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General Pathology > Review Questions Chapter 5 > Flashcards

Review Questions Chapter 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States.

A

False, Cardiovascular disease is

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2
Q

The genetic alterations associated with neoplasia are passed to daughter cells upon cell division.

A

true

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3
Q

DNA methylation and histone modifications are associated with

A

Epigenetics

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4
Q

All tumors are ___________.

A

Clonal

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5
Q

Which of the following has the greatest impact on the biological behavior of a neoplasm?

A

Parenchyma

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6
Q

The _____ is crucial to the growth of the neoplasm, since it carries the blood supply and provides support for the growth of parenchymal cells

A

Stroma

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a hallmark of cancer development?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

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8
Q

Which of the following refers to a benign neoplasm derived from glandular tissue?

A

Adenoma

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9
Q

Which of the following is a benign tumor which resembles the tissues of its origin?

A

Papilloma

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10
Q

Which of the following is a mixed tumor that contains cells from 3 embryonic germ cell layers?

A

Teratoma

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11
Q

Benign tumors are more likely to be anaplastic and malignant tumors are well-differentiated.

A

False

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12
Q

In general, benign tumors contain fewer mutations than cancers

A

true

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13
Q

A lipoma is a malignant tumor of mature fat cells

A

False

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14
Q

A loss or reduction of cellular differentiation is termed _________.

A

. Anaplasia

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15
Q

Which of the following represents cells that are disorderly, but still non-neoplastic?

A

Dysplasia

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16
Q

Poorly differentiated tumors grow more rapidly than do well-differentiated tumors

A

true

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17
Q

The rate of growth of malignant tumors usually correlates inversely with their level of differentiation.

A

true

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18
Q

Most benign tumors grow slowly, and most cancers grow much faster, eventually spreading locally and to distant sites (metastasizing) and causing death.

A

true

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19
Q

Malignant tumors that are composed of undifferentiated cells are considered anaplastic.

A

true

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20
Q

Which of the following is most likely to have a fibrous capsule? (

A

Benign neoplasm

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21
Q

Which of the following unequivocally identifies a tumor as being malignant? (

A

Metastasis

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22
Q

Which 2 anatomic regions are most frequently involved sites of cancer metastasis?

A

liver and lung

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23
Q

Lymphatic spread is more typical of carcinomas, whereas hematogenous spread is favored by sarcomas.

A

true

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24
Q

Tumors of the ________ are the most common cause of cancer-related deaths among females.

A

Lung

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25
Q

Among U.S. females, the death rate from uterine cervical cancer is ________ while the death rate from
lung cancer is _________.

A

decreasing; increasing

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26
Q

Environmental factors are the predominant cause of the most common sporadic cancers.

A

true

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27
Q

Reduced immune competence and ________ are thought to contribute to the increased frequency of
cancer as we age

A

somatic mutation

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28
Q

Most cancer-related mortality occurs between the ages of ______.

A

55-75 years

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29
Q

A 34-year-old female does not have a BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutation, but still developed breast cancer; this
cancer is categorized as a(n)

A

. Familial cancers of uncertain

inheritance

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30
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum is the best example of _______

A

Autosomal recessive syndromes of

defective DNA repair

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31
Q

While preneoplastic lesions increase the likelihood of malignancy, most do not progress into cancer.

A

true

32
Q

Which of the following is an autosomal recessive syndrome of defective DNA repair?

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

33
Q

Tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) prevent uncontrolled growth and the typical loss of function mutation,
involved with altered TSGs, require a loss of ______ normal allele(s).

A

2

34
Q

Which of the following is a normal gene that has a high potential to cause cancer when mutated, such as
a gene that regulates apoptosis?

A

Proto-oncogene

35
Q

Oncogenic mutations are _________ because the mutations of a single allele can lead to phenotypic
change

A

dominant

36
Q

Which of the following least likely to be involved with oncogenesis?

A

Genes that regulate noncoding DNA

37
Q

Over 90% of all cases of chronic myelogenous leukemia involve a(n) ____________ of chromosomes 9
and 22, which is referred to as a Philadelphia chromosome

A

Balanced Translocation

38
Q

An abnormal number of chromosomes that is not a multiple of organism’s haploid is termed _________.

A

Aneuploidy

39
Q

Which of the following refers to a reversible, heritable change in gene expression that occurs without
mutation

A

Epigenetic modification

40
Q

Which of the following involves DNA methylation and histone modifications to cause changes in gene
expression?

A

Epigenetics

41
Q

MicroRNAs __________ gene expression and may be increased or reduced in their function.

A

inhibit

42
Q

Epigenetic modifications may not alter cellular appearance and function (phenotype), but mutations
can.

A

B. False

43
Q

Over time, tumors become more aggressive and less responsive to therapy.

A

true

44
Q

Cancer cells may develop self-sufficiency by acquiring the ability to synthesize the same growth factors
to which they are responsive.

A

true

45
Q

Which of the following is a rate-limiting step in the cell cycle that is commonly referred to as a
restriction point?

A

G1-S phase

46
Q

Decision step of the cell cycle is known as _______

A

G0-G1 phase

47
Q

The activation of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (CDKI) proteins will _________ the cell cycle.

A

Slow down

48
Q

All cancers have genetic mutations that disable the G1-S phase checkpoint of the cell cycle

A

true

49
Q

Inactivation of the RB gene requires alterations to both of the normal RB gene alleles.

A

true

50
Q

The Rb protein regulates the __________

A

G1 to S

51
Q

Human papillomavirus may encode proteins that bind to Rb proteins and render them nonfunctional.

A

True

52
Q

The TP53 gene is an example of a(n) __________.

A

TSG

53
Q

If DNA damage is detected, the products of the TP53 gene stimulate cellular arrest in which phase of the
cell cycle?

A

G1

54
Q

The TP53 gene is not involved with __________.

A

Necrosis

55
Q

Which of the following is a common example of a virus that can nullify the protective function of the
TP53 gene? (

A

HPV

56
Q

The ____________________ involves the activation of caspase-8 to initiate apoptosis.

A

Extrinsic

57
Q

Many tumors metastasize to the organ that presents the first ____________ they encounter after
entering circulation

A

capillary bed

58
Q

Dicentric chromosomes are likely to be formed if p53 is present.

A

false

59
Q

Cancer cells rarely (<50% of the time) reactivate telomerase to avoid shortening of telomeres.

A

false

60
Q

In order to grow beyond __________in diameter, tumor cells must stimulate angiogenesis.

A

1- 2 mm

61
Q

What is the “glue” that holds epithelial cells together, which must be inactivated to initiate migration of
a tumor cell?

A

E- Cadherin (ADHERIN - Adhere = glue)

62
Q

Once in circulation, aggregated tumors cells may be afforded protection from antitumor host cells.

A

false

63
Q

Microsatellite instability (MSI) is associated with which of the following? (

A

HNPCC (hereditary non polyposis colon cancer)

64
Q

Patients with xeroderma pigmentosum have an inherited defect in which DNA repair system?

A

Nucleotide excision repair

65
Q

When cancer cells transition to aerobic glycolysis, the phenomenon is called the __________.

A

warburg effect

66
Q

Patients with chronic gastrointestinal inflammation have a(n) ___________ risk of developing cancer.

A

increased

67
Q

The chemical carcinogen aflatoxin B1 produces a “signature mutation” on the __________ gene.

A

TP53

68
Q

Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA virus?

A

Human T cell lymphotrophic virus

69
Q

Hepatitis B or C infections are associated with ____ of all cases of hepatocellular carcinoma.

A

C. 80%

70
Q

Epstein-Barr viral infections may contribute to oncogenesis by stimulating _____ proliferation

A

B cell

71
Q

Natural killer cells act as a first line of defense against tumor cells and require previous tumor cell
sensitization.

A

true

72
Q

which DNA oncovirus simulates the loss of tumor suppressor genes, activates cyclins, inhibits apoptosis, and combats cellular senescence and is responsible for 20% of oropharyngeal cancers?

A

HPV

73
Q

Symptom complexes that occur within cancer patients that cannot be explained by the effects of a
tumor cell appear in _____ of patients. (

A

15%

74
Q

Which of the following has been shown to have greater clinical value? (

A

Staging of cancer

75
Q

Breast cancer may stimulate parathyroid hormone, resulting in __________.

A

Hypercalcemia

76
Q

During surgery, a surgeon is likely to request a _________ to evaluate histological features of a tissue.

A

Frozen section

General Pathology (10 decks)

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