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RNAV Flashcards

1
Q

Frequency of VOR

A

112.1Mhz

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2
Q

ILS Frequency

A

109.3

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3
Q

Guidance in vertical and navigation in Horizontal

A

3D

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4
Q

ILS localised deviate beyond unacceptable limits, nav component will

A

Automatically be removed

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5
Q

Q code for beating from station to aircraft

A

QDR

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6
Q

Aircraft flown by autopilot, directed by FMS during coupled ILS app, FMS/Autopilot will

A

Continue descent through any FMS or pilot selected altitude restrictions to the MINIMUM APP ALTITUDE unless pilot MANUALLY intervene

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7
Q

Percentage of time for NAV performance to be met

A

95

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8
Q

Special position ident

A

Pressing ident button

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9
Q

Freq of radio wave

A

No. of radio waves cycles generated in one second (Hz)

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10
Q

Doppler VORs

A

Reduce VOR site errors

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11
Q

Comparing PSR and SSR

A

PSR requires more power

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12
Q

Bearing VDF gives at ground station when 2 aircrafts transmit simultaneously on same freq

A

Bearing proportional to the relative signal

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13
Q

Components of ILS

A

Localiser, Glidepath, Marker/DME

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14
Q

EHSI expanded VOR mode, what is the info displayed

A

W/V 103/20, HDG 130M

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15
Q

LAAS is … precisely sited at the Aerodrome which

A

Detects error and sends coordinate correction to aircraft

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16
Q

NDB failure

A

No visual warning

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17
Q

How does aircraft/DME station differentiate from signals from other aircrafts

A

Send irregular sequences of pulses that differential aircrafts

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18
Q

Given EHSI diagram (Exp VOR), what is the selected heading but and selected course

A

Heading 103M and Course selected 165M

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19
Q

When interrogated, Transponder reply

A

Coded signals

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20
Q

Some DME, as well as distance, provides

A

…

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21
Q

What is included in Performance Database for RNAV

A

Take off speeds, flight envelope, optimum altitude and speed etc

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22
Q

Mode S can respond to interrogation from Mode A and C, reason being? Of the following, which ground based VHF DF applications are still in use

A

ATC Identification, Aircraft Homing, Emergency Location Fixo

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23
Q

What determines Minimum Range

A

Pulse Length

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24
Q

Mode S needs to be compatible with Mode A and C. Why

A

Allows all aircraft to be used in Non-S mode areas

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25
Q

Map mode was shown on HSI with heading 060. VERDA VORTAC was shown on the map at roughly 030 to the left of AC. Qn asked what will be the heading to go to VERDA

A

030 as required

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26
Q

Response from transponder

A

Coded signal

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27
Q

Ground wave + sky waves

A

LF, MF

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28
Q

Inputs to a 4D RNAV system include the

A

Aircraft Heading from the Aircraft Inertial Reference System (AIRS)

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29
Q

Performance DB in FMS contains

A

Takeoff V speeds, thrust confit, flight envelope

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30
Q

GLONASS orbit height and inclination

A

19100km, 64.8degrees from equator

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31
Q

Difference between service area and coverage area

A

Service area determined by GROUND component, Coverage Area is determined by SATELLITE component

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32
Q

You are a distance away from VOR station and you notice your VOR needle if flucting left and right. What is a possible cause?

A

Terrain Effect

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33
Q

How does aircraft/DME station differentiate from signals from other aircraft

A

Pulse pair unique

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34
Q

Transponder transmit a reply

A

Coded Reply

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35
Q

FMC performance database includes

A

Similar options but include ENGINE CHARACTERISTICS, FUEL FLOW PARAMETERS and FLIGHT ENVELOPE DATA

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36
Q

Which of the following are transmitted by Sky wave and Surface Wave

A

LF and MF

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37
Q

Main components of SBAS

A

Space segment, ground segment, user segment

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38
Q

What does LAAS do

A

Uses GROUND site to measure ERRORS and pass coordinate information to aircraft

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39
Q

What is contained in aircraft navigational database

A

Aerodrome info, SID, STAR, runway dimensions, CAN BE CUSTOMISED for include company routes

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40
Q

What is modulation

A

Process of adding info to carrier wave

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41
Q

How does VDF determine aircraft position in emergency

A

At least 3 VDF stations providing bearing info to provide a fix: triangulation

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42
Q

What is contained in Aircraft performance database

A

Flight envelope data, Fuel flow parameters, engine characteristics

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43
Q

Polarisation of electromagnetic waves

A

Electric field

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44
Q

Enroute CDI deviation

A

2nm right of track

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45
Q

ILS marker with 400Hz tone

A

Outer marker

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46
Q

ILS marker with 1300Hz tone

A

Middle marker

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47
Q

Colour of ILS middle marker

A

Amber

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48
Q

SSR Mode A sequence of 4 digits that allows

A

4096 possible combinations

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49
Q

ILS course deviation bar on EFHI is magenta. What do you do?

