RO1 - S.6 - Principles & Rules as set out in the regulatory framework Flashcards

1
Q

When would a firm be exempt from applying for Part 4a permission for regulatory authorisation to operate?

A

When they are an Appointed Representative of a network, they operate on the networks license

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2
Q

what does SM&CR stand for?

A

Senior Management & Certification Regime

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3
Q

What are the three categories the FCA use for SM&CR firms?

A

Enhanced firms - highest impact & first to embed
Core firms - mass market firms and second to embed
Limited scope firms - lightest touch regulation needed and last to embed SM&CR

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4
Q

What did the SMF functions replace when SM&CR was brought in?

A

Controlled Functions

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5
Q

What are the three different types of SMFs under SM&CR?

A

1) Governing (CEO SMF1)
2) Required by statute ( SMF16 Compliance oversight)
3) Systems & controls (Internal Audit head)

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6
Q

Who does the Certification regime apply to?

A

Material risk takers within the firm e.g financial advisers

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7
Q

Who does the Senior Managers Regime apply to?

A

Most senior members in the firm with a statutory duty of responsibility

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8
Q

Who do senior managers need to be pre approved by before carrying out their roles?

A

The FCA

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9
Q

Who is required to identify and assess those on an ongoing basis who are subject to the certification regime?

A

The authorised firm

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10
Q

Who do the conduct rules apply to?

A

The majority of staff within an authorised firm

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11
Q

Which rules apply to an Appointed Representative who works for an SM&CR firm?

A

The APER (Approved Persons Regime)

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12
Q

What is a tied agent?

A

An Appointed Representative working for an authorised firm

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13
Q

What is a controlled function?

A

A certified role equivalent for ARs, for advisers undertaking a customer facing controlled function (CF30) but assessed under APER as opposed to SM&CR

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14
Q

What are the 3 key areas of SM&CR?

A

1) Senior Managers Regime
2) Certification Regime
3) Conduct Rules

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15
Q

For how long to Non-Mifid firms have to keep records?

A

3 years

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16
Q

For how long do MIFID firms have to keep records for?

A

5 years

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17
Q

For what types of products do records have to be kept indefinitely?

A

Pension Transfers & opt out, Free standing additional voluntary contributions

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18
Q

Through what system do firms have to provide FCA reports through?

A

GABRIEL

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19
Q

When do reports have to be sent in to the FCA?

A

Within 30 days of the reporting date

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20
Q

Give 2 examples of when the FCA would need to be immediately notified

A

1) Insolvency
2) Core changes to key personnel
3) Significant breach of principles
4) Incorrect information submitted to regulator

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21
Q

How many hours of CPD do advisers need to complete a year, how much of this should be structured?

A

35 hrs, 21 should be structuredq

22
Q

How long do new advisers have to pass the appropriate level 4 qualification when entering the industry?

23
Q

For how long do firms need to keep records for AML training?

24
Q

What 2 pieces of information need to be obtained as a minimum before onboarding clients?

A

their name and their adress

25
Under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002, what is the potential punishment for failing to keep records?
2 years imprisonment
26
Under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002, what is the potential punishment for failing to disclose?
5 years imprisonment
27
Under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002, what is the potential punishment for helping money laundering?
14 years imprisonment
28
When did GDPR come in to effect in the UK and which statute brought it in?
2018 through the Data Protection Act 2018
29
Under GDPR, what is the rule of lawful processing?
Firms need a defined process about how data is handled
30
Name 3 rights which were brought in for data subjects under GDPR
Right of access, right to be informed, right to rectify, erase & object
31
How much of global turnover can the ICO fine if a firm breaches data protection rules?
4%
32
In how many days can a rapid resolution complaint be resolved in?
3 days
33
When do complaints have to be acknowledged within?
5 days
34
How many weeks should a firm provide a final response to a complaint within?
8 weeks
35
How many complaints per year would require firms to disclose their complaints statistics to the public?
500+
36
Which Act brought in the Financial Ombudsman Service (FOS) ?
FSMA 2000
37
How is the FOS funded?
Paid for by FCA levy
38
What is the maximum monetary award the FOS can instruct firms to pay out?
£430k
39
Which Act brought in the Financial Services Compensation Scheme (FSCS)?
FSMA 2000
40
Which 3 areas are covered by FSCS?
Cash deposits Insurance contracts Investment business
41
How much is covered under FSCS for insurance contracts & investment business?
- Insurance contracts - 100% of the claim w no upper limit - Investment business – 100% of the claim up to £85k
42
How much will the FSCS cover under the temporary high balances rule?
Up to £1m from date of deposit for up to 6 months
43
Name the 3 circumstances which would be covered by the temporary high balances rule
house sales, divorces, lottery wins
44
What type of pension schemes do the Pensions Regulator regulate?
Work based pensions schemes
45
How much can TPR fine trustees and firms?
Trustees - £5k Firms £50k
46
what is the remit of the Money and Pensions Service (MAPS)?
To provide guidance re money, debt & pensions
47
What is the pensions advisory service and what body does sit sit under?
there to provide independent guidance around pensions – free for public and helped by DWP - sits under MPAS
48
What is Pension Wise?
Available to those over 50, free service which provides info on drawing pension benefits
49
What is the Pensions Ombudsman Service and who funds it?
POS is Pensions version of FOS for pension administration/ maladministration – directly funded by DWP through Pensions regulator levy
50
What is the The Pension protection fund (PPF) and how is it funded?
There to help as compensation when DB pensions go in to insolvency – funded by levies on firms which operate DB schemes
51