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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Key factor limiting maximal cell size

A

Surface area to vol ratio

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2
Q

Differences betweeen prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell

A

prokaryotic cells do not have membrane-enclosed organelles

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3
Q

common feature between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell

A

plasma membrane, DNA, ribosomes

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4
Q

Why does rough ER appear ‘rough’

A

presence of ribosomes on ER membrane surface

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5
Q

What is stored in animal nucleus

A

Chromosomal DNA

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6
Q

Order of compartments in endomembrane system

A

ER → golgi →lysosome

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7
Q

Organelle where lipids are synthesised

A

smooth ER

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8
Q

Golgi functions

A
  • sort and distribute cargo derived from the ER
  • both absorb/merge with and release transport vesicles
  • process sugars added to proteins and lipids added in the ER
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9
Q

Vesicles leaving transface of Golgi may go to:

A

the plasma membrane, vacuoles, lysosomes

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10
Q

function of nucleolus

A

site of ribosome synthesis and assembly

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11
Q

Shape of inner membrane of mitochondria

A

inc. surface area to volume ratio →more energy

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12
Q

A cells plasma membrane

A
  • is selectively permeable
  • flexible
  • fluidity
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13
Q

define - Selectively permeable

A

allows some molecules through by passive or active transport

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14
Q

phospholipid

A

polar head group and non polar fatty acid rail

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15
Q

increasing level on unsaturated fatty acids in phospholipids

A
  • increase membrane fluidity

- decrease viscosity

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16
Q

Organism membranes at colder temps

A

more phospholipids with unsaturated fatty acid tails

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17
Q

Facilitated diffusion does not require

A

energy expenditure

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18
Q

What molecules are most likely to diffuse through a cells plasma membrane

A

Small non-polar

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19
Q

Active transport

A
  • can move molecules against their concentration gradient

- requires energy to be expended

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20
Q

osmosis

A

when water molecules move from high to low concentration across a plasma membrane

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21
Q

Hypertonic

A

solute concentration outside a cell is higher than inside.

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22
Q

exocytosis

A

Form of active transport where eukaryotic cells transport proteins out of the cell

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23
Q

phagocytosis

A

form of active transport which amoeba ingests a bacterial cell such as paramecium

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24
Q

forms of potential energy

A
  • chemical bond energy
  • ion gradient across a membrane
  • ATP
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25
Q

1st law of thermodynamics

A

energy is never created or destroyed but can change forms

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26
Q

exergonic

A

reactions that are spontaneous in living systems

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27
Q

spontaneous reactions may not by instantaneous

A

bc even exergonic reactions may require activation energy

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28
Q

activation energy

A

initial energy needed to start a chemical reaction

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29
Q

enzymes

A
  • biological catalysts
  • specific for their substrates
  • are proteins
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30
Q

competitive inhibitors of biochemical reactions bind to an enzymes

A

active site

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31
Q

biochemical pathway regulation

A

negative FB control involving end products inhibiting early steps

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32
Q

Glycolysis takes place in

A

cytosol

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33
Q

Kreb’s/TCA cycle occurs in

A

mitochondria matrix

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34
Q

during full aerobic respiration of glucose to CO2, most ATP is produced directly by

A

the mitochonrial electron transport chain

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35
Q

if individual has defective mitochondrial energy production, muscles/cells are likely to:

A
  • accumulate NADH
  • rely more on glycolysis for energy production
  • accumulate lactic acid
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36
Q

most direct source of energy used to power the mitochondrial ATP synthase

A

proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane

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37
Q

molecule that stores genetic info in cells

A

DNA

38
Q

double stranded DNA held together by

A

hydrogen bonding between A and T; G&C

39
Q

DNA replication makes

A

a copy of DNA using one strand of DNA as a template

40
Q

DNA replication occurs in which direction

A

5’ to 3’

41
Q

Okazaki fragments generated during

A

lagging strand DNA replication

42
Q

Absence of telomerase activity

A

telomeres would get shorter w/ each round of replication

43
Q

prokaryotic transcription produces

A

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

44
Q

order of events startingfrom gene

A

DNA → pre-mRNA → mRNA → polypeptide

45
Q

for pre-mRNA to be processed into mRNA

A

introns need to be removed

46
Q

in eukaryotes where to transcription and translation occur

A

transcription (nucleus), translation (cytoplasm)