A

Nothing. Course deviation bar is always magenta

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50
Q

Homing to NDB and magnetic heading increasing. Experiencing

A

Left drift

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51
Q

Track made good

A

Track you are currently on, depicted by WHITE ARROW on top

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52
Q

Range of AWR 40NM, peninsular detected - 180T 15000ft. Approximate range and relative bearing

A

15NM 230 degrees

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53
Q

Figure of DGI showing 275 degree
Figure of RBI showing 075 degree
Aircraft maintaining track of 280M, allowing for 5deg drift.
A new station is tuned and the ADF displays as indicated. Aircraft reaches new waypoint, where the station is at 010M, what will be the new relative heading?

A

095R

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54
Q

Q code for TRUE bearing from VOR

A

QTE

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55
Q

CGI shows 4 dot fly left indication.

If aircraft is 120NM away from VOR, how far off is it from the intended track?

A

16NM RIGHT of track

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56
Q

How does Mode S ensures unambiguous identification

A

Each aircraft has unique 24 bit address identification

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57
Q

Principal of ops of DME - The signal is sent at a frequency difference of

A

63mHz higher or lower than interrogation signal

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58
Q

How is Special Position Identifier (SPI) on SSR is used

A

To discriminate aircraft with same coding

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59
Q

Which equation represents range of VOR signal

A

R = 1.25 X sqrt(ht of aircraft) X sqrt(ht of transmitter)

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60
Q

Approx max number of aircraft that can use a DME beacon at any one time

A

100

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61
Q

If freq is halved, eg from 300 to 150, the wavelength,

A

Is doubled

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62
Q

Mode S allows exchange of info between

A

Ground to air, Air to ground, Air to Air

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63
Q

What function does ATC relies of primary radar

A

Traffic separation, Approach Guidance, Weather phenomenon identification

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64
Q

How Long should a dipole antenna be

A

Half of wavelength

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65
Q

A radial is obtained by VOR signal by

A

Comparing the phase of two 30Hz signals

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66
Q

Aircraft radio develops a fault that prevents any modulated transmission being encoded into the carrier wave. Aircraft radio can still be used for limited communication by pressing the transmit button in the series of Dots and Dashes. This process is referred to as

A

Keying

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67
Q

Range of radar can be increased by Super refraction. With radar Super refraction target will be visible

A

Beyond normal line of sight due to the downwards refraction of radio waves by refraction

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68
Q

Which frequency band does DME utilises

A

UHF

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69
Q

Electromagnetic radiation, aircraft current being passed through, electric field?

A

Electric field parallel to wire, Magnetic field perpendicular

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70
Q

RBI indicator: which shows the correct track

A

Shows aircraft on VOR radial of 180, but heading 170. Asked which is the correct indication of relative bearing. Choose the one pointing South and slightly left.

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71
Q

What is sensitive area

A

Where aircraft and vehicles movement are controlled to prevent interference during Low vis ops

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72
Q

What happens when localiser frequency drops to zero

A

Be indicated by the warning flag on HIS or similar instrument

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73
Q

Warning shown on flight deck when ILS is not received?

A

Warning flag on HIS or similar instrument/ILS receiver

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74
Q

Advantage of MLS

A

Terrain does not affect MLS

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75
Q

How does modern VHF DF determine bearing of aircraft

A

Using fixed loop and sense antenna similar to modern ADF

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76
Q

Marker freq of 400Hz

A

Outer marker

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77
Q

Marker freq of 3000Hz

A

Inner Marker

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78
Q

Marker freq of 1300Hz

A

Middle Marker

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79
Q

Colour of outer marker

A

Blue

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80
Q

NDB relative bearing from aircraft is zero. If the heading is increasing when aircraft flies, what type of drift is aircraft experiencing.

A

Left Drift

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81
Q

What does Locator NDB do

A

Low powered NDB used in airfield or runway approach procedures

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82
Q

Heading 60deg, Track 52 deg.

