Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EOR: Family Med > Rosh Material #3 > Flashcards

Rosh Material #3 Flashcards

1
Q

primary PTX mc occurs in what pt pop

A

tall, thin boys

men aged 10-30 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do you think when you see: abrupt onset of SOB, decreased chest excursion, diminished breath sounds, decreased tactile fremitus

A

PTX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do you think when you see: hypotension, tachycardia, mediastinal/tracheal shift

A

tension PTX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what do you think when you see: visceral pleural line that can be seen only on expiratory films

A

PTX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

increased radiolucent costophrenic sulcus on CXR

contralateral shift in the mediastinum

A

deep sulcus sign → PTX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

order of tx for PTX based on severity

A
  1. obs and O2
  2. simple drainage w. small bore catheter
  3. small bore chest tube
  4. chest tube w. suction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which PTX require chest tube w. suction

A

large PTX

tension PTX

secondary PTX

severe sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tx for recurrent PTX

A

thoracoscopy

OR

open thoracotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4 types of PTX

A

spontaneous → primary (tall, thin men) vs secondary (chronic dz)

iatrogenic

traumatic

catamenial → result of thoracic endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what drug is used for prevention of pneumocystis PNA

A

bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what do you think when you see: HA, aquagenic pruritis, ruddy facial plethora, palpable splenomegaly, erythromalagia

A

polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

leading cause of death in polycythemia vera pt

A

thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what gene mutation is associated w. polycythemia vera

A

JAK2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

complications of polycythemia vera

A

malignancy

myelogibrosis

AML

myelodysplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tx for polycythemia vera

A
  1. phlebotomies to maintain Hct <45
  2. low dose ASA
  3. cytoreductive therapy for high risk → hydroxyurea or interferon
  4. anticoagulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

bone marrow bx findings of: hypercellularity for age w. trilineage growth (panmyelosis), prominent erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic proliferation w. pleomorphic mature megakaryocytes

A

polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pruritis following a warm bath or shower

A

polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is Budd Chiari syndrome

A

disorder that occurs when the hepatic venous outflow is obstructed dt a thrombus w.in a hepatic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do you think when you see: pallor, jaundice, dark urine, anemia, hepatosplenomegaly

A

beta thalassemia major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

iron storage disorder in which iron absorption is increased and stored as hemosiderin in the liver, heart, pancreas, pituitary testes, kidneys and adrenals

A

hereditary hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

sx of hereditary hemochromatosis

A

fatigue

arthralgia

arthropathy

hepatomegaly

skin pigmentation

hepatic dysfxn

cardiac enlargement/failure

DM

ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

liver bx showing Prussian blue stain

A

hereditary hemochromatosis

→ due to intense iron stores in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how much etch intake/day increases risk of developing cirrhosis

A

>30 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how much etch intake/day increases risk of developing cirrhosis

A

>30 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

dx for hereditary hemochromatosis

A

MRI

OR

liver bx

also HFT genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which DM med has been shown to lower A1C levels and reduce the risk of CVD in adults w. T2DM

A

empagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for what 2 pt pops

A

adults 65 or older

adults < 65 w. rf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mc s.e of isoniazid

A

peripheral neuropathy

hepatitis

rash

mild CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

mc s.e of rifampin

A

hepatitis

flu like

GI bleed

kidney failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

mc s.e of Pyrazinamide

A

hyperuricemia

hepatotoxic

rashGI

joint aches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

mc s.e of ethambutol

A

optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

mc s.e of streptomycin

A

CN VIII damage

nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how many mm of induration will be present on a pt w. HIV and TB who undergoes TB skin test

A

5 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

6 p’s of acute arterial embolism

A

paresthesia

pain

pallor

pulselessness

paralysis

poikilothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

childhood condition that is most acute

follows viral infxn

sx include: petechiae, gingival bleeding, epistaxis, menorrhagia, GI bleeding, intracranial hemorrhage

