Rho-Theta Flashcards

1
Q

What frequency spectrums do VORs and Tacans use?

A

VHF and UHF respectively

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2
Q

What are the service volume of T, L, and H facilities?

A

T-From 1,000 AGL up to and including 12,000 AGL at radial distances out to 25NM; L-From 1,000 AGL up to and including 18,000AGL at radial distances out to 40NM. H-From 1000 AGL up to and including 14,500 AGL at radial distances out to 40 NM. From 14,500 up to and including 60000AGL at radial distances out to 100NM. From 18,000AGL up to and including 45,000 AGL at radial distances out to 130NM.

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3
Q

Each ground facility can provide azimuth to an unlimited number of aircraft, how many aircraft is DME limited to?

A

100

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4
Q

The Rho-Theta transmits information in what priority?

A

Azimuth information, Identification in Morse code, Distance replies, Squitter (AIDS)

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5
Q

What are the two basic types of maneuvers when inspecting a Rho Theta facility?

A

Radial Flight and Orbital Flight

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6
Q

What direction are orbits normally flown?

A

Counterclockwise

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7
Q

What is operational service volume?

A

SSV including any additional ESV

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8
Q

What is the Flight Inspection Standard Service Volume?

A

Essentially the lower part of the SSV. A radius of 40 NM around H/L facilities and 25 around T and 1000 ft (2000 ft in mountainous) above site or intervening terrain.

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9
Q

What is structure?

A

Excursions from the on-course signal usually cause by reflections or interference. Includes roughness, scalloping, and bends.

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10
Q

What is mean orbital alignment?

A

Average alignment of all radial errors (360 degrees) measured during an orbit.

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11
Q

What is roughness?

A

Roughness is defined as erratic movement of the RMI needle.

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12
Q

What is scalloping?

A

Scalloping is another form of roughness that causes rhythmic oscillations of the RMI needle.

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13
Q

What is a bend?

A

Bends are temporary deviations of the course that are flyable.

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14
Q

What DME should we check polarization?

A

Between 5 and 20 miles from the facility.

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15
Q

What do we check for Identification?

A

The facility must be easily readable throughout all areas of intended use. Evaluate the ID feature for correctness, clarity, and adverse affect on the course.

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16
Q

How should voice be checked?

A

If installed, voice should be spot-checked RADIALLY, throughout the coverage area by requesting radio checks at various times during the flight inspection.

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17
Q

Which two checks must be done before the other checks? If either of these fail, nothing more can be done until the condition is corrected.

A

Sensing and Rotation

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18
Q

The .52 recommends using an instrument approach procedure radial for the ARR, what altitude is recommended?

A

The same as the alignment orbit.

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19
Q

At what distance should the ARR be established?

A

A segment between 5 and 25 nm from the facility that is at least 5 nm long.

20
Q

If the alignment of the ARR is found to have changed more than 1.0 degree, what must be done?

A

An alignment orbit must be accomplished to determine overall azimuth error distribution.

21
Q

How do we check polarization?

A

We check polarization by banking the aircraft 30 degrees right and left, inbound or outbound, between 5 and 20 DME from the facility.

22
Q

What is the tolerance for polarization?

A

+/- 2 degrees

23
Q

What do you do if polarization fails?

A

The confirmation procedure: Find a prominent ground checkpoint; 5-20 NM from facility; 30 degree bank/360 degree turn over same checkpoint; mark each 90 degree azimuth change; course should show smooth departure and on-course return.

24
Q

What is the tolerance for structure?

A

The normal tolerance is a maximum deviation of 3, but in some cases tolerance can be exceeded for a short distance (no more than 5% of certain flight segments). This is called the 95% rule and applies to several other tolerances as well.

25
Q

What is the tolerance for bends?

A

Bends must be gradual enough to be followed either by an autopilot or a person hand-flying an aircraft. Bends are allowed to be up to 3.5 degrees from the average radial alignment and must also be within 3.5 degrees of the correct magnetic azimuth.

