Review questions Chapter 4 Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

Injurious immune reactions are grouped under hypersensitivity reaction, and involve inappropriately
targeted or inadequately controlled immune responses?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Approximately ______ of the population is allergic to common environmental antigens (e.g. pollen,
animal dander, or dust mites)?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with anaphylactic shock?

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with autoimmune hemolytic anemia or Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with systemic Lupus, glomulonephritis,, and or Arthus reactions?

A

Type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with Dermatitis, MS, and/or tuberculosis?

A

Type 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An immediate hypersensitivity reaction that involves damage to the host’s tissue following exposure to a
harmless environmental antigen is categorized as a ___________ hypersensitivity reaction.

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_______ hypersensitivity disorders are caused by antibodies directed against target antigens on the surface of cells or other tissue components.

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The late-phase reaction associated with a Type I hypersensitivity reaction most commonly develops
__________ after the initial exposure

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reactions manifest with local and systemic reactions and have a strong familial
predisposition to development.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction involves antibody-mediated opsonization of red blood cells during ABO
incompatibility? (

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Antigen-antibody (immune) complexes are associated with _____________________.

A

Type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Small amounts of immune complex formation commonly cause Type III hypersensitivity reactions.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Large amounts of immune complex formation commonly cause Type 3 Hypersensitivity reactions

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reactions most commonly involve which 3 of the following tissues?

A

Blood vessels, kidneys, and joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Type 2 reactions most commonly involve which 4 of the following tissues?

A

Heart, Thyroid, blood vessels and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Contact dermatitis is an example of a ______________ that involves sensitization of TH1 CD4+ cells
within the dermal tissues.

A

Type 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is commonly referred to as “delayed-type” hypersensitivity because the reaction
develops in response to an antigen approximately 12-48 hours following exposure? (

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Autoimmune diseases affect ________ of the all individuals within developed countries.

A

3% (in practice test) 2-5% in book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most individuals are tolerant to their own antigens and develop autoimmunity.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most individuals are tolerant to their own antigens, failure of self tolerance develops autoimmunity.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Central tolerance involves apoptosis of T cells and B cells within the thymus and bone marrow,
respectively.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The pathoetiology of most autoimmune diseases is well-understood.

A

False , as the underlying causes of most human auto- immune diseases remain to be determined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) alleles are associated with the ___________ association of
autoimmune conditions.

A

Genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Autoimmune diseases have a tendency to run in fami- lies, and there is a greater incidence of the same disease in ______ than in ______
monozygotic; dizygotic
26
Ultraviolet (UV) radiation exacerbates the cutaneous lesions associated with SLE, which is commonly termed ________________.
Photosensitivity
27
Fixed erythema over malar eminences are often associated with SLE and are termed as _______
Malar Rash
28
95% of patients with SLE will test positive for these
ANAs (anti nuclear antibodies)
29
Antinuclear antibodies are _________________ for the presence of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Highly sensitive
30
The most common cause of death among individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus is _______________.
Kidney failure
31
Libman-Sacks endocarditis is associated with ____________________. (
SLE
32
With SLE, the ______ may be moderately enlarged. Capsular fibrous thickening is common, as is follicular hyper- plasia with numerous plasma cells in the red pulp
spleen
33
with SLE, the ____ may reveal interstitial fibrosis, along with pleural inflammation; the ______ shows nonspecific inflammation of the portal tracts.
Lungs; liver
34
Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands ?
Sjögren syndrome
35
Antinuclear antibodies and dermoepidermal IgG antibodies are associated with ______________.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
36
Which of the following individuals is most likely to develop Sjögren syndrome?
A 40-year-old female
37
Women between ages of 50-60 years old are most likely to develop __________
Systemic sclerosis
38
Women between ages of 35-45 years old are most likely to develop __________
Sjögren syndrome
39
Young women are most likely to develop __________
SLE
40
Systemic sclerosis is most likely to involve _______________.
Cutaneous tissue
41
Which of the following is not a cause of secondary immune deficiency?
Severe combined immunodeficiency
42
Individuals with defects in phagocytic cells typically suffer from recurrent pyogenic bacterial infections, while those with defects in cell-mediated immunity are prone to viral and fungal infections
true
43
Most primary (congenital) immune deficiencies become clinically evident by the age of __________.
1 year
44
X-linked agammaglobulinemia is most likely to affect _____________.
Boys
45
Which of the following forms of primary immune deficiency results in a lack of ability to produce IgG, IgA, and IgE isotypes?
Hyper-IgM syndrome
46
Which of the following is most common among Native Americans and disrupts both humoral and cellmediated immunity?
Severe combined immunodeficiency
47
Which of the following is the most common? AIDS or Therapy induced immune suppression
Therapy-induced immunosuppression
48
What is an X-linked recessive disease characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and a marked vul- nerability to recurrent infection, ending in early death; the only treatment is bone marrow transplantation. ?
Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
49
The most common of all the primary immune deficiency diseases and mostly affects caucasians
Isolated IgA deficiency
50
The largest group of individuals infected by AIDS in Africa are ____________________
Women infected by male sexual | partners
51
The largest group of individuals infected by AIDS in USA are _______
Male to male infection
52
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be transmitted via breast milk and semen.
True
53
Which 2 of the following are the major targets of HIV?
Immune system, CNS, Lungs
54
Viruses characteristically migrate to the ____________ during the transition into the chronic (latent) phase of an HIV infection ?
Spleen
55
Viruses characteristically are found in the ____________ during the acute phase of an HIV infection ?
lymph nodes
56
Which of the following is the hallmark sign of AIDS?
Marked reduction of CD4+ T cells
57
HIV is most likely to be transmitted to the CNS via infected ___________.
Monocytes
58
``` Virtually all (> 95%) of all patients infected with HIV will develop a sore throat, myalgia, fever, and a rash within 3 to 6 weeks after the initial infection. ```
False
59
Which of the following is a common fungal infection of the lungs among individuals in the crisis phase of AIDS?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
60
Which of the following is a common bacterial infection of the lungs among individuals in the crisis phase of AIDS?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
61
The brain is the most common extranodal site of B cell lymphoma development among individuals with late-stage HIV infection, and nearly 100% of such neoplasms are associated with
Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)
62
Which condition is associated with extracellular deposits of fibrillar proteins?
Amyloidosis
63
β-Amyloid plaques are strongly associated with __________.
Alzheimers
64
Which type of amyloid protein is most likely to be associated with long-standing inflammation?
Amyloid-associated (AA)
65
Which type of amyloid protein is type is associated with some form of monoclonal B cell proliferation?
AL (light chain amyloid)
66
The presence of an M protein spike and Bence-Jones proteins (a type of AL proteins) in the urine are features of which condition?
Multiple myeloma
67
Restrictive cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with which condition?
Amyloidosis
68
Macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly are most likely to be associated with _________________.
Amyloidosis