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NBDE I Review > Review Questions > Flashcards

Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Weil Felix test?

A

The Weil–Felix test is an agglutination test for the diagnosis of rickettsial infections.

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2
Q

What are some functions of somatostatin?

A

Somatostatin (AKA growth hormone-inhibiting hormone GHIH) is a peptide hormone that regulates endocrine system and affects neurotransmission and cell proliferation. Somatostatin regulates insulin and glucagon.

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3
Q

Which virus is stored in salivary glands and released in saliva?

A

Mumps virus

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4
Q

What effect does tetracycline have on bacteria (what does it inhibit)?

A

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunits (blocking aminoacyl-tRNA binding)

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5
Q

What are some of the effects of warfarin

A

Blocks hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors: Extrinsic pathway factor VII (also II, IX and X)

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6
Q

In an infection were in the maxillary sinus and if it perforated posterioly, what cavity would it enter?

A

Infratemporal fossa

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7
Q

What are some examples/characteristics of caseous necrosis?

A

granulomatous inflammation (typical of TB) granulomatous inflammatory sites

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8
Q

What are some examples/characteristics of coagulative necrosis?

A

Heart/kidney caused by ischemia (loss of blood supply)

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9
Q

What are some examples/characteristics of gangrenous necrosis?

A

Lower extremeties or bowel caused by putrefactive bacteria acting on necrotic bowel or extremity

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10
Q

What are some examples/characteristics of liquefaction necrosis?

A

brain or spinal cord caused by suppuration, abscesses and ischemic injury to the CNS

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11
Q

What are some examples/characteristics of fibrinoid necrosis?

A

atrial walls caused by immune-mediated vascular damage

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12
Q

What are some examples/characteristics of fat necrosis?

A

adipose tissue, pancreas caused by injury or trauma

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13
Q

What structures does the ansa cervicalis innervate?

A

omohyoid, sternohyoid and sternothyroid

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14
Q

What is the difference between monomeric IgA and polymeric IdA?

A

Can also be considered serum vs. secretory IgA. S IgA associated with external mucosal secretions and produced by epithelial cells

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15
Q

What bone contains the meatus into which the maxillary sinus drains?

A

Ethmoid. The maxillary sinus drains directly into the hiatus semilunaris; its opening (ostium) is located near the top of the sinus.

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16
Q

PSA characteristics

A

Target: Maxillary molars (except MB cusp of Max 1st molar) and buccal gingiva

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17
Q

MSA characteristics

A

Target: Maxillary premolars (plus MB cusp of Max 1st molar) and buccal gingiva

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18
Q

ASA characteristics

A

Target: Maxillary Canines, incisors, and buccal gingiva

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19
Q

IA characteristics

A

Target: Entire mandibular quadrant and gingiva (except buccal gingiva of molars)

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20
Q

With a PSA nerve block, what root may not be numbed?

A

The posterior superior alveolar nerve innervates maxillary molars except the MF root of the 1st molar

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21
Q

A lesion on the palate near tooth #3 is excised. Which nerve is responsible for the pain experienced?

A

Greater palatine nerve: palatal gingiva of maxillary premolars and molars

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22
Q

What is the pathway between the otic ganglion and the parotid gland?

A

pre-ganglionic fibers synapse with post-ganglionic fibers in otic ganglion–>post-synaptic fibers join the auriculotemporal nerve of V3 and continue to the parotid gland

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23
Q

A lesion on the palate near tooth #6 is excised. Which nerve is responsible for the pain experienced?

A

Nasopalatine: palatal gingiva of maxillary canines and incisors

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24
Q

What does the long buccal nerve innervate?

A

Buccal gingiva of mandibular molars

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25
Q

What does the inferior alveolar nerve innervate?

A

Entire mandibular quadrant and gingiva (except buccal gingiva of molars-innervated by long buccal nerve)

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26
Q

What nerve innervates maxillary incisors, canines, premolars (plus MB cusp of 1st molar), and buccal gingiva?

A

Infraorbital nerve

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27
Q

Type I (anaphylactic type) immediate hypersensitivity

A

Wheals. IgE antibody mediated-mast cell activation and degranulation (atopic allergies, hay fever, asthma, anaphylaxis)

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28
Q

Type II (cytotoxic type) cytotoxic antibodies

A

Cytotoxic (IgG, IgM) antibodies formed against cell surface antigens. Complement is usually involved. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), Goodpasture disease

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29
Q

Type III (immune complex type): immune complex disease

A

Antibodies (IgG, IgM, IgA) formed against exogenous or endogenous antigens. Complement and leukocytes aong with macrophages are involved. Autoimmune diseases (SLE, rheumatoid arthritis), serum sickness, Arthus’ reaction, most types of glomerulonephritis.

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30
Q

Type IV (cell-mediated type) Delayed hypersenstivity

A

Mononuclear cells (T lymphocytes, macrophages) with interleukina nd lymphoine production. Contact hypersensitivity (contact dermatitis), tuberculin hypersensitivity, granulomatous hypersensitivity

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31
Q

Where are phagocytes located in the TMJ?

A

synovial cavity

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32
Q

What are the vertical determinants of occlusal morphology (2)?

A

Condylar guidance and anterior guidance

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33
Q

What are the horizontal determinants of occlusal morphology (4)?

A

Distance from rotating condyle, distance from midssagittal plane, lateral translation movement and intercondylar distance

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34
Q

What is the effect when the intercondylar distance increases?

A

The angle between laterotrusive and mediotrusive pathways becomes narrower

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35
Q

What is the effect when the distance from the midsagittal plane increases?

A

The angle between laterotrusive and mediotrusive pathways becomes wider

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36
Q

What effect may occur when the anterior guidance has greater vertical overlap?

A

The posterior cusps may be taller

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37
Q

What is the effect when the lateral translation movement becomes greater?

A

The angle between laterotrusive and mediotrusive pathways becomes wider

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38
Q

What effect may occur when the condylar guidance becomes steeper?

A

The posterior cusps may be taller

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39
Q

What is the effect when the distance from the rotating condyle increases?

A

The angle between laterotrusive and mediotrusive pathways becomes wider

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40
Q

What effect may occur when the anterior guidance has greater horizontal overlap?

A

The posterior cusps need to be shorter

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41
Q

What are some conditions where horizontal dimension may be increased?

A

Overjet

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42
Q

What are some conditions where vertical dimension may be increased?

A

Overbite

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43
Q

Which amino acid is most likely responsible for stabilizing tertiary structure based on covalent bonds?

A

Cysteine (sulfurs make disulfide bonds-covalent bonds)

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44
Q

What is esophageal achalasia?

A

decreased propulsion of food down esophagus, failure of LES to relax, nerve related manifests as dysphagia to both solids and liquids and regurgitation of food

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45
Q

Warfarin-what does it act on, which factor does it affect most (PTT, PT, bleeding time), anticoagulant effects?

A

Factor VII: Blocks hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors: Extrinsic pathway factor VII (also II, IX and X)

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46
Q

Which nerve goes through the middle of the wrist anteriorly?

A

Median nerve

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47
Q

Which muscles supinate the forearm?

A

Primary: supinator Secondary: biceps brachii

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48
Q

What muscle protrudes the hyoid bone?

A

Geniohyoid and genioglossus

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49
Q

How long does organogenesis last?

A

5 weeks (from week 3 to the end of week 8)

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50
Q

What palatal muscle is not innervated by CN X?

A

All of the muscles of the palate are innervated by CN X EXCEPT the tensor veli palatinin- CN V3

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51
Q

What structures does ectomesenchyme give rise to?

A

Dentin, cementum, alveolar bone and pulp (enamel arises from ectoderm)

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52
Q

Which tongue muscle is not innervated by CN XII?

A

Palatoglossus CN X: All of the muscles of the tongue are innervated by CN XII, EXCEPT the palatoglossus, CN X

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53
Q

Which muslce of the pharynx is not innervated by CN X?

A

Stylopharyngeus CN IX: All of the muscles of the pharynx are innervated by X, except the stylopharyngeus CN IX

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54
Q

What are the borders of the pterygopalatine fossa?

A

Anterior-maxilla, posterior-pterygoid plates, medial-nasal fossa, lateral-infratemporal fossa, roof-greater wing of sphenoid, floor-pyramidal process of palatine bone

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55
Q

What are the borders of the infratemporal fossa?

A

Anterior-posterior maxilla, posterior-temporal bone, medial-lateral pterygoid, lateral-mandibular ramus, roof-greater wing of sphenoid, floor-medial pterygoid muscle

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56
Q

What attaches to the crista galli?

A

Falx cerebri

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57
Q

What structures are found between the two heads of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

A

Maxillary artery, buccal nerve

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58
Q

What channels are voltage-gated?

A

Na+ and Ca2+ (There are also other channels such as Na+ ligand ion channels)

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59
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase (PFK)

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60
Q

Carbon tetrachloride affects which organ the most?

A

The liver (associated with hepatocellular damage “fatty liver”)

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61
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis?

A

Fructose bisphosphatase-2

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62
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of the TCA cycle?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

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63
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis?

A

Glycogen synthase

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64
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

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65
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of the HMP shunt?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

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66
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of the urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

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67
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis?

A

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC)

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68
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of fatty acid oxidation?

A

Carnitine acyltransferase

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69
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of ketogenesis?

A

HMG-CoA synthase

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70
Q

What is the key rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG-CoA reductase

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71
Q

What are some characteristics of the J chain polypeptide?

A

IgA and IgM are the only antibodies that can exist as polymers, as a dimer, and a pentamer, respectively. Only the polymeric forms contain a J chain, which initiates the polymerization process.

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72
Q

What is the definition of a disinfectant?

A

Disinfectants are used only on inanimate objects and the effectiveness is determined by killing activity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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73
Q

At what point in embryological development do the maxillary process and medial nasal processes fuse?

A

6 weeks-The two medial nasal processes have fused at the midline to form the intermaxillary segment which forms the primary palate. Two maxillary processes have fuse to the intermaxillary segment forming the upper lip. Maxillary processes form lateral palatal shelves in vertical fashion. Tooth buds form

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74
Q

What are key features of Kaposi’s Sarcoma?

A

Vascular neoplasm by HHV 8 with 4 clinical presentations: Classic, Endemic, Iatrogenic immunosuppression- associated, and AIDS- related

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75
Q

If the facial nerve were to be cut at the stylomastoid foramen which muscles would be affected?

A

Muscles of facial expression, scalp, auricle, platysma, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric and buccinator

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76
Q

What are the major characteristics of histoplasmosis?

A

Soil (bird/bat droppings), inhalation of microconidia produces respiratory infection. There are yeast cells with host macrophages and treatment may include itraconazole, amphotericin B or fluconazole

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77
Q

What are the boundaries of the orbit?

A

bones include: frontal, maxilla, zygoma, ethmoid, sphenoid, lacrimal and palatine

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78
Q

What nerve is responsible for parathesia of the thumb?

A

Median nerve C5-T1

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79
Q

What role does PEP carboxykinase play in metabolism?

A

Functions in gluconeogenesis to convert oxaloacetate to phosphenolpyruvate

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80
Q

What nerve innervates the lungs?

A

Vagus

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81
Q

What is developing in a fetus at 6 weeks?

A

Organogenesis, hemispheres, cerebellum, ventricles, choroid plexus, lips, tongue, apalate, optic cups, lens, optic nerves, eyelids, canals, cochlea, transverse septum, diaphragm, etc. (lots)

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82
Q

What is the earliest age a patient should come in for a dental exam?

A

by 1st birthday or within 6 mo. of first tooth erupting

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83
Q

What are the crypts of lierberkin?

A

intestinal glands found in the small intestine and colon containing many types of cells including: enterocytes (absorbing water and electrolytes), goblet cells (secreting mucus), enteroendocrine cells (secreting hormones), tuft cells and, at the base of the gland, Paneth cells (secreting anti-microbial peptides) and stem cells.

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84
Q

What structures are innervated by the brachial plexus?

A

The brachial plexus innervates the shoulder girdle and upper limb (ventral rami C5–T1).

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85
Q

What muscles depress the hyoid?

A

omohyoid, sternohyoid and thyrohyoid

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86
Q

What muscles elevate the hyoid?

A

Digastric (posterior and anterior bellys), geniohyoid, stylohyoid, mylohyoid

87
Q

O&I: Medial pterygoid

A

O: medial side of lateral pterygoid plate I: medial side of mandibular angle

88
Q

O&I: Lateral pterygoid (superior head)

A

O: greater wing of sphenoid I: articular capsule and disk

89
Q

O&I: Lateral pterygoid (inferior head)

A

O: lateral side of lateral pterygoid plate, I: anterior condylar neck

90
Q

O&I: Masseter (superficial head)

A

O: Zygomatic process of maxilla, anterior 2/3 zygomatic arch I: angle of mandible

91
Q

O&I: Masseter (deep head)

A

O: Zygomatic process of maxilla, inner posterior 1/3 zygomatic arch I: lateral ramus

92
Q

O&I: Temporalis

A

O: Temporal fossa I: medial coronoid, anterior ramus (passing deep to zygomatic arch)

93
Q

O&I: Buccinator

A

O: alveolar process of maxilla and mandible pterygomandibular raphe I: orbicularis oris

94
Q

O&I: Digastric (posterior belly)

A

O: temporal bone (digastric notch) I: intermediate tendon

95
Q

O&I: Digastric (anterior belly)

A

O: intermediate tendon I anterior mandible (digastric fossa)

96
Q

Why are sulfur amines (sulfonamide, sulfa drugs) bacteriostatic?

A

Inhibit folic acid synthesis by competing with p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) allowing it to be bacteriostatic

97
Q

What genes serve as common markers in the identification of breast cancer?

A

BRCA-1, BRCA-2 genes, HER2/NU, CA15-3/CA27.29, EM, PM

98
Q

What are characteristics of haptens?

A

An antigen that cannot elicit an immune reponse on its own (can’t activate Th cells); it must be bound to a carrier protein.

99
Q

What receptor on LDL mediates uptake?

A

ApoB100

100
Q

If a patient is unable to extend the wrist, what nerve is most likely damaged?

A

Radial C6-C8

101
Q

What are the key features of the Kreb cycle/Citric acid cycle/TCA?

A

occurs in mitochondrial matrix, oxidizes acetyl-CoA, reduces NAD+ and FAD and tight regulation by ATP and NAD+

102
Q

What are the key features involved in the Lactic Acid Cycle (AKA Cori cycle)?

A

Occurs in liver. Converts lactate–>glucose, provides quick ATP production during anaerobic glycolysis in muscle and erythrocytes

103
Q

What are the key features involved in the Pentose PHosphate Pathway?

A

Occurs in cytosol, alternative to glycolysis in metabolism of glucose, converts glucose-6-phosphate –>ribose-5-phosphate, glucose-6-phophate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is the rate limiting enzyme

104
Q

What are the key features involved in gluconeogenesis?

A

Occurs mostly in liver and kidneys, converts amino acids–>glucose or glycogen, clears lactic acid and glycerol and under strict hormonal regulation

105
Q

What are the key features involved in fatty acid synthesis?

A

occurs in cytosol of mostly hepatocytes, conversion of acetyl-CoA –>malonyl CoA is the rate-limiting step

106
Q

What are the key features involved in the electron transport chain?

A

occus in inner mitochondrial membrane, produces ATP via oxidative phosphorylation of ADP, reoxidizes NADP and FADH2 back –> NAD+ and FAD as electrons flow through a series of four cytochrome complexes of increasing redox potential

107
Q

What are the key features involved with beta oxidation?

A

occurs in the mitochondrial matrix of hepatocytes, converts acyl-CoA –>acetyl-CoA

108
Q

What are the key features involved in glycolysis (AKA Embden-Meyerhof Pathway)?

A

Occurs in cytosol, converts glucose to two pyruvate. Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate –>fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate via PFK is the rate limiting step

109
Q

Which enzyme is inhibited by fluoride?

A

Enolase, the enzyme that convers 2-phosphoglycerate–>phosphoenolpyruvate

110
Q

How are free fatty acids transported in the blood?

A

Albumin

111
Q

What are differences between interleukins and cytokines?

A

interleukins are a subset of cytokines: IL is the largest group and regulates leukocyte activity. Cytokines are secreted by T cells

112
Q

What are the branches of the external carotid artery (SALFOPMS)?

A

Superior thyroid a., ascending pharyngeal a., lingual a., facial a., occipital a., posterior auricular a., maxillary a., superficial temporal a.

113
Q

What are the branches of the internal carotid artery (DSLAPS)?

A

circle of willis and in opthalmic branch (dorsal nasal, supratrochlear, lacrimal, anterior ethmoid, posterior ethmoid and supraorbital aa.)

114
Q

What are the branches of the subclavian artery (VIT C&D)?

A

verterbral, internal thoracic, thyrocervical trunk, costocervical trunk and dorsal scapular aa.

115
Q

What are the branches of the facial artery? (TAGS ISLA)

A

Tonsillar, ascending palatine, glandular, submental, inferior labial, superior labial, lateral nasal and angular aa.

116
Q

What are the major vessels originated in the arch of the aorta?

A

brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery and left subclavian artery

117
Q

What are all the cranial nerves that have branchial motor functions?

A

CNs V, VII, IX, X, XI

118
Q

What are all the cranial nerves that have special sensory functions?

A

CNs I, II, VII, VIII, IX, X

119
Q

What are all the cranial nerves that have somatic motor functions?

A

CNs III, IV, VI, XII

120
Q

What are all the cranial nerves that have visceral sensory functions?

A

CNs IX, X

121
Q

What are all the cranial nerves that have parasympathetic function?

A

CNs III, VII, IX, X

122
Q

Which tract relays sensations of pain in the spine?

A

Lateral spinothalamic tract

123
Q

What are the major characteristics of skeletal muscle?

A

Multinucleated, striated, motor innervation, voluntary, T-tubules, regulation with actin, troponin

124
Q

What are the major characteristics of cardiac muscle?

A

striated, single nucleation, autonomic innervation, involuntary, syncytium, actin regulation

125
Q

What are the major characteristics of smooth muscle?

A

no striations, single nucleation, autonomic innervation, syncytium, no T-tubules, regulation via myosin no troponin

126
Q

What type of cell tissue surrounds the condylar surface in the TMJ?

A

Fibrocartilage

127
Q

What cellular structure creates Howships lacunae?

A

Osteoclasts are multinucleated giant cells that reside in resorption bays known as Howship’s lacunae. They pro- duce a large number of hydrolytic enzymes from their characteristic ruffled border.

128
Q

What structure in the brain controls vomiting?

A

Medulla oblongata

129
Q

What is the target of anti-gout medications?

A

Inhibits xanthine oxidase?

130
Q

What compartment within the TMJ causes hinge movement of the condyle?

A

Lower compartment

131
Q

Which antibody is most abundant in primary infections?

A

IgM

132
Q

What compartment within the TMJ causes translation movement of the condyle?

A

Upper compartment

133
Q

Which antiobiotic should you prescribe for patients with penicillin allergies?

A

Possibilities include clindamycin (Cleocin), cephalexin (Keflex), azithromycin (Zithromax) and clarithromycin (Biaxin)

134
Q

Where is the active form of Vitamin D created?

A

Kidney (sunlight–>skin–>liver–>kidney–>active form)

135
Q

What pierces the diaphragm at T8?

A

Inferior vena cava

136
Q

What pierces the diaphragm at T10?

A

Esophagus and vagus nerve

137
Q

What pierces the diaphragm at T12?

A

Azygous vein and thoracic duct

138
Q

What is the most potent anaphalxtoxin?

A

C5a then C3a

139
Q

What is important about the foramen ovale in the fetal heart?

A

Allows blood to flow from RA to LA, bypass pulmonary circuit (because blood comes from the mother/placenta) it closes with fibrous connective tissue to become the fossa ovalis in the adult

140
Q

From where are mineralcorticoids secreted?

A

Zona glomerulosa

141
Q

What are characteristics of arbovirus?

A

Arboviruses are arthropod- borne viruses (mosquitoes, ticks): West Nile virus, yellow fever virus, Dengue virus, Colorado tick fever virus, and Eastern/Western encephalitis virus.

142
Q

What is Gaucher’s disease?

A

Deficiency of beta-glucocerebrosidase enzyme causing an accumulation of glucocerebrosides (autosomal recessive) and the patient presents with splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, anemia, skin pigmentation and is the most common of the lipid storage diseases

143
Q

What is Von Willebrand disease?

A

Autosomal dominant qualitative platelet disease (plately dysfunction is secondary to decrease in vWF)

144
Q

What is Hurler’s syndrome?

A

An autosomal recessive mucopolysaccharide storage disease caused by a deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase resulting in an accumulation of heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate. Clinical features include developmental retardation, corneal clouding, gargoylism

145
Q

What is Niemann Pick disease?

A

Deficiency of sphingomyelinase causing an accumulation of sphingomyelin (autosomal recessive) and the patient presents with CNS degeneration, developmental retardation, cherry red spot on macula and can be rapidly fatal

146
Q

Where is ADH produced?

A

Supraoptic nuclei of hypothalamus

147
Q

What portion of dentin is the most mineralized?

A

peritubular dentin

148
Q

Where is the majority of water found in the body?

A

Intracellularly (2/3 TBW vs. ECF 1/3 TBW)

149
Q

Which cells in the lungs create/secrete surfactant?

A

Type II pneumocytes

150
Q

What does the term compliance refer to in the vascular system?

A

Compliance is the ability of a hollow organ (vessel) to distend and increase volume with increasing transmural pressure or the tendency of a hollow organ to resist recoil toward its original dimensions on application of a distending or compressing force.

151
Q

What pathogen is responsible for releaseing aflatoxin?

A

Aflatoxins are hepato- carcinogenic toxins produced by Aspergillus flavus, generally found in contaminated grains and peanuts.

152
Q

What medium is used to grow fungi?

A

Sabouraud medium

153
Q

What is dysgeusia?

A

Dysgeusia is a distortion of the sense of taste.

154
Q

What controls the gag reflex?

A

Medulla oblongata and auricular branch of vagus CN X

155
Q

What do parafollicular cells secrete and where are they found?

A

Found in thyroid. Parafollicular (C) cells produce calcitonin which lowers blood calcium and phosphate

156
Q

Which nerve innervates the ring finger?

A

Ulnar nerve (C8-T1) also innervates the pinky

157
Q

Alpha 1

A

Vascular smooth muscle (skin, mucosa, GI) Effect: vasoconstriction

158
Q

Alpha 2

A

Presynaptic nerve terminals-decrease synaptic transmission (platelets-platelet aggregation, fat cells-inhibit lipolysis, GI tract wall) Effect inhibition (relaxation or dilation)

159
Q

Beta 1

A

Heart Effect: increased heart rate and contractility

160
Q

Beta 2

A

skeletal muscle bronchial smooth muscle Effect: vasodilation, bronchodilation

161
Q

What is the action of the coracobrachialis?

A

flexes shoulder and arm (innervated by musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C7)

162
Q

Which cranial sinus is the largest?

A

Maxillary sinus

163
Q

Pterygomandibular raphe

A

Meeting point of the buccinator muscle and superior pharyngeal constrictor, origin of buccinator

164
Q

retromandibular vein

A

Formed by superficial temporal and maxillary veins, contained in anterior triangle and parotid fascial space

165
Q

What opens the vocal cords?

A

posterior cricoarytenoid? innervated by recurrent laryngeal nerve

166
Q

What are two donors of ammonia?

A

aspartate and alanine?

167
Q

Which amino acid is the one for umami taste?

A

Glutamate

168
Q

What are mallory bodies?

A

Mallory bodies are classically found in the livers of people suffering from alcoholic liver disease and were once thought to be specific for that.

169
Q

What is the most common form of anemia?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

170
Q

What is the mechanism of rifampicin?

A

Rifampicin inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA synthesis by inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

171
Q

What is the action of cephalosporins and penicillins?

A

Inhibit peptidoglycan cross-linking by blocking transpeptidase during last stage of cell wall synthesis

172
Q

Which pharyngeal arch does the hyoid come from?

A

Arch 2

173
Q

What type of epithelium is present in buccal mucosa?

A

Thick stratified squamous (nonkeratinized) epithelium

174
Q

Hering-Breuer reflex

A

Reflex to prevent overinflation; inflate lungs–>expiration deflate lungs–>inspiration. Mediated by myelinated slow responding receptors (stretch receptors). Vagus nerve (afferent)

175
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

hereditary accumulation of copper in liver, kidney, brain, and cornea. It is characterized by cirrhosis of the liver, degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain, and deposition of green pigment in periphera of cornea.

176
Q

CREST syndrome

A

CREST syndrome-Variant of scleroderma, Positive anti-Scl-70: Characterized byCalcinosis, Raynaud’s
phenomenon, Esophageal
dysfunction, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia

177
Q

Creutzfeldtz jakob disease

A

Prions: Infectious agents composed entirely of protein (no nucleic acid).
Do not elicit inflammatory or antibody responses.
Cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathy:
Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (in humans).
Mad cow disease (in cows).

178
Q

Parkinson’s disease manifests with a deficiency of what?

A

Loss of DA neurons in basal ganglia

179
Q

What is the function of fumarase?

A

Fumarase (or fumarate hydratase) is an enzyme that catalyzes the reversible hydration/dehydration of fumarate to malate.

180
Q

Which form of rickettsia is not transmitted by an arthropod vector?

A

Q fever

181
Q

What innervates the biceps?

A

Musculocutaneous (C5-C7)

182
Q

What adducts the scapula?

A

serratus anterior?

183
Q

Cytoplasmic basophilia

A

increased frequency of Döhle bodies are the first “toxic” changes to appear in association with increased granulocytopoiesis, generally associated with an inflammatory reaction

184
Q

Tay Sacchs Disease

A

Deficient enzyme: hexosaminidase A, accumulated lipid: gangliosides, clinical features: NCS degeneration, developmental retardateion, cherry red spot on macula, rapidly fatal

185
Q

In normal occlusion, when the mandible makes a right working movement, which of the following bay be in relation to the ML cusp of the maxillary left first molar?

A

Sulcus between distofacial and distal cusps of the mandibular first molar.

186
Q

In permanent dentition, pulp chamber morphology makes which of the following pulp horns most subject to accidental exposure in the preparation of a Class II cavity?

A

Facial of a mandibular first premolar

187
Q

When does the maxillary canine erupt with respect to the maxillary lateral incisor and first premolar?

A

after lateral incisor and after first premolar

188
Q

The permanent mandibular canine is sometimes bifurcated into which two directions?

A

Facial and lingual roots

189
Q

The lingual cusp of the maxillary first premolar inclines in which direction?

A

Mesial

190
Q

Maxillary facial and mandibular lingual cusps require sufficient occlusal length and horizontal overlap for what major function?

A

Soft tissue protection

191
Q

Viewed from the occlusal, the basic coronal outline of the mandibular second premolar is what geometric shape?

A

Square

192
Q

Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is most characteristic of what?

A

Viral pneumonia

193
Q

The etiology of acute diffuse glomerulonephritis seems to be due to?

A

Allergic reaction of glomerular and vascular tissue to beta-hemolytic streptococcal products

194
Q

The most conspicuous clinical sign of right-sided heart failure is?

A

Systemic venous congestion

195
Q

The renal disease most commonly related to hypertension is?

A

nephrosclerosis

196
Q

Detergents kill bacteria by interfering with the function of the cell _______?

A

membrane

197
Q

Massive necrotizing lesions of the palate in a patient with poorly-controlled diabetes mellitus are frequently related to?

A

phycomycosis

198
Q

A bacterium well known for its large polysaccharide capsule is?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

199
Q

IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately?

A

1 month

200
Q

The most reliable finding in the serodiagnosis of an acute infectious disease is?

A

rising antibody titer

201
Q

Root surface caries has been related to

A

Actinomyces and Odontomyces

202
Q

The most reliable postmortem indicator of left ventricular cardiac failure is?

A

chronic passive congestion of the lungs

203
Q

When T-cells from people with chronic periodontal disease are reacted with certain plaque bacterial antigens, they produce?

A

MIF, OAF and lymphotoxin

204
Q

What is a Ghon focus (tubercle)?

A

A primary lung lesion in the periphery

205
Q

The presence of which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility?

A

Protein coat

206
Q

Mycotic organisms are characteristically found microscopically within reticuloendothelial cells in?

A

Histoplasmosis

207
Q

The predisposition of an individual to sensitization is characteristic of?

A

Atopic allergy

208
Q

Peptic ulcer most commonly occurs in the?

A

First part of the duodenum

209
Q

Protection against encapsulated bacterial pathogens is mediated mainly by

A

Humoral immunity

210
Q

Serum sickness syndrome is an example of?

A

A systemic Arthus reaction

211
Q

The form of bacterial gene transfer that is least susceptible to DNase and does NOT require cell-to-cell contact is?

A

Transduction

212
Q

In which segment of the nephron does tubular fluid have the highest osmolality?

A

Henle’s loop

213
Q

Cleft lip results from the failure of merging of?

A

Maxillary and medial nasal processes.

214
Q

What extrinsic muscle of the tongue functions to retract the tongue?

A

Styloglossis

NBDE I Review (6 decks)

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