A

immune thrombocytopenia of childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

management of immune thrombocytopenia of childhood

A

supportive

platelets

corticosteroids

IVIG or anti-D immunoglobulin

splenectomy

emergent care if severe sx (ex GI bleeding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

labs associated w. immune thrombocytopenia of childhood

A

isolate thrombocytopenia w. normal Hgb, Hct, and WBC

platelet count < 100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

autoantibodies associated w. immune thrombocytopenia of childhood

A

glycoprotein IIb/IIIA complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what steroid sparing agents are appropriate for chronic immune thrombocytopenia in children

A

rituximab

thrombopoietin receptor agonists (romiplostim, eltrombopag)

azathioprine

mycophenolate mofetil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

meds that commonly cause pill esophagitis

A

abx

NSAIDs

bisphosphonates

KCl

quinidine

vitamin C

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

3 abx that commonly cause pill esophagitis

A

tetracyclines

bactrim

clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

gradually progressive dysphagia to solids

can be due to GERD, pt’s undergoing xrt, eosinophilic esophagitis

A

esophageal stricture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

first line tx for benign esophageal strictures

A

esophageal dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

2 mc presenting sx of colorectal ca

A

painless hematochezia

change in bowel habits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

bowel obstruction and change in bowel habits are mc with __ sided colorectal ca

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

hematochezia and IDA are mc seen w. __ sided colorectal ca

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what does “apple core lesion” make you think of

A

circumferential colorectal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

anemias w. low MCV

A

IDA

sideroblastic

thalassemia

anemia of chronic dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

anemias w. high MCV

A

B12/megaloblastic/pernicious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what does basophilic stipling make you think of

A

lead poisoning

thalassemias

etch

heavy metal poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

only anemia associated w. increased TIBC

A

iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

mc cause of large bowel obstruction in older pt

A

neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

mc cause of PUD

A

h pylori

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

duodenal ulcers affect what pt pop

gastric ulcers affect what pt pop

A

duodenal: young
gastric: older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

gs dx for peptic ulcers

A

endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

gs testing for h. pylori

A

urea breath test

fecal antigen assay

serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

quadruple therapy for h. pylori

A

bismuth

metronidazole

tetracycline

omeprazole

areas of macrolide resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

triple therapy for h. pylori

A

omeprazole

clarithromycin

amoxicillin

metronidazole if pcn allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

most sensitive test for h. pylori

A

urea breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

where in the stomach are the most benign ulcers found

A

antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

chronic insomnia is defined as

A

sx at least 3x/week for at least 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

first line tx for insomnia

A

CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

when would you order polysomnography for insomnia

A

cases where organic cause is suspected

ex OSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

pharm for insomnia

A

benzos

non benzo receptor agonists

sedatives

melatonin agonists

suvorexant

antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

2 mc relaxation based strategies for insomnia d.o

A

progressive muscle relaxation

diaphragmatic breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

pt takes a deep breath while examiner palpates upward in area of gallbladder fossa

A

murphy sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

cholecystitis PLUS elevated bilirubin and alk phos is concerning for (4)

A

biliary obstruction

cholangitis

choledocholithiasis

mirizzi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

order of dx tests for cholecystitis

A
  1. US
  2. cholescintigraphy (HIDA) → if dx unclear
  3. CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

preferred definitive tx for cholecystitis

A

cholecystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

test to order for cholecystitis with coexisting elevated bilirubin, elevated liver enzymes, or e.o bile duct dilation on US

A

MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography)

to r.o choledocholithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is Charcot triad

A

jaundice

fever

RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

hyperesthesia, increased or altered sensitivity below the right scapula

A

boas sign → cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

painful linear tear in the anal canal

A

anal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

causes of anal fissure

A

low fiber diet

passage of hard or large stools

anal trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what do you think when you see “severely painful BM and bright red blood per rectum during BM”

A

anal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

primary anal fissures are located __

and caused by __ (6)

A

posterior midline

local trauma, constipation, diarrhea, vaginal delivery, anal intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

lateral anal fissures are located __

and caused by __

A

lateral

Crohn dz, granulomatous dz, malignancy, communicable dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

management of anal fissures

A

topical nifedipine or nitroglycerin

topical analgesic

stool softener

sitz bath

fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what do you think when you see “erythematous ulcer on anal margin”

A

Crohn dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what do you think when you see: “perineal induration” accompanied by erythema, fever, drainage

A

anorectal abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what do you think when you see: “tender palpable mass on anal margin” and rectal bleeding

A

external hemorrhoids

less painful than anal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

if anal fissures are located __,

search for pathologic etiologies

A

laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is second-line tx for persistent anal fissures

A

topical nitroglycerin or nifedipine ointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

mc type of lung ca

not associated w. smoking

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

acute purulent inflammation of the eyelid

mc at or near eyelash follicle

A

hordeolum (stye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

mc cause of hordeolum

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

tx for hodeolum

A

warm compress

abx are rarely effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

blocked oil gland on eyelid

mc found above eyelashes on upper lid

firm, painless

A

chalazion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

tx for chalazion

A

warm compress

steroid injxn

surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

diffuse eyelid inflammation

often associated w. rosacea or seborrhea dermatitis

A

blepharitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

sudden and rapid rise in intraocular pressure

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

classification finding on fluorescein stain for HSV keratitis

A

dendritic branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is this showing

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

slow growing

waxy/pearly nodule

rolled borders

telangiectasias

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

tx for basal cell carcinoma

A

topical imiquimod

5 fluoracil

curettage and electrodessication

excision

mohs micrographic sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

which tx for skin ca has the highest cure rate and results in least amount of tissue loss

A

mohs micrographic sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

painless, firm, shiny, flesh colored or bluish-red nodule on sun exposed area

rarely has ulceration or crusting

A

merckle cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

non healing ulcers/warty nodules

may crust or bleed

common in pt who sunburn easily

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

which type of Hodgkin lymphoma is mc

A

non-hodgkin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what pathogen mc causes prostatitis in men > 35 yo

A

e.coli

also: proteus, enterobacteriaceae, pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

fever, urinary retention, irritation w. voiding, fever

warm, edematous, exquisitely tender prostate

often in setting of recent urinary catheter

A

prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

tx for prostatitis

A

bactrim

fluoroquinolone

x 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

pathogens associated w. prostatitis in men < 35 yo

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

chlamydia trachoma’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

tx for prostatitis associated w. STI

A

ceftriaxone

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

uniform, enlarged, firm prostate w. a palpable median sulcus

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what class of med is recommended in the initial tx for symptomatic prostatic hyperplasia

A

alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists → tamsulosin, terazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

avoid what tx for prostatitis

A

vigorous prostatic massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what type of bacteria is associated w. struvite stones

A

proteus mirabilis

urease producing bacteria → magnesium phosphate crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what do you think when you see: pyuria and WBC casts

A

pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

imaging of choice for pyelo

A

abd/pelvis CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what do you think when you see: f/c, recent UTI, flank pain, CVA tenderness, n/v

A

pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

mc bacteria associated w. acute pyelonephritis

A

e.coli

proteus mirabilis

klebsiella

staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

op management for pyelonephritis

A

cipro, levo

OR

bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

inpt tx for moderate pyelonephritis

A

ceftriaxone

OR

cipro/levo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

inpt tx for severe pyelonephritis

A

cefepime

OR

zosyn

OR

meropenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

how many colony forming unites of a single organism on urine culture are suggestive of UTI

A

100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

mc pathogens associated w. acute bronchitis

A

influenza A and B

parainfluenza

coronavirus

rhinovirus

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

bacterial causes of acute bronchitis

A

mortadella pertussis

mycoplasma pneumoniae

chlamydia pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

sx of acute bronchitis

A

cough lasting 5 days or more

purulent or non purulent d.c

+/- preceding URI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

widening of bronchioles d.t chronic infxn

persistent cough w, mucopurulent sputum

recurrent lung infxns

hemoptysis

A

bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

differentiating factor between bronchitis and PNA

A

f/c

anorexia

abnormal vitals

lung consolidations on CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what is the name of the pulmonary PE test performed by placing the ulnar aspects of both hands agains the pt’s chest while pt says “99”

A

tactile fremitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

mc location for disc herniation

A

L4-5

L5-S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

test to order if you suspect cauda equina

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

2 mc surgical procedures for lumbar radiculopathy

A

open discectomy

microdiscectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

pain down the back of the leg is associated w. which myotome

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

pain down the lateral leg is associated w. which myotome

A

L5

127
Q

pain down the anterior leg is associated w. which myotome

A

L4

128
Q

pain down the medial leg is associated w. which myotome

A

L3

129
Q

what condition is a kyphoplasty used to treat

A

vertebral compression fx

130
Q

mc tick borne (vector) illness in US

A

Lyme dz

131
Q

lime dz is caused by

A

Borella burgdorferi

132
Q

3 stages of Lyme dz

A

early localized

early disseminated

late disseminated

133
Q

what rash is associated w. Lyme dz

A

erythema migrans

134
Q

erythema migraines and cardiac sx CN palsy occur in which stage of Lyme dz

A

early disseminated

135
Q

erythema migraines is associated w. which stage to Lyme dz

A

early localized

136
Q

rheumatologic sx, encephalopathy, and polynephropathy are associated w. which stage of Lyme dz

A

late disseminated

137
Q

tx for prophylaxis of Lyme dz (w.in 72 hr of tick removal)

A

single dose of doxy 200 mg PO

no alternative if doxy can not be taken

138
Q

tx for early disseminated Lyme dz

A

doxycycline

139
Q

duration of tx for late disseminated Lyme dz

A

30 days

140
Q

bacterial spirochete responsible for Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

rickettsia rickettsii

141
Q

tx for pregnant pt w. Lyme dz

A

amoxicillin

142
Q

__ is pathognomonic for Lyme dz

A

bilateral facial nerve palsy

143
Q

hypo pigmented spots on the abdomen and chest

oval shaped macules

KOH prep shows hyphae w. spores

A

tinea versicolor

144
Q

what do you think when you see “malassezia”

A

tinea versicolor genus

145
Q

tinea versicolor worsens w.

A

sun exposure

146
Q

what do you think when you see “spaghetti and meatballs appearance” on KOH prep

A

tinea versicolor

147
Q

management of tinea versicolor

A

topical antifungal → selenium sulfide 2.5% or ketoconazole

oral if severe or refractory

148
Q

benign, self limited, common skin condition in kids

characterized by hypo pigmented macule and patches on the face

likely related to atopic dermatitis

A

pityriasis alba

149
Q

superficial fungal dz

characterized by erythematous, annular, patchy plaques - often w. raised border

irritating, pruritic

A

tinea corporis

150
Q

well circumscribed, depigmented, macule and patches

not painful or pruritic

associated w. AI d.o - ex thyroid abnormalities

affects face, neck, arms, feet, fingers, trunk, scalp

A

vitiligo

151
Q

which anti fungal is no longer recommended as first line oral tx d.t risk of drug induced hepatitis

A

ketoconazole

152
Q

excruciating unilateral orbital/supraorbital/temporal pain

associated w. autonomic sx → ptosis mitosis, anhidrosis

associated w. nasal congestion/lacrimation

mc in men

A

cluster HA

153
Q

how long do cluster HA last

how often

A

short lived → 15-180 min

daily in clusters, followed by remission

154
Q

tx for cluster HA

A

100% O2

sumatriptan

155
Q

t/f: cluster HA can be bilateral

A

F!

always unilateral, but can switch sides with new attack

156
Q

similar to cluster HA but shorter attacks and less severe sx

occur 5 or more times daily

mc in women

A

proxysmal hemicrania

157
Q

gradual nonspecific unilateral HA with impaired vision, hormone deficiencies

worsen over time

A

pituitary adenoma

158
Q

what are the 4 types of trigeminal autonomic cephalagias

A

cluster HA

paroxysmal hemicrania

short-lasting unilateral neuralgiform Ha attacks

hemicrania continua

159
Q

prophylaxis for cluster HA

A

verapamil

160
Q

which congenital heart disorder is associated w. Turner syndrome and intracranial aneurysms

A

coarctation of the aorta

161
Q

what do you think when you see: new onset murmur, early-onset HTN

difference in brachial and popliteal bp

rib notching on CXR

A

coarctation of the aorta

162
Q

what is 3 sign

A

rib notching on CXR

163
Q

tx for coarctation of the aorta

A

end to end anastomosis

balloon angioplasty

stent

164
Q

what congenital heart disorder is associated w. recurrent respiratory infxns, failure to thrive, exertion dyspnea

commonly asymptomatic until 30 yo

A

atrial septal defect

165
Q

continuous machinelike murmur heard best on pulmonic area w, wide pulse pressures

A

patent ductus arteriosus

166
Q

tetralogy of Fallot is relieved by the patient __

A

squatting

167
Q

what would ECG for pt with coarctation of aorta show

A

LVH

168
Q

primary adrenal insufficiency

A

addison’s dz

169
Q

dx test for addison’s

A

morning serum cortisol

rapid ACTH test

170
Q

tx for Addison’s

A

lifelong supplementation of glucocorticoids → prednisone, hydrocortisone, dexamethasone

and mineralocorticoids → fludrocortisone

171
Q

in addison’s dz, the HPA axis is __

cortisol levels are __

and ACTH levels are __

A

intact

decreased

increased

172
Q

mc cause of addison’s

A

AI destruction of adrenal cortex

173
Q

in secondary adrenal insufficiency the HPA axis is __

and ACTH is __

A

not intact → impaired stimulation of adrenal glands

low

174
Q

which endocrine disorder is associated w. skin pigmentation

A

addison’s dz

175
Q

which food craving is characteristic of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

salt

176
Q

presenting sx of addison’s

A

abd pain, vomiting, diarrhea

fever

confusion

177
Q

criteria for diagnosing DM (4)

A

sx PLUS a random BG 200 or higher

OR

fasting BG 126 or higher on 2 separate occasions

BG over 200 2 hr after 75 g OGTT

A1C 6.5 or higher

should be repeated for confirmation unless 2 or more clinical criteria are met

178
Q

what type of obesity is associated w. insulin insensitivity

A

visceral dt accumulation of fat in mental and mesenteric regions

179
Q

classifications of rhino sinusitis

A

acute → < 4 wees

subacute → 4-12 weeks

chronic → > 12 weeks

recurrent acute → 4 or more episodes/year w. interim resolution

180
Q

mc pathogen associated w. bacterial rhino sinusitis

A

strep pneumo

also common: m. cat, strep pyogenes

181
Q

mc cause of chronic sinusitis (lasting > 12 weeks)

A

staph aureus

182
Q

major s.e of pseudoephedrine (esp if used > 3 days)

A

rebound congestion

183
Q

tx for bacterial sinusitis lasting 10 days or more

A

augmentin

184
Q

chronic abdominal pain relieved w. BM, and altered bowel habits

absence of any organic cause

A

IBS

185
Q

4 subtypes of IBS

A

predominant constipation → IBS-C

IBS w. predominant diarrhea → IBS-D

mixed → IBS-M

unclassified IBS

186
Q

tx for IBS-D

A

loperamide

cholestyramine

rifamixin or alosetron

187
Q

tx for IBS-C

A

psyllium

polyethylene glycol → Miralax

lubiprostone

188
Q

antispasmodic meds for IBS to treat abd discomfort/pain

A

dicyclomine

hyoscyamine

189
Q

alarm features that suggests alternative dx to IBS

A

more tha minimal rectal bleeding

wt loss

unexplained IDA

nocturnal sx

fam hx colon ca

IBD

celiac

190
Q

rome IV criteria for IBS

A

recurrent abd pain at least 1/week for 3 months associated w. 2 or more:

related to defamation

associated w. change in stool frequency

associated w. change in stool form

191
Q

erythema multiforme is a __ sensitivity

A

type IV

192
Q

what is this showing

A

erythema multiforme

193
Q

raised, blanching, target shaped lesions with 3 concentric zones of color change

A

erythema multiforme

194
Q

mc cause of erythema multiforme

A

HSV

also mycoplasma

195
Q

blanching, erythematous macular rash that becomes petechial over time

classically begins on ankles and wrists → spreads to trunk

A

rash associated w. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

196
Q

what spirochete causes syphilis

A

treponema pallidum

197
Q

diffuse, macular or papular rash affecting trunk and extremities

macule appear copper, red, or brown

scaly or smooth

A

secondary syphilis rash

198
Q

t/f: HSV 1 can not cause genital herpes

A

F!

199
Q

drugs that commonly cause erythema multiforme

A

SOAPS:

sulfa

orał hypoglycemics

anticonfulsants

pcn

NSAIDs

200
Q

menière disease triad

A

episodic vertigo

sensorineural hearing loss

tinnitus

201
Q

dx for meunière disease

A

2 spontaneous episodes of rotational vertigo lasting 20 min or more

audiometric confirmation of sensorineural hearing loss

tinnitus or perception of aural fullness or both

202
Q

type of hearing loss associated w. menière disease

A

low frequency sensorineural loss over 8-10 years

203
Q

management of meniere disease

A

avoid salt, caffeine, etoh, nicotine, msg

diuretic

benzos

betahistine

diuretics

prednisone

204
Q

what do you think of when you see high frequency sensorineural hearing loss

A

prebycusis (age related hearing loss)

205
Q
A
206
Q

causes of conductive hearing loss

A

cerumen

otitis media w. and w.o effusion

cholesteatoma

207
Q

which disorder is characterized by progressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, disequilibrium, and facial numbness 2/2 to compression of CN VIII

A

vestibular schwannoma

aka acoustic neuroma

208
Q

mc cause of meniere disease

A

too much inner ear endolymph → increased pressure w.in inner ear

209
Q

neck circumference > __ is rf for OSA

A

16 in

210
Q

questionnaire for OSA

A

STOP-Bang →

snoring

tiredness

observed apnea

high bp

bmi

age

neck circumference

gender - male

211
Q

first line dx test for OSA

A

polysomnography

212
Q

first line tx for OSA

A

CPAP

213
Q

complications of OSA

A

CVD mortality

metabolic syndrome and T2DM

NAFLD

214
Q

first line tx for OSA in kids

A

tonsillectomy

215
Q

what is pickwickian syndrome

A

hypoventilation dt obesity

216
Q

acute sharp pain described as ripping

+/- syncope, stroke, MI, HF

A

aortic dissection

217
Q

pleuritic cp accompanied by dyspnea and cough

A

pulmonary embolism

218
Q

sharp pleuritic cp that improves w. sitting up and leaning forward

A

pericarditis

219
Q

egg findings of pericarditis

A

diffuse ST elevations

PR depressions

220
Q

lesion in which vessel is indicated by ST elevations in V1, V2, V3. V4

A

LAD

221
Q

initial tx for acute invasive fungal sinusitis

A

IV amphotericin B

surgical debridement

222
Q

what pear shaped protozoan has four flagella at its anterior end and can be seen on urine microscopy

A

trichomonas vaginalis

223
Q

what food borne illness is associated w. reactive arthritis

A

salmonellosis

224
Q

tx for severe salmonellosis

A

ciprofloxacin

225
Q

what food borne illness is associated w. staph aureus

A

mayo

226
Q

what food borne illness is associated w. ingestion of raw hot dogs

A

listeria

227
Q

what food borne illness is associated w. ingestion of raw seafood

A

vibrio spp

228
Q

which virus is associated w. outbreaks of gastroenteritis on cruise ships

A

norovirus

229
Q

what 3 foods are associated w. salmonellosis

A

poultry

meat

eggs

230
Q

labs for salmonellosis

A

fecal WBCs

231
Q

what food borne illness is associated w. osteomyelitis in kids w. sickle cell

A

salmonellosis

232
Q

what is seen on coronary angiography in vasospastic angina

A

coronary vasospasm w. IV ergonovine or acetylcholine administration

233
Q

5 rf for vasospastic angina

A

htn

smoking

dm

obesity

cocaine

234
Q

transient ST elevations

normal cardiac enzymes

pain at rest

A

vasospastic angina

235
Q

tx for vasospastic angina

A

CCB

nitrates

236
Q

phases of a migraine

A

prodrome → hours to days

aura → 5-60 min

HA → 4-72 hr

postdrome → 24-48 hr

237
Q

tx for acute migraines

A

OTC analgesics

triptans

dihydroergotamine

antiemetics

238
Q

prophylactic tx for migraines

A

bb

ccb

amitriptyline

valproic acid, topiramate (1st line)

botulinum toxin

239
Q

which med for migraine prophylaxis is not recommended for women of child bearing age

and can cause weight gain, hair loss, tremor

A

valproate

240
Q

prophylactic migraine med that may be good for older pt, smokers, or pt w. Raynaud

A

verapamil

241
Q

common s.e of topiramate

A

paresthesias

anomia

wt loss

anorexia

metabolic acidosis

nephrolithiiasis

242
Q

first line prophylactic migraine med that can aid in wt loss

A

topiramate

243
Q

contraindications for triptans and DHE

A

HTN

CVD

244
Q

mc pain presentation of migraines

A

gradual onset

unilateral

245
Q

mc nonverbal STI infxn

A

trichomoniasis

246
Q

frothy, greenish yellow vaginal d.c

hyperemic, friable cervical mucosa → strawberry cervix

pH > 5

WBCs

A

trichomoniasis

247
Q

wet mount findings: flagellated motile trichomonads

A

trichomoniasis

248
Q

tx for trichomoniasis

A

metronidazole 2 g po single dose

OR

metronidazole 500 mg bid x 7 days

2nd line: tinidazole

249
Q

vulvar/vaginal itching/burning

external dysuria

odorless, thick, cottage cheese d.c

budding yeast

acidic pH

A

vaginal candidiasis

250
Q

what causes BV

A

gardnerella vaginalis

251
Q

fishy vaginal d.c

thin ivory to gray homogenous d.c

pH > 4.5

clue cells

A

BV

252
Q

STI affecting membranes of urethra, cervix, uterus, Fallopian tubes

yellow to greenish urethral d.c, dysuria

or asymptomatic

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

253
Q

nonmotile diplococci in pairs

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

254
Q

which test can be used to confirm dx of trichomoniasis

A

NAAT

255
Q

3 mc causes of aortic stenosis

A

calcific dz

congenital abnormality

rheumatic heart dz

256
Q

dyspnea on exertion, decreased exercise tolerance, exertional dizziness, exertional angina

delayed/diminished carotid pulses

paradoxically split S2

narrow pulse pressure

A

aortic stenosis

257
Q

crescendo decrescendo murmur heard best at second right ICS

harsh

radiates to carotid arteries

A

aortic stenosis

258
Q

tx for aortic stenosis

A

aortic valve replacement

259
Q

harsh crescendo decrescendo systolic murmur heard best at the apex and lower left sternal border

increases w. standing up, valsalva, and with nitro

decreases from standing to sitting, handgrip, passive leg elevation

A

HOCM

260
Q

holosystolic murmur heard best at apex

mc blowing and high pitched

radiates to axilla

A

mitral regurgitation

261
Q

mc causes of mitral regurgitation

A

degenerative dz w. prolapse

CAD

262
Q

low pitched diastolic rumble heard best at apex

opening snap

A

mitral stenosis

263
Q

mc cause of tricuspid stenosis

A

rheumatic heart disease

264
Q

3 rf for aortic stenosis

A

age

DM

HTN

265
Q

aortic stenosis murmur __ with valsalva

A

decreases

266
Q

what drug is considered first line for dyslipidemia that is recalcitrant to lifestyle mods

A

statins

267
Q

med used in HFrEF and SVT

A

digoxin

268
Q

meds for AA w. HFrEF

A

hydralazine

PLUS

nitrate

269
Q

med for HFrEF 35% or less with persistent sx despite therapy

A

spironolactone

270
Q

which class does sacubitril-valsartan belong to

A

ARNI

271
Q

gastronomes that secrete excessive gastrin

multiple peptic ulcers

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome

272
Q

for how long should psi be discontinued prior to performing urea breath tests and fecal antigen assays

A

7-14 days

273
Q

spiral shaped gram negative rod

A

h pylori

274
Q

mc causes of acute gastritis

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. etoh
275
Q

types and causes of atrophic gastritis

A

A chronic → pernicious anemia

B chronic → h. pylori

276
Q

cosyntropin stimulation test is used to dx

A

addison’s

measures cortisol after ACTH is injected

277
Q

2 tests for addison’s

A

1, cosyntropin stimulation

  1. CRH stimulation
278
Q

what androgen is androstenedione converted to

A

testosterone

279
Q

what are these showing

A

aphthous ulcers → canker sores

280
Q

painful condition affecting oral and genital mucosa

recurrence of small, painful, round to oval ulcers

last 1-2 weeks

A

aphthous ulcers

281
Q

ulcer with peripheral rim of edema surrounding yellowish, central exudate

A

aphthous ulcer

282
Q

what type of mucosa do aphthous ulcers appear on

A

nonkeratinized mucosa

283
Q

4 tx for aphthous ulcers

A

chlorhexidine mouth rinse

topical lidocaine

dexamethasone elixir

oral prednisone if refractory

284
Q

when is prophylactic antiviral therapy recommended for HSV

A

at least 6 outbreaks/year

285
Q

differentiating factors btw aphthous ulcers and HSV

A

HSV appears outside the mouth

HSV has prodrome

HSV break open and crust over

286
Q

which virus causes a flesh colored cauliflower like genital lesion

A

HPV

287
Q

conductive hearing loss w. cholesteatoma is mc dt erosion of which of the ossicles

A

distal portion of incus

288
Q

rounded bilobed cells w. 2 nuclei

owl’s eye appearance

A

reed-sternberg cells → Hodgkin lymphoma

289
Q

3 rf for hodgkin lymphoma

A

Epstein barr

immunosuppression

AI dz

290
Q

chemo tx for Hodgkin lymphoma

A

ABVD →

doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, decarbazine

291
Q

gallium 67 uptake in a pattern assembling lambda

A

sarcoidosis

292
Q

granulomatous inflammation w, caseation necrosis

A

tuberculosis

293
Q

monomorphic medium sized cells w. basophilic cytoplasm

starry sky appearance

A

Burkitt lymphoma → aggressive non hodgkin lymphoma of jaw or face

tumor lysis syndrome

294
Q

what is the waldeyer ring

A

pharyngeal ring of lymphoid tissue made up of adenoid, tubal, palatine, lingual tonsils

295
Q

painless cervical LAD, pruritis, fever, night sweats, wt loss, frequent infxns

A

hodgkin lymphoma

296
Q

dx for hodgkin lymphoma

A

lymph node bx → reed sternerg cells

297
Q

first line med for generalized epileptic sz

A

valproate

298
Q

preferred tx for focal onset sz

can worsen generalized epilepsy

A

carbamazepine

299
Q

med used for status elepticus

can worsen generalized epilepsy syndrome

A

phenytoin

300
Q

term used to describe periodic paralysis following a seizure

A

Todd paralysis

301
Q

what med has been shown to reduce suicide risk in depressed pt

A

lithium

302
Q

fx of proximal ulnar shaft w. radial head dislocation

A

monteggia fx

303
Q

distal radius fx

distal radioulnar joint dislocation

A

galeazzi fx

303
Q

distal radius fx

distal radioulnar joint dislocation

A

galeazzi fx

304
Q

fx of the distal radius w. volar angulation

A

smith fx

305
Q

fx of proximal fibular and tear of tibiofibular syndemosis and interosseous membrane

A

Maisonneuve fx

306
Q

radiographic finding that describes metaphyeseal triangular portion in a salter II fx

A

thurstan holland fragment

307
Q

when should prenatal visits be scheduled

A

q 4 weeks from 4-28 weeks gestation

q 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation

weekly after 36 weeks gestation

308
Q

what 4 things are done at every prenatal visit

A

weight

bp

fetal heart rate

UA for infxn protein, glucose

309
Q

when is fundal height measured

A

each prenatal visit beginning at 20 weeks

310
Q

what should be done btw 6-12 weeks gestation

A

random BG

CBC

syphilis

chlamydia

rubella titer

varicella titer

HIV testing

Hep B surface antigen

ABO/Rh

311
Q

what is a maternal quad screen

when is it performed

A

alpha fetoprotein, hCG, estradiol, inhibin A

performed during second trimester

tests for aneuploidy and spina bifida

312
Q

when is testing for group B strep done in prenatal care

A

35-37 weeks gestation

313
Q

at which point of gestation is chrionic villus sampling typically performed

A

10-13 weeks

EOR: Family Med (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions