins as periumbilical and then moves to RLQ
appendicitis
147
RLQ pain when LLQ is palpated
rovsing
148
mc cause of appendicitis
fecolith
149
what test is recommended for women as long-term follow up after hodgkin lymphoma has been treated to remission
annual mammography
150
aortic stenosis triad
chest pain dyspnea syncope
151
3 PE findings of aortic stenosis
delayed/diminished carotid pulses paradoxically split S2 S4 gallop narrow pulse pressure
152
2 heart sounds associated w. aortic stenosis
paradoxically split S2 S4 gallop
153
aortic stenosis murmur radiates to the
carotids
154
hernia that bulges through the internal inguinal ring to the scrotum
indirect
155
hernia that protrudes medial to the inferior epigastric vessels
direct inguinal
156
least common type of hernia that protrude thru femoral canal
femoral hernia
157
hernia that arises from medical condition that increase abd pressure (ascites, pregnancy, obesity)
umbilical
158
which type of hernia is a medical emergency dt incarceration or strangulation
femoral
159
which type of hernia protrudes through hesselbach triangle
direct inguinal
160
which inguinal hernia has higher risk for strangulation
indirect
161
what do you think when you see salmonellosis plus osteomyelitis
SSA
162
what causes parotid gland swelling in pt w. bulimia nervosa
noninflammatory stimulation of the salivary glands
163
russell sign
callouses, abrasions, scarring on knuckles of bulimia pt
164
eye condition associated w. sunlight exposure, windy, sandy, and dusty environments
pterygium
165
soft, flat, pink triangular growth extending toward and involving a small portion of the cornea bilaterally
pterygium
166
tx for pterytium
artificial tears surgical excision
167
similar to pterygium but confined to conjunctiva without corneal involvement
pinguecula
168
pterygium is located: pinguecula is located:
pterygium: medial pinguecula: lateral
169
prolonged PR interval with no dropped beats P wave for every QRS
first degree AV block tx not needed
170
progressive increase in PR interval with eventual dropped beat +/- symptomatic
Mobitz type 1 2nd degree AV block
171
PR intervals always the same duration dropped beats
Mobitz type 2 2nd degree AV block
172
what meds can cause or exacerbate AV blocks
bb ccb digoxin
173
complete dissociation of P waves w. QRS complexes bradycardia
third degree AV block
174
tx for second degree heart block type II
immediate transcutaneous pacing
175
predisposing factors for endocarditis that count as minor criteria
IVDU prosthetic heart valve glomerulonephritis positive RF
176
colon ca screening recs for pt w. fam hx colon ca
40 yo OR 10 years before first degree relative was diagnosed whichever comes first
177
management of afib: stable: unstable:
stable: rate control -> metropolol, diltiazem unstable: synchronized cardioversion
178
how long to anticoagulate pt before cardioversion
21 days
179
when to cardiovert afib pt
sx > 48 hr
180
when is orchiectomy PLUS chemo recommended for testicular ca pt
stage II
181
TB med known for causing GI sx and arthralgia
pyrazinamide
182
TB med that is hepatotoxic and causes GI s.e
rifampin
183
TB dz of vertebrae that manifests as osteomyelitis and arthritis
Pott dz
184
platelet morphology in immune thrombocytopenia of childhood
normal
185
3 main predictors for future OP fx
age low bone mineral density hx previous fx
186
cause of primary type 1 OP
postmenopausal loss of estrogen
187
causes of primary type II OP
> 75 yo loss of zinc lack of calcium intake anything besides postmenopausal estrogen loss
188
causes of secondary OP
chronic dz meds
189
2 ways pt can be diagnosed w. OP
T score -2.5 or lower on DXA fragility fx
190
what is N-methylnicotinamide deficiency associated w.
pellagra
191
mc type of mental health disorder
phobic disorders
192
when are meds used for phobic disorders
when CBT is not available time constraint (ex upcoming blood draw)
193
med for phobic disorder if CBT is not available
lorazepam 30 min before exposure to stimulus
194
2 indications for haldol
schizophrenia aggressive behavior related to psychosis
195
indication for dialectical behavior therapy
borderline personality disordr
196
specific phobia can only be dx if sx last for __
6 months
197
what lifestyle factor worsens fibrocystic breast changes
frequent etoh consumption
198
bilateral parotitis in a ped
mumps
199
2 mc organ systems affected by SLE
MSK skin
200
hand deformity seen w. SLE
swan neck deformity
201
rash associated w. SLE
malar (butterfly)
202
the malar rash spares the
nasolabial folds
203
heliotrope rash
dermatomyositis
204
telangiectasia rash
rosacea
205
sx of SLE
photosensitivity fatigue fever wt loss arthritis pleuritis pericarditis neuropsych sx
206
most sensitive test for SLE: most specific test for SLE:
sensitive: ANA specific: anti-dsDNA, anti-SMITH
207
tx for SLE
NSAIDs steroids hydroxychloroquine immunosuppresants
208
what lab value correlates w. SLE severity
anti-dsDNA
209
what lab value is seen in SLE flare ups
low complement
210
what drugs cause SLE
HIPPS: hydralazine INH procainimide phenytoin sulfonamides
211
2 birth controls recommended for SLE
levonorgestrel IUD progestin-only
212
2 first line HTN meds for AA
thiazides CCB
213
when to refer HTN pt to specialist
> 3 drugs needed
214
what 2 bb do not carry risk of impaired glucose tolerance or DM
carvedilol nebivolol
215
bp goal for < 60 yo or those w. DM
140/90
216
bp goal for > 60 yo
150/90
217
HTN med for CKD with or w.o DM
ACEI OR ARB
218
2 common causes of tinnitus
NSAIDs/ASA excessive etoh
219
consider NSAIDs as cause of tinnitus in what pt pop
young pt w. arthritis (taking lots of NSAIDs)
220
facial paralysis zoster lesions tinnitus
ramsay hunt syndrome
221
5 ototoxic agents
salicylates NSAIDs quinine abx chemo
222
3 ototoxic abx
aminoglycosides erythromycin vancomycin
223
first line pharm for panic disorder
citalopram
224
which lung ca starts peripherally
adenocarcinoma -> mc type
225
which 2 types of lung ca starts centrally
small cell squamous cell
226
which type of lung ca is associated w. hypercalcemia
squamous cell
227
3 types of non small cell lung ca
adenocarcinoma squamous cell large cell
228
which type of lung ca is associated w. paraneoplastic syndromes
small cell
229
individual hairs on head are easily dislodged
positive pull test -> alopecia areata
230
immune mediated, recurrent, non-scarring hair loss
alopecia areata
231
exclamation mark hairs
alopecia areata from thin proximal shaft
232
androgenic alopecia is aka
male pattern or female pattern baldness
233
diffuse hair loss that occurs two to three months after inciting event (childbirth, stress, dietary changes, meds)
teolgen effluvium
234
areas of hair loss w. pruritis and scarring
tinea capitis
235
mc cause of alopecia areata
AI
236
tx for alopecia areata
intralesional corticosteroids
237
Ken Tuc Ky heart sound
S3 -> systolic HF can be normal
238
Te Nuh See heart sound
S4 gallop -> diastolic HF always pathologic
239
as preload increases, cardiac stroke volume also increases until at a certain point it plateaus, then declines
frank-starling principle
240
FDA approved meds for delirium
none!