What will heading be if tracking to navaid which is 30deg from plane

A

38deg

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83
Q

What is coverage of localiser from 20NM

A

10deg of centreline

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84
Q

When using elementary surveillance, what is the ATS format being used

A

ICAO format

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85
Q

What is the propagation wave called when it is used to modulate and carry info with it?

A

Carrier Wave

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86
Q

Aircraft 24 bit mode S transponder code

A

Is hard coded into the aircraft at manufacture

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87
Q

In what way is Doppler radar better than conventional

A

Able to identify wind shear

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88
Q

If civil DME receiver is tuned to receive TACAN or VORTAC

A

Full DME info will be available to all civil DME stations

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89
Q

Rate of descent of 3deg glideslope, Groundspeed 145kts

A

725fpm

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90
Q

Which of the limitations apply to CAT II ILS

A

DH lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft, RVR not less than 300m

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91
Q

Effect of coastal refraction on NDB signal

A

Cause aircraft to be nearer to the shore than actual position

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92
Q

When using a conventional VOR to track on VOR radial, influence of crosswind will

A

Required aircraft heading to be offset in the number of degrees required to maintain CDI in the centre

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93
Q

Night effect most pronounced at what timing

A

Dusk and Dawn

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94
Q

What will be displayed when radar CDU set to Wx + T

A

Weather and Turbulence

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95
Q

How differentiate transmit and reply of DME

A

Difference of 63MHz

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96
Q

DME determines Slant range by

A

Converting time offsets between transmission and reception signals to distance

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97
Q

VOR monitoring systems will detect failure in VOR station by measuring

A

Signal strength and any change in radials being broadcasted

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98
Q

Properties of NONA1A

A

When using NONA1A beacons, BFO should be selected ON for manual tuning, identification and monitoring

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99
Q

Function of airborne radar gain control

A

To adjust receiver sensitivity

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100
Q

In a FMS, which uses DME

A

FMS automatically corrects for slant errors

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101
Q

Doppler operates on the principle that the return signal from a radar pulse transmitted ahead of the aircraft will have

A

Increase in frequency directly proportional to aircraft ground speed

102
Q

International Telco Union classifies radio waves with 3 symbols. First symbol indicates

A

Type of modulation of main carrier

103
Q

A microwave landing system utilises

A

A time referenced scanning beam in the SHF band

104
Q

VOR/Localiser receivers antennas are mounted on aircraft approx in a horizontal position. This indicates VOR/Localiser transmission

A

Are horizontally polarised

105
Q

ADF accuracy is

A

Reduced at night due to the disappearance of the ionosphere D region

106
Q

What does the bearing of the head of the needle indicate with a fixed card ADF

A

Relative bearing of aircraft from NDB

107
Q

Aircraft heading 220M, RBI indicates 010, what is the magnetic bearing from NDB to aircraft?

A

050

108
Q

Effect of coastal refraction can be reduced by

A

Taking bearing from NDB stations close to 90deg to coastline, as signal bends most from angles furthest away from perpendicular to the coastline

109
Q

Max range to expect from VOR at Sea level and aircraft 6000ft AMSL

A

97NM

110
Q

VOR frequency

A

112.9mHz

111
Q

5 basic types of VOR in service, one of them

A

Doppler VOR

112
Q

Commercial aircraft normally obtains DME signal by

A

Selecting appropriate paired VOR Frequency

113
Q

Ground distance from DME station when aircraft is 33000ft and slant range of 7.5nm

A

5.2nm

114
Q

Ground speed calculated by DME equipment most accurate when tracking

A

Directly towards or away from the ground station

115
Q

Components of ILS that provides info in the vertical plane

A

Glidepath

116
Q

Main disadvantage of SSR over PSR

A

Aircraft must carry and operate a transponder to be seen outside PSR coverage

117
Q

SSR fruiting is

A

Interference at one interrogator caused by replies from a transponder to interrogations from one another

118
Q

When ANT STAB is switched to on and aircraft radar control panel is selected to on, the antenna is stabilised with respect to

A

Horizon

119
Q

Which of the following frequency used by SSR

A

1030mHz for interrogation for Mode A and C and 1090mHz for both responses

120
Q

Airborne weather radar typically operates at which wavelength

A

3.2cm

121
Q

Primary radar uses

A

Pulses of radio energy reflected from a target at same frequency

122
Q

Nature of altitude info provided by Mode C

A

Altitude reported in 100ft increment

123
Q

Q code for magnetic track from aircraft to home to VHF DF station

A

QDM

124
Q

Thunderstorms

A

Causes ADF to behave erratically

125
Q

DME comprises of

A

2 components - Aircraft interrogator and Ground Transponder

126
Q

ILS glide slope freq

A

329.3mhz

127
Q

Pulse recurrence frequency(PRF) for a radar system that is required to have a max range of 165NM