47
Q

what determines the order of amino acids in a protein

A

order of nucleotides in the DNA of the transcribed strand

48
Q

what specifies an amino acid during translation

A

a codon

49
Q

some codons specify

A

a start signal for a ribosome

50
Q

a missense mutuation leads to

A

changes the amino acid being added during translation

51
Q

process of transcription

A

Info in DNA being converted into RNA

52
Q

gene expression describes process where

A

genetic information is used to produce proteins/RNA

53
Q

prokaryotes control of gene expression usually occurs at

A

initiation of transcription

54
Q

function of RNA polymerase

A

to transcribe genes into RNA

55
Q

promoter

A

RNA polymerase bind to this region of DNA to initiate transcription

56
Q

Function of promoter needed for DNA sequence

A
  • binding of RNA polymerase & initiation of transcription
  • potential binding site of transcription factors
  • positioning of RNA polymerase with respect to gene start site
57
Q

how does lacl repressor alter expression of genes

A

lacl binds the lac operon promoter and blocks transcription

58
Q

binding of the lac repressor to the promoter of lac operon

A

prevents RNA polymerase from initiation transcription

59
Q

why muscle cells are different from kidney cells

A

they express different specific transcription factors

60
Q

cell division used by bacterial cells

A

binary fission

61
Q

What stage of the eukaryotic cell division is DNA replicated

A

S- phase

62
Q

After DNA replication, what are the names given to the chromosomal structures formed

A

sister chromatids

63
Q

a diploid cell undergoes mitosis. the two cells produced will

A

both be diploid and genetically identical

64
Q

during mitosis

A

sister chromatids are held together until anaphase

65
Q

in metaphase of mitosis the kinetochores of each sister chromatid are

A

bound to microtubules from separate spindle poles

66
Q

how are sister chromatids held together during mitosis

A

cohesin

67
Q

in anaphase, separation of sister chromatids is achieved by triggering

A
  • movement of sister chromatids to opposite poles

- destruction of cohesin

68
Q

function of the G1/S checkpoint of the cell cycle

A

desicion to initiate a round of cell division

69
Q

why is metaphase/anaphase (spindle) checkpoint so important

A
  • cell checks proper attachment of chromatids to spindles
  • it is an irreversible step in mitosis
  • errors can lead to cells with abnormal number of chromosomes
70
Q

what disease is associated with cells losing control of cell division cycle

A

cancer

71
Q

primary role of meiosis

A

to generate gametes with one set (half) of chromosomes

72
Q

in humans, meiosis is conducted in:

A

only in germ-line cells

73
Q

during prophase I of meiosis

A
  • homologous chromosomes become closer associated/paired

- synapsis occurs

74
Q

crossing over of chromosomes in meiosis I only occur in

A

homologous chromosomes

75
Q

during mitosis

A
  • homologous chromosomes do not pair via synapsis
  • sister chromatids are separated during anaphase
  • crossing over does not occur
76
Q

during anaphase I of meiosis

A

homologous chromosomes are separated

77
Q

chromosome nondisjunction

A

failure to separate homologous chromosomes/ sister chromatids
-occur in either or both meiosis I or II

78
Q

name given to describe genes affecting a trait

A

genotype

79
Q

what describes an organisms appearance or observable characteristics of a trait

A

phenotype

80
Q

different DNA sequences or forms of same gene

A

allele

81
Q

in a diploid organism for the recessive trait to be expressed the individual must be

A

homozygous recessive

82
Q

what was not part of mendel’s five-element model

A

if an allele is present it will be expressed

83
Q

incomplete dominace is a situation where the phenotype of heterozygote is

A

between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive

84
Q

in humans, X & Y chromosomes

A
  • have many genes only found on one not both
  • are homologous
  • determine sex & have genes unrelated to sex teremination
85
Q

in terms of sex-linked traits males are often

A

more likely than females to express recessive traits

86
Q

since women have two X chromosomes and males 1, females

A

can be carriers of x-linked traits

87
Q

If a mother has the x-linked trait haemophilia has children

A

all of her sons will have haemophilia

88
Q

If a father has hemophilia and the mother is neither a carrier nor has hemophilia

A

half of their daughters will be carriers

89
Q

in each female cell, one x-chromosome

A

is inactivated by condensation into a bar body

90
Q

if a female is heterozygous for a recessive allele for sweat glands on the x-chromosome

A

some patches of skin will have sweat glands some wont

91
Q

if a male has a recessive allele for sweat glans on the x-chromosome

A

none of his skin will express sweat glands

Bio (14 decks)

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