241
med absolutely contraindicated in delirium except w. substance withdrawal
benzos
242
med to consider for delirium
atypical antipsychotics
243
CHESS criteria for high risk syncope
CHF hematocrit > 30% ECG abnormal SOB systolic BP > 90
244
test for every pt w. syncope
ECG
245
symmetrically distributed, coalescent, hyperpigmented macules in exposed areas of the face
melasma
246
hyperpigmented coalescent macules in sun exposed areas of the body begin as solitary lesion
solar lentingines
247
tx for solar lentigines
fluocinolone trichloracetic acid hydroquinone tretinoin bleaching agents chemical peels laser therapy
248
melasma during pregnancy
cholasma
249
lab value to monitor for pt on allopurinol long term
Cr
250
management of acute gout
1. NSAIDs, ice 2. prednisone 3. triamcinolone injxn 4. arthrocentesis 5. chochicine
251
what gout med reduces formation of uric acid crystals in the joint but has a narrow therapeutic window
colchicine
252
what gout med causes vomiting and diarrhea
chochicine
253
med for chronic management of gout
allopurinol -> lowers urate
254
2 meds contraindicated in gout
ASA loop and thiazide diuretics
255
treat to target level of uric acid in gout pt
< 6
256
what is podagra
acute onset of pain in first MTP -> gout
257
needle shaped crystal with negative birefringence
gout
258
what med class can induce mania in bipolar I or II
SSRI
259
what does DIG FAST stand for
distractibility impulsivity grandiosity flight of ideas activities sleep - decreased talkative mania sx
260
accumulation of bile in the liver as a result of decreased secretion of bile by hepatocytes or obstruction of bile ducts
cholestasis
261
causes of cholestatic jaundice in older kids and adults
drug induced viral hepatitis progressive familial syndromes
262
causes of obstructive cholestasis
cholelithiasis cholangitis tumors
263
patients with cholestatic jaundice have __ total bile salt pool size
decreased
264
4 extrahepatic causes of cholestasis
choledocholithiasis tumor biliary atresia ascending cholangitis
265
4 intrahepatic causes of cholestasis
hepatitis etoh liver dz primary sclerosing cholangitis primary biliary cirrhosis
266
3 acne meds contraindicated in pregnancy
doxycycine isotretinoin tretinoin
267
topical abx for papulopustular and mixed acne
erythromycin clindamycin
268
oral abx for papulopustular and mixed acne
doxycycline bactrim
269
which type of lesion is the hallmark of acne vulgaris
comedome
270
completely disorganized EKG irregular chaotic pattern w.o p waves or qrs incompatible w. life
vfib
271
mc cause of vfib
ischemic heart dz
272
tx for vfib
CPR IV access defbrillator -> 200 joules 1 mg IV epi lower core body temp to 32-36 degrees
273
tx for CAP PNA in healthy adult (3)
high dose amoxicillin OR doxycycine OR macrolide
274
tx for CAP PNA: comorbidities
augmento or cephalosporin PLUS doxycycine PLUS macrolide OR fluoroquinolone
275
pt pops at risk for klebsiella PNA
DM etoh abuse
276
single erythematous patch with overlying warmth
cellulitis
277
purple, pruritic, polygonal, papular plaques ankles, wrists, genital/oral mucosa
lichen planus
278
derm condition associated w. hep C
lichen planus
279
raised, pruritic, target-like lesions with two zones of color change
SJS TEN
280
bright red plaque w. raised and sharply demarcated borders
erysipelas
281
cellulitis is mc caused by (3)
GAS strep pyogenes s. aureus
282
immediate tx of htn emergency
sodium nitroprusside
283
markedly elevated bp w.o e.o end organ damage
hypertensive urgency
284
hypertensive emergency definition
sbp > 180 dbp > 120 end organ damage
285
tx for aortic dissection
esmolol
286
tx for eclampsia
hydralazine
287
sx of bells palsy
no forehead wrinkling lip droop drooling hyperacusis retroauricular pain ipsilateral tongue numbness loss of taste
288
pink/salmon-colored herald patch with a collarette of scale
pityriasis rosea
289
papulosquamous eruption along lines of cleavage of skin inflammatory, oval in proximal areas of extremities and trunk mc in fall/spring
pityriasis rosea
290
tx for pityriasis rosea
spontaneously resolves symptomatic antihistamines/corticosteroids
291
christmas tree rash on the back
pityriasis rosea
292
2 types of abnormal uterine bleeding
heavy menstrual bleeding intermenstrual bleeding
293
structural causes of AUB
PALM: polyp adenomyosis leiomyoma malignancy
294
nonstructural causes of AUB
COEIN: coagulopathy ovulatory dysfxn endometrial iatrogenic not yet classified
295
bleeding disorders to r.o for AUB