26
Q

How much may the transmitter azimuth monitor reference shift from course?

A

1 degree

27
Q

How far and at what altitude do we fly radials to determine the facility’s ability to support the FISSV?

A

Radials must be flown at a minimum altitude of 1000 ft(2000 in mountainous) above the site elevation or the highest terrain or obstruction to a distance of 40 miles for L and H class facilities and 25 miles for T class facilities.

28
Q

Normally, how wide are airways?

A

8 miles (4nm either side)

29
Q

When must we check the fix displacement area?

A

If the fix is located outside of the FISSV. This is recorded by flying accross the radial on the farthest edge of the fix displacement area.

30
Q

When must terminal radial segments (STARs, SID/DPs, and SIAPs) be flown and evaluated for signal quality?

A

During commissioning and frequency change.

31
Q

When do we have to evaluate VOR radials 5 degrees either side of the final approach radial to 100 feet below the MDA?

A

Site evaluation, Commissioning, Reconfiguration, Antenna Change, SIAP revision (lowering FAF or MDA altitude, extending the FAF distance segment, or changing the final approach radial)

32
Q

When must we check TACAN nulls and how do we inspect them?

A

During commissioning, antenna change, new instrument procedures, and FAF altitude change of more than 300 feet). Fly 5 degrees either side of course, inbound or outbound, from 3 miles before and 3 miles after the FAF at FAF procedural altitude. If a problem is found, fly 500 feet above and below the FAF altitude to help maintenance determine the problem. Null checks are not required if the Tacan is the FAF.

33
Q

When a facility is rotated, do we need to fly offsets and nulls on both sides?

A

No, only on the side towards where the facility was rotated (must be protected 5 degrees either side).

34
Q

When optimizing the laignment, mean orbital alignmeant should be within ___ degrees and the dystem differential between a collocated VOR and TACAN should not exceed ___ degrees.

A

.5, 1.

35
Q

On later inspections, if the MOA has changed by more than ___ degrees, facility maintenance must be notified.

A

1

36
Q

Orbit radius is usually ___ to ___ and the recommended altitude is ___ to ___ above site elevation.

A

5 to 10nm, 4 to 6 degrees

37
Q

The coverage orbit determines if there is a usable signal ____feet above antenna elevation, intervening terrain, or obstructions at ____ or ____miles for L/H class facilities and T class facilities respectively.

A

1000 ft (2000 mountainous), 40nm, 25 nm

38
Q

What do you do if any signal parameter goes out of tolerance during an coverage orbit?

A

The distance from teh facility and the lowest altitude where a reliable signal is received must be determined by flying radials inbound and/or outbound through the area. Then a restriction can be written and a NOTAM issued.

39
Q

What do you do if, during a ground receiver checkpoint commissioning, the alignment is not within 1 degree of proposed?

A

Notify airfield manager and get sign changed. A follow-on inspection is required.

40
Q

What are the tolerances for VOR and TACAN periodic GCP?

A

VOR = ± 2° & 15uv AGC

TACAN ± 1.5° & 0.2nm

41
Q

What should the GCP sign include?

A

The sign should be easy to read and show the identification, frequency, channel, course (TO) / radial (FROM) and the distance.

42
Q

How soon must the aircraft be established on the airborne receiver checkpoint radial?

A

At least 1 nm prior.

43
Q

If you choose to check the standby transmitter approach radial alignment on a single run, when must you switch transmitters?

A

Prior to the final approach fix.

44
Q

Which items do not need to be evaluated on the standby transmitter?

A

The coverage orbit and ESVs.

45
Q

How is standby power checked and when is it not required?

A

Standby power is checked by flying a radial with the station in normal power and repeating the maneuver in standby power. It is not required if the facilities are powered by uninterruptible power supplies that are constantly charged by another power source.