A

491pps

128
Q

Area between max surface wave and first returning sky wave is

A

Dead space

129
Q

Resultant VHF DF bearing if 2 ac transmit on the same freq simultaneously

A

VHF DF station not able to produce any bearing at all

130
Q

When using ADF during hours of darkness, night effect is characterised by

A

Fluctuating bearings when further than 70NM from NDB

131
Q

Night effect affects an NDB signal by

A

Limiting useful range at night to 70-80nm due to sky wave interference

132
Q

VOR ident replaced by TST. This means

A

On test, may not be used

133
Q

AC at FL350. Max range can receive VOR@450ft AMSL

A

256NM

134
Q

Max error allowed for normal DME

A

0.25nm + 1.25%

135
Q

Where is ILS localiser transmitter located

A

Far end of runway

136
Q

Mode of interrogation used by Mode S for surveillance

A

Selective

137
Q

What type of beam does AWR usually use

A

Pencil with a beam width of 3-5 deg

138
Q

SSR ground interrogation signal’s P2 pulse is

A

Of diff amplitude from P1 and P3

139
Q

Mode of interrogation by SSR ground station is determined by

A

Time interval between P1 and P3 pulses

140
Q

Mode S ground station interrogation signals are transmitted as

A

P1, P3 and P4

141
Q

Which reduces coastal refraction error

A

NDB near or at coast

142
Q

NDB transmission distance affected by power. What is the relationship between distance and power

A

Power is squared function of increased range

143
Q

Principle of DME

A

Pulse pairs

144
Q

Continuous Wave technique

A

Adopts Doppler shift method

145
Q

SSR locked up means

A

Selective Call

146
Q

How many codes does 24bit Mode S transponder have

A

16000000

147
Q

Mode A transponder, what does the controller see

A

Position and Code

148
Q

DVOR is advantageous over CVOR because

A

Not affected by site errors

149
Q

Incoming vertical polarised radio waves requires

A

Vertical Aerial

150
Q

If frequency of radio wave is 480kHz, what is the wavelength

A

625m

151
Q

Relationship between power and range

A

Inversely squared

152
Q

What is required for efficient operation of radio antennas

A

Higher frequency, shorter Aerial

153
Q

AC flying 6000ft, what is max theoretical range

A

97NM

154
Q

Doppler principle

A

Used to create a signal received by the aircraft as a frequency modulated signal

155
Q

ILS pic - Needle deflected right and Glideslope deflected down

A

Above Glidepath and left of centreline

156
Q

Cessation of ident of ILS means

A

ILS unserviceable and procedure must be discontinued immediately

157
Q

PRF of 500, what is the range

A

162NM

158
Q

P2 pulse in SSR is used for

A

To suppress response from ac in the side lobes of the interrogation antenna

159
Q

Most common type of modulation for carriage of info

A

Carrier Wave

160
Q

How many beams minimum for full ILS

A

4

161
Q

Radial 125, heading 265M and 5deg right, what does the instrument show FROM/TO and the course

A

FROM and 130

162
Q

Moving target indicator - designed to eliminated returns from hills/buildings - how?

A

By jittering the PRF

163
Q

What is the radar tilt formula?

A

Height(ft) = (TILT-BEAMWIDTH/2) C RANGE(nm) X 100ft

164
Q

Properties of NONA1A

A

When using NONA1A, BFO should be selected on for manual tuning, identification and monitoring

165
Q

Advantages of slotted antenna

A

Low power required, narrow beam and improved resolution

166
Q

What is the required navigation performance for precision navigation?

A

RNP 1

167
Q

RNP5 require a navigation performance accuracy of

A

+/- 5nm both lateral and longitudinal 95%of flying time

168
Q

RNP may be specified for

A

Routes, an area, volume of airspace, or any airspace of defined dimensions

169
Q

In 2D RNAV, how is the position fix obtained

A

Horizontal plane only

170
Q

In 3D RNAV, how is position fixed obtained

A

Horizontal and vertical plane only

171
Q

In 4D RNAV, how is position fix obtained?

A

Horizontal, Vertical and Time function

172
Q

RNAV, pilot can

A

Change/insert waypoints throughout the flight, including waypoints that are not inserted on the start

173
Q

How VOR/DME stations tune and identify when used with 2D RNAV system

A

RNAV system automatically tunes and identifies all selected stations

174
Q

A 2D VOR/DME RNAV system

A

Will permit pilot to navigate without the need to fly directly over ground stations

175
Q

What is the ICAO standard Colour for active waypoints displayed on EHSI

A

Magenta

176
Q

How is position updating achieved with triple IRS twin FMC flight

A

Automatic position updating is carried out without pilot input

177
Q

AWR when switched on, what is displayed on EHSI

A

Expanded VOR/ILS and Expanded Nav

178
Q

In Plan mode, the projection is orientated to

A

True North

179
Q

When using FMC during descent

A

It will descend the aircraft to the higher of the FMC selected altitude or pilot commanded altitude

180
Q

When AC is flown by autopilot directed by FMS system during an ILS coupled approach, the FMS/autopilot will

A

Continue the descent through any FMS or pilot selected altitude restrictions to touchdown unless pilot manually intervene

181
Q

When is DME used by FMC

A

During Kalman filtering process

182
Q

Which one the following lists info given from basic RNAV system

A

Cross track distance, angular deviation

183
Q

Which gives the best cross track indication

A

Flying abeam a VOR/DME station

184
Q

FMS normally determines the aircraft gross mass by

A

Adding the fuel quantity indicating system fuel quantity to the previously entered ZFW

185
Q

When is GPS used to determine FMC position

A

GPS data routinely used during Kalman’s filtering

186
Q

For a basic 2D RNAV, what can be provided with a VOR/DME

A

Range distance from VOR/DME

187
Q

How does an FMC normally determine the static outside air temperature in flight?

A

Temperature is obtained from ADC

188
Q

Which options describes the navigational equipment for RNP in accordance with ICAO

A

INS, GNSS, DME/DME

189
Q

How does FMS operate when in VNAV mode

A

Flight director/autopilot adjusts pitch to obtain climb speed

190
Q

During climb in VNAV

A

Autopilot/Flight director controls speed to maintain climb speed

191
Q

What does auto throttle and autopilot do to control climb

A

AT controls thrust and AP controls pitch to control climb speed

192
Q

For RNAV level 2, DR is used

A

When you’re outside the DOC of all available VOR/DME

193
Q

Level 2 DR (Dead Reckoning) system activates when

A

When no VOR/DME available

194
Q

What is shown in modern 4D RNAV

A

Distance and time at current ground speed to any defined waypoint in the RNAV database

195
Q

The aircraft has been cleared to its destination via a promulgated airway that is not along its standard route. How can this be entered into the CDU of the aircraft FMC

A

Pilot must enter each waypoint (lat&long) along the airway in the CDU

196
Q

The displayed data in a modern FMS system

A

May be used in both NAV/HDG autopilot modes or when manually flying the aircraft

197
Q

FMS uses sensors from

A

VOR, GME, ILS, GPS, IRS

198
Q

Input to 4D RNAV system include the

A

AC heading from the AHRS (Aircraft heading reference system) - in LOs

199
Q

FMC databases may be accessed by Pilots to

A

Read information only

200
Q

Level 2 VOR/DME RNAV system allows pilot to

A

Allowed to change during flight

201
Q

The CDU of a FMS equipped aircraft displays the following data ACT ECON CRZ. What is the current status of the VNAV

A

VNAV will only ensure the desired cruise level and target speed are maintained

202
Q

2D RNAV system

A

Allows pilot to navigate without the need to directly fly over ground stations

203
Q

Phantom waypoint: Where it should be located with respect to the VOR/DME designating it

A

Within Designated Operation Coverage of the VOR/DME

204
Q

How are phantom waypoints created by 2D RNAV

A

Phantom waypoints are manually entered into the RNAV system by the pilot

205
Q

Plane on autopilot and coupled with ILS

A

Autopilot controls everything

206
Q

Wind velocity is sourced by modern FMS

A

Internally using ADC and IRS data

207
Q

Which of the following components are normally included within a basic 2D RNAV system

A

CDU, Navigation computer unit, indicator (CDI/HSI)

208
Q

Which is not an advantage of RNAV

A

Approach and landing without the need of ground equipment

209
Q

Mach number is

A

Acquired solely from ADC

210
Q

An AC is tracking towards a waypoint using 2D RNAV system with CDI set to linear en-route mode. How far off track is the aircraft

A

3NM right of track

211
Q

How many GNSS are currently fully operational

A
  1. USA GPS, Russian GLONASS
212
Q

What is the minimum number of GNSS satellites required for RAIM

A

At least 5

213
Q

Which of the following GPS codes is transmitted on the L1 frequency

A

C/A and P code

214
Q

What does SBAS correct for

A

Ephemeris, clock error, atmospheric error

215
Q

What improvements does LAAS provide

A

Ephemeris, clock error and minimising atmospheric error

216
Q

Which of the following correct identify SBAS with the region?

A

WAAS - USA
MSAS - Japan
GAGAN - India
EGNOS - Europe

217
Q

Like the GNSS, the European Union Galileo system transmit continuous stream of navigation signal which consists of

A

Ranging code identifier and navigation message

218
Q

Like the SBAS system, the EGNOS improves GNSS accuracy by?

A

Determines accuracy of GNSS data and send error signals to receiver

219
Q

Principle of SBAS is to measure the

A

Accuracy of GNSS data and transmit satellite range errors to the GNSS user

220
Q

The SBAS system can

A

Provide approach and landing ops with improved horizontal and vertical guidance only

221
Q

Normal coverage of GBAS station

A

30km

222
Q

What is corrected by using 2 frequencies in the GNSS system

A

Ionspheric delay

223
Q

All GNSS are subject to influences that affect accuracy. A factor that can be almost eliminated by the use of 2 frequencies

A

Ionospheric Propogation Delay

224
Q

How Long does it take for GPS data to download data frame

A

12.5minutes

225
Q

Like the GNSS system, the GLONASS has the control segment, one function of the control segment is

A

Generation and uploading of Navigation Data

226
Q

What is the working principle of GPS

A

3D position is obtained by measuring the relative time delay of signals from 4 or more satellites

227
Q

Typical sensors in ABAS

A

Barometric altimeter, clock and inertial navigation systems

228
Q

Unlike GBAS and SBAS, ABAS does not improve positioning accuracy

A

Link for ABAS to the qns of GNSS is that it uses RAIM

229
Q

Frequency band does ICAO standard GBAS uses for data link

A

VHF (108-118kHz)

230
Q

PRN (Pseudo Random Noise)

A

Code sequence repeating every milliseconds. C/A code is unique and provides mechanisms to identify each satellite

231
Q

Freq of a GNSS that a civilian AC can use

A

L1 (1575.42Mhz - the higher freq) (C/A & P)

232
Q

LAAS improves accuracy by

A

Correcting for coordinate errors

233
Q

GBAS

A

Use Ground Control Link to improve on XYZ coordinates

234
Q

How GBAS correct position

A

XYZ coordinate things

235
Q

Difference between service area and coverage area with regards to SBAS

A

Ground reference stations determines service area, satellite based component determines coverage area

236
Q

Diff btw coverage area and service area

A

Coverage area applicable to wide area system and service area applicable to local area system

237
Q

When is satellite (SV) masked

A

Less than 5 degrees above horizon

238
Q

What is the orbital height of GNSS

A

10898NM, 55deg, orbital period of 12 hours

239
Q

What does the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation consist of

A

24 satellites, 55deg to equator

240
Q

The GLONASS are in near circular orbit at

A

19100km, 64.5degrees to equator

241
Q

3 segments of SBAS

A

Space, Ground/Control, User

242
Q

Which of the following SBAS is correct

A

Geostationary Satellite Vehicles are used in order to broadcast message overa wide area

243
Q

WAAS & other systems, are they compatible?

A

GPS, EGNOS &a GALILEO are compatible

244
Q

Which of following statement regarding SBAS is correct

A

Full compatibility between all wide area differential GPS

245
Q

Which statement is correct regarding local area DGPS

A

Provide failure warning, enhance GPS position removing ephemeris and SV clock areas and minimising ionospheric and tropospheric errors

246
Q

The EGNOS Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) is designed to improve accuracy to

A

1-2m horizontally, 3-5m vertically

247
Q

2 modes of GPS that provides different standards of accuracy, the more accurate of these modes is only available

A

When the user is authorised for PPS service

248
Q

GBAS transmits in VHF

A

True

249
Q

US GPS has a master control station which is responsible for

A

All aspects of constellations command

250
Q

GPS gives what fix and how many satellites

A

3D 4 satellites

Banks (5 decks)

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