von willebrand factor VIII
296
women w. SLE need to avoid pregnancy for __ months after active dz
6 mo
297
antihistone antibody
SLE
298
major complications of cirrhosis
portal htn hepatic encephalopathy hepatocellular carcinoma portal vein thrombosis
299
complications of portal hypertension
esophageal varices ascites spontaneous bacterial peritonitis hepatorenal syndrome
300
management of esophageal varices
endoscopy TIPS variceal ligation
301
med for esophageal varies
bb -> nadolol, propranolol
302
mc complication of cirrhosis
ascites
303
management of ascites
diuretis salt restriction paracentesis
304
infxn of ascitic fluid typically in end stage liver dz
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
305
management of SBP
d.c bb and ppi diuretics abx
306
abx for sbp
bactrim OR cipro
307
management for hepatorenal syndrome
TIPS terlipressin with albumin
308
sx of hepatic encephalopathy
asterix hyperactive DTR insomnia decerebrate posturing
309
meds for hepatic encephalopathy
1. lactulose to produce 2 soft stools/day 2. rifamixin
310
med that prevents recurrent hepatic encephalopathy and improves qol/reduces morbidity/mortality when given with lactulose
rifamixin
311
hepatocellular carcinoma lab finding
elevated serum alpha fetoprotein
312
management of portal vein thrombosis
screen for esophageal varices anticoagulation
313
ankle inversion sprain causes damage to the __ ligament
calcaneofibular
314
eversion ankle sprain causes damage to the __ ligament
deltoid
315
high ankle sprain is associated w. __ tear
syndesmotic
316
palpation of LLQ causes pain in RLQ
rovsing sign
317
mc inherited disorder of bilirubin glucoronidation
gilbert syndrome
318
UGT1A1 gene mutation
gilbert syndrome
319
what enzyme is responsible for transforming unconjugated bilirubin to water soluble conjugated bilirubin for excretion
glucuronosyltransferase
320
conjugated bilirubin is broken down into __ for excretion in the feces and into __ for excretion in the urine
feces: urobilinogen urine: urobilin
321
3 causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
hemolysis gilbert syndrome drug rxns
322
7 causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
intraphepatic cholestasis hepatitis cirrhosis sepsis biliary obstruction -> choledocholithiasis, sclerosing angitis, pancreatitis dubin johnson rotor
323
benign autosomal recessive condition characterized by reduced production of uridine 5'diphospho-glucuronosyltransferase that results in elevated unconjugated or indirect bilirubin levels
gilbert syndrome
324
definitive dx for gilbert syndrome
genetic testing
325
intermittent jaundice... otherwise asymptomatic
gilbert syndrome
326
retention of bile in the liver
cholestasis
327
reduced excretory fxn of hepatocytes -> increased conjugated bilirubin
dubin-johnson syndrome
328
inability to visualize liver on cholecystography black liver
dubin-johnson syndrome
329
reduced hepatic uptake of bilirubin conjugates can visualize liver no black liver
rotor syndrome
330
what serum level of bilirubin is associated w. jaundice
3 or higher
331
3 ways to maximize bone mass
nutrition -> Ca/vit D PA avoid smoking and etoh
332
score that compares bone mass w. a healthy 30 yo of the same sex
t score
333
score that compares bone density to average person of same age and sex
z score
334
preferred iron supplement for IDA
oral ferrous sulfate 325 mg
335
for dx of mdd, pt must have at least __ symptoms x __ months
5 symptoms x 6 months
336
factors that increase risk for mdd
childhood trauma early-onset anxiety low self esteem substance abuse parental loss low parental warmth marital issues low education
337
is fam hx of mdd a risk factor for developing it
no! but it is for bipolar
338
a post bronchodilator FEV1:FVC < __ i used to establish presence of airflow limitation in COPD
70%
339
__ diffusing capacity for carbon dioxide is a good measurement of amt of emphysematous destruction in the lungs
low
340
4 CXR findings of COPD
flat diaphragm increased retrosternal lung space rapidly tapering vasculature bullae
341
unexpected panic attacks followed by a month or more of persistent worry about additional panic attacks or significant maladaptive behaviors
panic disorder
342
sx of panic disorder
sweating shaking feeling of choking/smothering chest pain/pressure nausea dizzy chills heat sensation impending doom
343
tx for panic d.o
CBT SSRI
344
t/f: panic attacks occur in response to a particular stimulus
f!
345
tiny, weeping vesicles and crusted lesions in a linear distribution on both arms bilaterally erythematous maculopapular lesions extending outward from vesicular lesions
poison ivy
346
poison ivy is an example of __ dermatitis
allergic contact
347
excessive exposure to soaps, detergents, or organic solvents that causes physical, chemical, or mechanical irritation to the skin
irritant contact dermatitis
348
allergic contact dermatitis is a type __ hypersensitivity rxn, mediated by __ cells
IV T cells
349
5 common causes of allergic contact dermatitis
nickel (metal fasteners of pants/belts) poison ivy (urushiol) soaps neomycin cobalt potassium dichromate
350
difference btw irritant and allergic contact dermatitis
irritant: limited to sites of direct contact w. irritant allergic: occurs beyond sites of direct contact
351
lesions typical of irritant contact dermatitis
erythematous burning scaly
352
lesions typical of allergic contact dermatitis
intensely pruritic macules papules weeping vesicles crusted lesions bullae in severe cases
353
tx for poison ivy
washing w. soap and water w.in 30 minutes of contact topical steroids systemic steroids calamine lotion zinc oxide paste
354
how to r.o infxn like cellulitis and impetigo w. contact dermatitis
gram stain and culture
355
what type of hypersensitivity rxn is a transfusion rxn due to ABO incompatibility
II
356
dx for allergic contact dermatitis
patch test
357
"Id" rxn
generalized cutaneous rxn in areas not exposed to allergen (allergic contact dermatitis)
358
5 common causes of irritant contact dermatitis
water detergents solvents acids alkali
359
tx for irritant contact dermatitis
emollients topica steroids
360
painless progressive visual field defect curtain moving across the eye increase in floaters
retinal detachment
361
tx for retinal detachment
stat surgical referral for: laser cryoretinopexy
362
fluid behind retina vitreous detachment
retinal detachment
363
cobweb appearance photopsia visual field defect
retinal detachment
364
protrusion of uveal content tear drop pupil eccentric pupil
open globe injury -> trauma
365
hazy/gray retina with white folds
retinal detachment
366
most sensitive imaging for acute ischemic stroke
MRI
367
3 urgent diagnostic tests for acute stroke
noncontrast CT finger stick BG O2 sat
368
5 emergent diagnostic tests for acute stroke
ECG CBC troponin PT, PTT/INR escarin clotting time
369
4 factors in initial eval of suspected syncope
comprehensive hx PE ECG transthoracic ECHO
370
placental tissue covers the internal cervical ox by 2 cm
placenta previa
371
painless vaginal bleeding in a woman beyond 20 weeks gestation
placenta previa
372
5 rf for plaenta previa
previous placenta previa previous cesarean multiple gestation multiple induced abortions advanced age
373
dx for placenta previa
transvaginal > transabdominal
374
exam to avoid in placenta previa
digital vaginal exam
375
med to give in deliveries before 37 weeks gestation to help with lung development
antenatal steroids
376
med to give for deliveries btw 24-32 weeks gestation for neuroprotection
magnesium sulfate
377
management of asymptomatic placenta previa
obs monitor w. US avoid sexual activity/exercise avoid long periods of standing
378
goal of placenta previa management
get pt to 34 weeks before cesarean
379
you can exclude placenta previa if pt is not in the __ trimester
third
380
what pt pop can try H2 receptor for GERD before PPI
mild and intermittent -> sx less than twice weekly no esophagitis or Barett
381
pt w. mild/intermittent GERD sx who starts w. H2 receptor antagonist should be switched to PPI if sx have not improved w.in __ of daily dose
2 weeks
382
if pt w. mild/intermittent GERD sx has improvement w. 2 weeks of daily H2 receptor, what is the next step
switch H2 receptor antagonist to PRN

EOR: Family Med (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions