Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EOR: Family Med > Rosh Material #1 > Flashcards

Rosh Material #1 Flashcards

1
Q

mc cause of action tremor in adults

A

essential tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

essential tremor is triggered by (2)

A

voluntary movement

fixed posture against gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

t/f: essential tremor is typically bilateral

A

t!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

essential tremor classically affects the (2)

A

hands

arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tx for essential tremor (6)

A

propranolol

primidone

gabapentin

tpiramate

etoh

botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do you think when you see “stroking of the skin that results in localized hives”

A

urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tx for urticaria

A

avoid triggers

antihistamines

glucocorticoids (if associated w. angioedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 common causes of urticaria

A

food

meds

infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

circumscribed, raised, erythematous papules and plaques on the face lips, extremities, or genitals

A

urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

t/f: individual urticaria lesions last < 24 hr

A

t!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what do you think when you see “lateral pressure in the initial lesion causes separation of the epidermis”

A

nikolsly sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 conditions associated w. nikolsky sign

A

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

pemphigus vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

lesions that last longer than 24 hr that burn or sting

A

urticarial vasculitis

mimics urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do you think when you see “lesions with an initial central puncture”

A

insect bite → papular urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do you think when you see “opacity with penlight exam taht takes up fluorescein stain”

A

corneal ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

corneal ulcers are commonly caused by

A

infectious bacterial keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what pathogen is associated w. infectious bacterial keratitis

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mc risk factor associated w. bacterial keratitis

A

contact lenses

also trauma and prior eye surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

corneal ulcers that are round and central

A

infectious keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

corneal ulcers that are smaller and located more on the periphery of the cornea

A

contact lens induced ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

tx for infectious bacterial keratitis ulcers

A

topical moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

tx for non infectious causes of corneal ulcers

A

topical steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

clinical sx of bacterial keratitis induced corneal ulcers

A

foreign body sensation

trouble keeping eye open

conjunctivitis

photophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tx for acute bacterial conjunctivitis in non contact lens wearer

A

erythromycin ointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

tx for glaucoma

A

latanoprost drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

glaucoma leads to reduced __ vision

A

peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mc cause of infectious ulcers in non contact lens wearer

A

staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

t/f: bacterial keratitis ulcers are a medical emergency

A

t!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what do you think when you see “cobblestoning of the intestinal mucosa”

A

Crohn disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Crohn disease mc affects which part of the intestines

A

terminal ileum → RLQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what do you think when you see “patchy, transmural inflammation of the intestines” and “skip lesions”

A

Crohn disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

t/f: diarrhea associated w. Crohn’s is typically non bloody

A

t!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

definitive dx test for Crohn’s

A

colonoscopy with intubation of the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

mainstay tx for Crohn’s

A

5-aminosalicylic acid derivatives →

corticosteroids

immunomodulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

6 intestinal sx of Crohn’s

A

chronic diarrhea

crampy abdominal pain

fever

wt loss

strictures

fistulas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

7 extra intestinal manifestations of Crohn’s

A

pyoderma grangrenosum

erythema nodosum

ankylosing spondylitis or sacroilitis

arthritis

uveitis

liver dz

nephrolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

t/f: IBS is typically associated with wt loss

A

f!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

colonoscopy findings of IBS

A

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

t/f: UC is associated with bloody diarrhea

A

t!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what do you think when you see, “continuous mucosa inflammation confined to the colon and rectum”

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

is Crohn’s or UC associated with pseudo polyps

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what do you think when you see:

aphthous ulcers, anal fissures, perirectal abscesses anorectal fistulas

A

Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

t/f: surgery is curative for Crohn’s

A

f!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

t/f: COPD patients show improvement in PFTs after bronchodilator tx

A

f!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

step 1 tx for asthma

A

PRN ICS → formoteral

OR

PRN ICS + PRN SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

step 2 tx for asthma

A

daily low dose ICS (formoterol)

OR

OR PRN low dose ICS (formoterol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

step 3 tx for asthma

A

low dose ICS PLUS LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

step 4 tx for asthma

A

medium dose ICS

PLUS

LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

step 5 tx for asthma

A

high dose ICS

PLUS

LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

all asthma patients should have __ for acute relief

A

PRN ICS → formoterol

OR

PRN SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what do you think when you see “no change in FEV or FVC after bronchodilator therapy”

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what class of drug is montelukast

A

leukotriene inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ABI < __ is considered critical limb ischemia

A
  1. 4
    * pain at rest*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

gs for dx of PAD

A

contrast arteriography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

order of tx for PAD

A
  1. lifestyle mods → f/u in 3 mo
  2. trial of cliostazol → f/u in 3 mo
  3. advanced vascular imaging
  4. angioplasty/stenting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

t/f: PAD is mc asymptomatic

A

t!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

define intermittent claudication

A

pain related to activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what do you think when you see “cool extremity w. absent/diminished pulses

A

PAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

mc cause of PAD

A

atherosclerotic dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what pt population do you think of when you see acanthuses nigricans

A

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

CTS involves compression of the __ nerve

A

median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

3 rf for CTS

A

female

pregnant

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

2 PE tests for CTS

A

phalen

tinel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

2 dx tests for CTS

A

electromyography

nerve conduction studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

1st line tx for CTS

A

night splints

also NSAIDs, PT, corticosteroid injxns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

definitive tx for CTS

A

surgical decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

hypothenar atrophy is associated with damage to the __ nerve

A

ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

cubital tunnel syndrome is associated with damage to the __ nerve

A

ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

positive adon test is indicative of __ syndrome

A

thoracic outlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

classic signs of infective endocarditis

A

FROM JANE:

fever

roth spots

osler nodes

murmur

laneway lesions

anemia

nail bed hemorrhages

emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

how many cultures should be drawn for endocarditis

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

gs dx for endocarditis

A

transthoracic ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

duke criteria

A

2 major

OR

1 major and 3 minor

OR

5 minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

major duke criteria (2)

A

positive cultures

ECG findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

which valve is mc affected by infective endocarditis in IVDU

A

tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

mc cause of vaginitis

A

BV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

rf for BV

A

WSW

douching

multiple sex partners

not using condoms

smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

describe the discharge with BV

A

think

milky gray-white

fishy odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what do you think when you see KOH findings of “epithelial cells covered w. bacteria”

A

BV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what do you think when you see “clue cells”

A

BV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

tx for BV

A

metronidazole 500 mg bid x 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

t/f: pregnant women with BV can take metronidazole 500 mg bid x 7 days

A

t!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

tx for vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

fluconazole 200 mg bid x 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

discharge in vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

thick

white

curd like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

tx for trichomonas vaginitis

A

metronidazole 2 g PO one dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

discharge in trichomonas vaginalis

A

frothy

yellow-green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

PE finding consistent with trichomonas vaginalis

A

cervical petechiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

BV involves pH > __

and __ cells

A

4.5

clue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

mc bacteria associated with BV

A

gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

mc pathogen associated w. CAP

A

strep pneumo

also h.flu, klebsiella, staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

2 atypical pathogens associated w. CAP

A

legionella

mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

op tx for CAP

A

macrolide

OR

doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

inpt or high risk tx for CAP (significant PMH)

A

fluoroquinolone

OR

fluoroquinolone PLUS macrolide or doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

2 causes of hyperresonance to percussion of lungs

A

PTX

obstructive lung dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

3 PE findings associated with pleural effusion

A

dullness to percussion

decreased tactile remits

decreased breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what do you think when you see ECG with “brief 3 Hz spike and wave discharges”

A

absence sz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what do you think when you see ECG with “focal or lateralized sharp spikes and slow waves”

A

complex partial sz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

4 tx for focal sz

A

phenytoin

valproic acid

phenobarbital

lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

2 tx for absence sz

A

ethosuximide

valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

4 tx for tonic clonic sz

A

carbamazepine

phenobarbital

levetiracetam

phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

tx for status epilepticus

A

airway management

IV dex

IV benzo followed by IV phenytoin or fosphenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

3 phases of tonic clonic sz

A

tonic

clonic

postictal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

usually occurs in infancy and involves sudden flexion or extension of muscles

A

epileptic spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

single sz > 5 min

OR

2 or more sz w.in a 5 min periods w.o recovery between

A

status epilepticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

brief period of unilateral paralysis following a sz

A

Todd paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is this showing

A

orbital cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

orbital cellulitis involves infection of the (2)

A

fat

ocular muscles

not the globe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

how do you distinguish orbital cellulitis from preseptal cellulitis (3)

A

orbital cellulitis involves:

ophthalmoplegia

pain w. eye movement

proptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

CT findings of orbital cellulitis

A

inflammation of extra ocular muscles

fat stranding

anterior displacement of globe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

initial tx for orbital cellulitis

A

vanco

PLUS

ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

mc cause of orbital cellulitis

A

bacterial rhonosinusitis

also ophthalmologic surgery, orbital trauma, dacrocystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

t/f: preseptal cellulitis involves vision impairment

A

f!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

2 mc pathogens associated w. orbital cellulitis

A

staph

strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

definitions of neck strain from acute-chronic

A

acute: < 6 weeks
subacute: 6-12 weeks
chronic: > 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

lateral contraction of the neck, causing the head to tilt to one side with the chin rotated in the opposite direction

A

torticollis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

management of specific phobias

A
  1. CBT
  2. benzos
  3. SSRIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what type of therapy helps improve the ability to relate to others in an interpersonal way

A

psychodynamic psychotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

condition where the glans penis becomes inflamed

A

balanitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

inflammation of the distal foreskin

A

balanoposthisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

balanitis is mc in

A

uncircumcised pt’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

mc cause of balanitis

A

candidal infxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

which balanitis is associated w. reactive arthritis and presents with shallow ulcers on the glans

A

circinate balanitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

balanitis can result in what complication

A

phimosis or paraphimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

constricted foreskin can not be retracted over the glans

A

phimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

constricted foreskin is retracted over the glans and can not be reduced

A

paraphimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

3 tx for candidal balanitis

A

topical imidazole

nystatin cream

oral fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

tx for bacterial balanitis

A

topical metronidazole

oral augmenting

topical clinda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what do you think when you see a pt with a painful pruritic glans penis, with small erythematous lesions and thick foul-smelling d.c

A

balanitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what do you think when you see a pt with a painful pruritic glans penis, with small erythematous lesions and thick foul-smelling d.c

A

balanitis

130
Q

penile deformity 2/2 to fibrosis of the tunica albuginea that causes abnormal penile curvature and pain during erection

A

peyronie dz

131
Q

reactive arthritis triad

A

conjunctivitis

urethritis

arthritis

can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree

132
Q

inflammation of the glans penis AND the foreskin

A

balanoposthisis

133
Q

what lung condition do you think of when you see asbestos exposure: insulation, flooring, paint cement

A

mesothelioma

134
Q

what do you think when you see: pleural opacities in the lower lungs in a multi nodular pattern

A

mesothelioma

135
Q

mc type of malignant mesothelioma

A

pleural mesothelioma

136
Q

4 clinical signs of mesothelioma

A

age > 60

present decades after exposure

gradually worsening, nonspecific sx

pleural effusion

137
Q

environmental lung disorder common in workers exposed to silica

A

silicosis

138
Q

mainstay of BPH tx

A

alpha 1 adrenergic antagonists→ the -osins

ex tamsulosin, doxazosin

139
Q

which class of BPH drug reduces the size of the prostate and improves symptoms

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitors → -sterides

ex finasteride, dutasteride

140
Q

4 types of drugs used to treat BPH

A

alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists → zosin

5 alpha reductase inhibitors → steride

anticholinergics → ex oxybutinin

phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors → ex tadalafil

141
Q

common s.e of tadalafil

A

HA

abd pain

muscle pain

stuffy nose

flushing

142
Q

what do you think when you see PE findings of “smooth, firm, mobile prostate without any nodules or indurations.”

A

BPH

143
Q

BPH is mc in which zone

A

transitional

144
Q

surgery for BPH

A

TURP

145
Q

which bacterial diarrhea is associated with dysentery

A

shiga toxin

146
Q

first line tx for shigella

A

azithromycin

ciprofloxacin

147
Q

tx for girardia

A

metronidazole

148
Q

tx for entamoeba histolytica

A

metronidazole

149
Q

which shigella species is associated with reactive arthritis

A

shigella flexneri

150
Q

presentation of shigellosis

A

fever

bloody mucoid diarrhea

seizures (kids)

151
Q

labs for shigellosis will show (2)

A

RBCs

WBCs

152
Q

complications of shigellosis

A

HUS

reactive arthritis

153
Q

mc symptom of menopause

A

hot flashes

154
Q

definition of menopause

A

no menstrual cycle x 12 consecutive months w.o any pathologic cause

155
Q

menopause is characterized by decreased __

and increased __

A

estrogen

FSH

156
Q

dx to consider for women experiencing sx of menopause who are younger than the average age of onset

A

hyperprolactinemia

157
Q

t/f: weight gain is typically associated w. menopause

A

f!

158
Q

2 mc pathogens associated w. otitis media

A

h. flu

strep pneumo

159
Q

tx for acute otitis media in Peds < 24 mo

A

amoxicillin

160
Q

when can you consider obs as tx for acute otitis media

A

kids 24 mo or older

unilateral AOM w. mild symptoms < 48 hr duration

no fever or otorrhea

161
Q

when is augmentin considered first line tx for AOM

A

pt has had beta lactam abx in the last 30 days

recurrent AOM

concomitant purulent conjunctivitis

162
Q

abx tx for AOM if pt has anaphylactic reaction to amoxicillin

A

azithromycin

OR

clindamycin

163
Q

3 mc identifiable causes of interstitial lung dz

A

occupational and environmental agents

drug induced

radiation induced

164
Q

med notorious for causing interstitial lung dz

A

amiodarone

165
Q

2 PE findings of interstitial lung dz

A

crackles

clubbing

166
Q

PFT findings of interstitial lung dz

A

restrictive pattern →

reduced FVC and total lung capacity

normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio

167
Q

gs test for interstitial lung dz

A

CT

168
Q

CT findings of interstitial lung dz

A

ground glass opacities

honeycombing

reticular opacities

reticulonodular opacities

169
Q

what does bilateral hilar adenopathy make you think of

A

sarcoidosis

170
Q

what do pleural plaques make you think of

A

asbestos related pulmonary dz

171
Q

what type of ventilatory pattern is seen with asthma

A

obstructive

172
Q

recommended dose of APAP in kids

A

10-15 mg/kg/dose

173
Q

max dose of APAP in kids

A

90 mg/kg/day

174
Q

emergent care should be administered if APAP dose exceeds

A

200 mg/kg

OR

10 g total

x 24 hr

175
Q

tx protocol for peds APAP overdose

A
  1. activated charcoal at 1 g/kg
  2. serum APAP level at least 4 hr after ingestion and then q 1-2 hr
  3. N-acetylcysteine if probable toxicity
176
Q

when might endoscopy or surgery be indicated in a toxic ingestion

A

heavy metals

pharmacobezoar

illicit drug

177
Q

2 most effective drugs for smoking cessation

A
  1. varenicline
  2. bupropion
178
Q

contraindication for bupropion

A

sz disorder

179
Q

3 first line tx for smoking cessation

A

NRT (nicotine replacement therapy)

bupropion

varenicine

180
Q

second line tx for smoking cessation

A

nortriptyline

combo bupropion PLUS NRT

clonidine

181
Q

contraindication for verenicline for smoking cessation

A

pmanic dpn

schizophrenia

etoh abuse

182
Q

when do nicotine withdrawal sx peak

A

3 days

183
Q

2 tx for hyperthyroidism

A

methimazole

propylthiouracil

184
Q

which drug for hyperthyroidism is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy

A

methimazole

185
Q

tx for hyperthyroidism in first trimester of pregnancy

A

PTU

p for pregnant

186
Q

pathogens commonly associated w. pyelonephritis

A

e coli

pseudo

enterobacter

proteus

klebsiella

187
Q

op tx for pyelonephritis

A

fluoroquinolone

bactrim

188
Q

parenteral tx for pyelonephritis

A

ceftriaxone

fluoroquinolone

189
Q

parenteral tx for severe pyelonephritis

A

cefepime

zosyn

meropenem

190
Q

what type of bacteria is the mc cause of acute prostatitis

A

gram negative

mc e.coli

191
Q

2 high intensity statins

A

atorvastatin 40-80mg

rosuvastatin 20-40mg

192
Q

moderate intensity statins

A

lovastatin 40-80mg

pravastatin 40-80mg

simvastatin 20-40mg

atorvastatin 10-20mg

rosuvastatin 5-10mg

193
Q

low intensity statins

A

pravastatin 10-20 mg

lovastatin 20 mg

fluvastatin 20-40 mg

simvastatin 10 mg

194
Q

3 common s.e of statins

A

myopathy, rhabdo

hepatic dysfunction

kidney dysfunction

195
Q

what is Levine sign and what does it make you think of

A

clenched fist over midchest

stable angina

196
Q

stable angina sx last <

A

15 min

197
Q

angina > __ is suggestive of MI

A

15 min

198
Q

ECG in asymptomatic angina pt

A

normal

199
Q

ECG findings of symptomatic angina

A

horizontal or down sloping ST segment depression

T wave flattening or inversion

200
Q

only antianginal med shown to improve mortality in pt’s with CAD

A

beta blockers

201
Q

first line tx for pt’s with chronic stable angina

A

beta blockers

202
Q

all tx for stable angina

A

nitro

long acting nitrates (isosorbide, dinitrate)

beta blockers

ranolazine

203
Q

2 meds used to alleviate angina

A

beta blockers

ranolazine

204
Q

tx for CAD

A

daily ASA

high intensity statin

205
Q

chest discomfort precipitated by activity

sx abate after activity

A

stable angina

206
Q

ischemic sx suggestive for ACS

+/- ECG changes indicative of ischemia

A

unstable angina

207
Q

troponin elevation

subendocardial ischemia

ST depressions

A

NSTEMI

208
Q

troponin elevation

transmural ischemia

ST elevation

A

STEMI

209
Q

coronary artery vasospasms

nonexertional symptomatic myocardial ischemia

transient ST elevation that resolves w.sx

inverted U waves

normal cardiac enzymes

absence of CAD

A

prinzmetal angina

210
Q

primary rf for prinzmetal angina

A

smoking

211
Q

when do prinzmetal sx typically occur

A

AM

212
Q

which reflex originates in the cardiac sensory receptors and promotes PSNS activity resulting in bradycardia, vasodilation, hypotn

A

bezold-jarisch reflex

213
Q

pathogen that causes TB

A

tuberculosis myobacterium

214
Q

test if pt is at high risk for TB exposure

A

PPD

followed by chest XR based on induration measurement

215
Q

primary TB usually causes consolidation in which lung lobe

A

middle or lower

216
Q

reactivated TB shows cavitary lesions in which lung field

A

apices

217
Q

blood test for TB

A

IGRA → interferon gamma release assay

218
Q

t/f: IgA test for TB can differentiate between latent and active infxn

A

f!

219
Q

gs for active TB infxn

A

culture of acid fast bacilli bacteria from respiratory secretions

220
Q

tx for active TB

A

RIPE →

rifampin

isoniazid

pyrazinamide

ethambutol

221
Q

latent TB tx

A

isoniazid PLUS pyridoxine x 9 mo

rifampin x 4 mo

222
Q

which RIPE drug is associated w. higher rates of hepatitis

A

isoniazid

223
Q

colon ca screening rec for pt with fam hx of colon ca

A

10 yers before the age at which first-degree relative was diagnosed with colon ca

224
Q

who should be screened earlier than 45 yo for colon ca (3)

A

personal or strong fam hx

adenomatous polyps

fam hx of hereditary syndrome

225
Q

colon ca recs for pt 45-75 yo

A

annual fecal occult blood test OR sigmoidoscopy q 3-5 years

OR

colonoscopy q 10 years

226
Q

pt’s should not be screened for colon ca past __ yo

A

85

227
Q

which criteria are used to identify pt’s who are at increased risk for Lynch syndrome

A

Amsterdam

228
Q

which 2 pathogens cause most cases of fungal external otitis

A

aspergillus

candida

229
Q

mc cause of fungal otitis externa

A

abx tx for bacterial otitis externa

230
Q

what do you think when you see: deep seeded itching, discomfort, otorrhea, foreign body sensation

A

fungal otitis externa

231
Q

what is this showing

A

otomycosis →

mass of epithelial cells containing hyphae

232
Q

what do you think when you see fine coal dust or wet newspaper like material on otoscopic exam

A

aspergilus infxn

233
Q

what do you think when you see: white sebaceous-like pseudomembrane lining the ear canal

A

candidal infxn

234
Q

tx for otomycosis

A

topical clotrimazole 1% bid x 10-14 days

235
Q

what class of medication used to treat otitis externa should be avoided in the presence of TM perforation

A

aminoglycosides

236
Q

risk factor for otomycosis

A

humid climate

ear wax

ear surgery

topical steroids

oral abx

237
Q

3 pathogens commonly associated w. PID

A

chlamydia trachoma’s

Neisseria gonorrhoaea

trichomonas

238
Q

major criteria for PID

A

lower and pain in pops w. rf

PLUS

uterine tenderness

OR

adnexal tenderness

OR

cervical motion tenderness

239
Q

minor criteria for PID

A

fever > 38

abnormal vaginal d.c

positive culture for gonorrhea or trich

elevated CRP or ESR

240
Q

op tx for PID

A

ceftriaxone 500 mg IM

PLUS

doxy 100 mg po bid x 14 days

PLUS

metronidazole 500 mg po bid x 14 days

241
Q

inpatient tx for PID

A

cefotetan 2 gm IV q 12 hr x 14 days

PLUS

doxy 100 mg po/iv q 12 hr

242
Q

tx for PID in pregnant pt

A

IV ceftriaxone

PLUS

azithromycin instead of doxy

243
Q

mc cause of PID

A

chlamydia trachomatis

244
Q

perihepatitis

PLUS

PID

A

fitz hugh curtis syndrome

245
Q

2 mc psychiatric disorders associated w. bulimia

A

unipolar dpn

specific phobia

246
Q

management of bulimia (3)

A

nutritional rehab

CBT

fluoxetine

247
Q

what emetic is often misused by pt w. bulimia

A

syrup of ipecac

248
Q

DSM5 for bulimia

A

recurrent binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behavior at least once a week x 3 months

249
Q

triad of bulimia

A

caloric restriction

binge eating

self induced vomiting

250
Q

HTN guidelines

A

normal: <120/80
elevated: 120-129 AND <80

stage 1: 130-139 OR 80-90

stage 2: 140 or higher OR 90 or higher

HTN crisis: 180 or higher OR 120 or higher

251
Q

which CCB is the only one with established safety in pt w. severe heart failure

A

amlodipine

252
Q

2 forms of diabetic retinopathy

A

proliferative

nonproliferative

253
Q

variable display of nerve fiber layer infarcts (cotton wool spots)

intraretinal hemorrhages

hard exudates

microvascular abnormalities primarily in macula and posterior retina

absence of abnormal new bv emanating from the retina

A

nonproliferative retinopathy

254
Q

neovascularization arising from the disc or retinal vessels

pre retinal and vitreous hemorrhage

fibrosis

retinal detachment

A

proliferative retinopathy

255
Q

bp goals for pt with concurrent DM and HTN

A

<140/<90

256
Q

classification of dysmenorrhea

A

primary

secondary

membranous

257
Q

causes of secondary dysmenorrhea

A

endometriosis

PID

IUD

258
Q

passage of endometrial cast through the cervix

A

membranous dysmenorrhea

259
Q

rf for primary dysmenorrhea (no organic cause)

A

age < 30 yo

menarche before 12 yo

tobacco use

low BMI

longer or irregular menstrual cycles

hx of sexual assault

260
Q

triad of endometriosis

A

dysmenorrhea

dyschezia

dyspareunia

261
Q

t/f: pain with endometriosis occurs outside of menstrual cycle

A

t!

262
Q

t/f: leiomyoma is not typically associated w. pain

A

t!

it is associated with heavy menstrual bleeding

263
Q

first line tx for primary dysmenorrhea

A

NSAIDs

264
Q

hormonal therapy for primary dysmenorrhea

A

estrogen-progestin contraceptives

265
Q

innocent murmurs occur in kids ages

A

2-7

266
Q

mc type of innocent murmur

A

still

267
Q

what do you think when you see: soft, high pitched crescendo-decrescendo murmur during mid systole along the left sternal border in a kid aged 2-7

A

still murmur

268
Q

qualities of innocent murmurs

A

no radiation

vibratory/musical

quiet precordium

normal S1

no additional heart sounds

269
Q

PE technique to identify innocent murmurs

A

standing maneuver

270
Q

for an innocent murmur, the standing maneuver results in

A

decrease in both aortic stenosis murmur

AND

decrease in innocent murmur

271
Q

characteristics of pathologic murmurs

A

grade 3 or higher

holosystolic

max intensity at left upper sternal border

harsh or blowing quality

systolic click

abnormal heart sounds

diastolic

increased intensity with upright position

gallops

friction rub

272
Q

handgrip test can identify which type of murmur

A

mitral regurgitation

273
Q

the squatting maneuver affects __

and increases which murmur

A

preload

aortic stenosis

274
Q

4 causes of mid systolic murmurs

A

innocent murmurs of childhood

HOCM

aortic stenosis

pulmonic stenosis

275
Q

patients who recently had a stent placed should be prescribed what 2 meds

A

dual anti platelet therapy for NSTEMI →

ASA

P2Y inhibitor → tricagrelor OR clopidogrel

276
Q

what are macrophages called after ingesting LDL at the site of a fatty acid streak

A

foam cells

277
Q

what do you think when you see: sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, and blood cell casts

A

glomerulonephritis

278
Q

nephritic syndromes

A

post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

IgA nephropathy

Alport syndrome

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

279
Q

presentation of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

HTN

periorbital edema

peripheral edema

oliguria

280
Q

dx for post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

antistreptolysin O titers OR evidence of a recent GAS skin or pharyngeal infxn

low serum complement

azotemia

hematuria, RBC, proteinuria

281
Q

tx for post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

penicillin OR erythromycin if active strep infxn

supportive care: loop diuretics, nifedipine/nicardipine

dialysis if severe

282
Q

post streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs __ after pharyngitis infxn

and __ after skin infxn

A

pharyngitis: 1-2 weeks
skin: 3-6 weeks

283
Q

what do you think when you see: asymptomatic, persistent microscopic hematuria, bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, ocular defects

A

alport syndrome

284
Q

mc cause of acute glomerulonephritis worldwide

A

IgA nephropathy

285
Q

what do you think when you see: gross hematuria, flank pain, rash, arthralgia, abdominal pain in young adult within 2 days of a respiratory or GI infxn

A

IgA nephropathy

286
Q

which cytoplasmic abs are associated with polyangitis

A

perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic (pANCA)

287
Q

granulomatosis with polyangitis affects the small and medium sized vessels of the

A

ear

nose

throat

lungs

kidneys

288
Q

which drug is used to for tx and prevention of vertebral fx in osteoporosis pt

A

SERM → raloxifene

289
Q

which 2 drugs can be used to treat vertebral AND non vertebral fx in osteoporosis pt’s

A

parathyroid hormone → teriparatide

human monoclonal abs → denosumab

290
Q

4 antiresorptive drugs for OP

A

bisphosphanates → “dronates” and zoledronic acid

calcitonin

SERMs → raloxifene

monoclonal abs → denosumab

291
Q

bone forming drug used in OP

A

parathyroid hormone → teriparatide

292
Q

first line drug for OP if pt can not tolerate bisphosphonate

A

raloxifene

293
Q

dx for OP is done using __

A

DEXA

294
Q

T scores for OP

A

osteopenia: -1.0 to -2.5
osteoporosis: -2.5 or less

295
Q

mc OP fx

A

vertebral body compression fx

296
Q

common PE findings of PAD

A

diminished/absent pulses

bruits

skin and nail changes

ulcers at tips of toes, between digits

297
Q

pt’s w. PAD may have pallor with __

followed by rumor with __

A

LE elevation

lowering extremity

298
Q

mc site of intermittent claudication/pain in PAD patient

A

calf

299
Q

what confirmatory test is recommended after a pt has had a positive TB screen

A

IGRA

300
Q

when should a pt get a CXR for TB screening

A

if skin and blood tests are positive

301
Q

when is 5 or higher considered positive for a skin TB test

A

HIV (+)

recent contact

CXR changes

organ transplant

immunosuppressed

302
Q

when is > 10 considered positive for TB skin test

A

recent antivirals

IVDU

myobacteriology lab workers

high congregate settings

comorbidities

<90% IBW

Peds < 5 yo

high risk infants, kids, adolescents

303
Q

TB skin test results for pt with no known rf

A

15 or higher

304
Q

the __ maneuver diagnoses BPPV

the __ maneuver treats BPPV

A

diagnose: dix-hallpike
treat: epley

305
Q

which type of nystagmus is bad and suggestive of a central issue

A

vertical

306
Q

what do you think when you see: sudden onset of sensation of room spinning that is triggered by positional changes of the head lasting seconds to minutes

A

BPPV

307
Q

pathogen associated w. IVDU endocarditis

valve associated w. IVDU endocarditis

A

staph

tricuspid

308
Q

pathogen associated with non IVDU endocarditis

valve associated w. non IVDU endocarditis

A

staph, strep viridians

mitral

309
Q

contraindications for contraceptives containing estrogen

A

increased risk for thromboembolitic events:

>35 yo

smokers

recent leg trauma

sedentary lifestyle

310
Q

2 types of progesterone only contraception

A

norethindrone

levonorgestrel

311
Q

risk of what 2 types of cancers are reduced by using OCP

A

ovarian

endometrial

312
Q

what lifestyle change leads to the greatest reduction in bp

A

weight loss

313
Q

which 2 patient pops with HTN should not increase dietary potassium to lower bp

A

those taking K+ sparing diuretics

those with CKD

314
Q

4 types of melanoma

A

superficial spreading

nodular

lentigo maligna

acral lentiginous

315
Q

mc subtype of melanoma

A

superficial spreading

316
Q

what do you think when you see: flat macule or slightly raised discolored plaque with irregular borders

A

superficial spreading melanoma

317
Q

superficial melanoma is mc found on the __ in women

and on the __ in men

A

women: legs
men: trunk

318
Q

subtype of melanoma that mc affects AA pops

A

acral lentiginous

319
Q

subtype of melanoma that mc affects chronically sum damaged areas in older pops

A

lentigo maligna

320
Q

type of melanoma that has a uniform color, symmetric border, and small diameter

A

nodular

321
Q

second mc subtype of melanoma

A

nodular

322
Q
A

enteric coated ASA

aluminum hydroxide gel

sucralfate

psyllium gel

cholestyramine

EOR: Family Med (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions