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review question bank Flashcards

1
Q

a 12 lb cat needs 360 ml of fluid per day. Calculate the drip rate for this cat using a 60 gtt/mL drip set ?

A

1 gtt/ 4 sec

360 mL / 24 hrs = 15 ml/hr
15 ml/ hr x 60 gtt/ml = 900 gtt/hr
900 gtt/hr x 1 hr/60 min = 15 min x 1 min/60 sec = 0.25 gtt/sec = 1 gtt/4 sec

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2
Q

A symptom of botulism is:

A

dysphagia

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3
Q

what is botulism

A

is a rapidly progressive, often fatal neurologcal disease in horses. characterized by profound weaknessm muscle fasciculations, and dysphagia (inability to swallow).

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4
Q

Bovine viral diarrhea can manifest with all of the following clinical symptoms, except:

  • Oral ulcers
  • Pyrexia
  • Bloat
  • Lethargy
A

Bloat

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5
Q

What is BVD

A

Bovine Viral Diarhhea, common viral pathogen affecting all ages of cattle. manifest as sudden onset of fever, depression, anorexia, oral and GI ulcers and ersions, and diarhhea(sometimes w blood and mucus).
responsible for abortions, in utero infections and birth defects

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6
Q

Which of the following conditions matches a patient exhibiting a head tilt, facial paresis, nystagmus, positional strabismus, and ataxia?

A

Vestibular syndrome

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7
Q

What is brachycephalic syndrome

A

a collection of anatomical features that a bracycepahlic is prediposed to havbg, which imepedes proper breathering

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8
Q

Horner syndrome

A

described as miosis, ptosis (drooping eyelid), enophthalmos(posterior displacement of eye bc of muscle dysfunction), and protruding nictitans

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9
Q

Wobbler syndrome

A

is ataxia and paresis that occus from vetebral malfromations (spondylosis)

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10
Q

Which of the following animals does NOT have bulbourethral glands?

A

dog

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11
Q

what is bulbourethral glands

A

they secrete a mucinous fluid before ejaculation that clears and lubricates the urethra for the passage of semen

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12
Q

The two main minerals that make up bone are:

A

calcium and phosphorus

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13
Q

If the client wants to feed a preservative-free food to a pet, which food should you recommend?

A

canned food

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14
Q

Which of the following provides a smooth joint surface, allowing the bones to move freely over one another?

A

cartilage

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15
Q

In cats, hepatic lipidosis often occurs as a result of which of the following?

A

anorexia and weight loss

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16
Q

Cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle?

A

polyestrous

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17
Q

Causes of congenital heart disease include all of the following, except:

A

viruses

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18
Q

Epithelial cells that contain tiny hairlike projections that move foreign particles along the epithelial surface are known as:

A

ciliated epithelium

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19
Q

Which of the following are clinical symptoms seen in a cat with heartworm disease?

A

vomitting

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20
Q

Which of the following diseases exhibit coughing, fever and mucopurulent discharge?

A

canine distemper

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21
Q

You have been asked to obtain a blood sample for a CBC and chemistry panel from a 100-g cockatiel. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used in this species?

A

jugular vein

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22
Q

All of the following can result from colitis in horses, except:

A

hypervolemia

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23
Q

What does frank blood in the diarrhea indicate?

A

colitis

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24
Q

The initial secretion of the mammary gland before milk is produced is known as:

A

colostrum

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25
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of bradycardia?

A

hyperkalemia

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26
Q

what are common causes of bradycardia

A

hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, toxin ingestion and increased Increased intracranial pressure

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27
Q
A
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28
Q

what are common causes of tachycardia

A

hypovolemia, hypoxia, and hypokalemia

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29
Q

What is the most common cause of alopecia and dermatitis in the pet mouse?

A

fur mites

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30
Q

Common symptoms of diabetes in both dogs and cats include:

A
  • bradypnea/bradycardic
  • PU/PD
  • Weight gain/pitting edema
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31
Q

Which of the following is not generally a symptom of osteoarthritis in cats?

A

changes in eating habits

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32
Q

what are common symptoms of osteoarthritis in cats

A
  • mobility changes (reluctance to jump or juump as high)
  • changes in activity level such as decreased playing or hunting
  • change in grooming habits
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33
Q

Complications of colitis in an equine patient could include:

A

founder(laminitis)

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34
Q

what are complications of colitis

A
  • Laminitis (founder)
  • CV collapse
  • cardiac arrhythmias
  • thrombophlebitis
  • stertor/stritor noises made while breathing
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35
Q

Contagious ecthyma is a common viral disease of small ruminants that is zoonotic. What is this disease also known as?

A

orf / sore mouth

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36
Q

When a female dog is bred, the amount of food (calories) she is fed should be increased:

A

5 or 6 weeks after breeding

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37
Q

Deficiencies in iron may result in anemia. Which of these minerals may also cause anemia if it is deficient in a dog’s or a cat’s diet?

A

copper

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38
Q

An abnormal dilation of the pupil of the eye is defined as:

A

corectasis

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39
Q

To perform coupage, cupped hands should be used to tap firmly on the chest wall, starting:

A

Caudally and working forward

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40
Q

Which of the following is a common contributor to pancreatitis specific to dogs? Which of the following is a technique used to used to help loosen purulent material within the pulmonary parenchyma?

A

coupage

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41
Q

Clinical symptoms of milk fever include:

A

staggering gate

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42
Q

Current recommendations for feeding critically ill patients are to begin feeding equal to the patient’s estimated:

A

Resting energy requirement (RER)

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43
Q

Which of the following is least useful when resuscitating a dog in shock?

A

D5W

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44
Q

Rickets is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?

A

Vit D

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45
Q

Which of these endocrine disorders can result from the failure of the pituitary gland to produce antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

diabetes insipidus

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46
Q

In general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats?

A

5 to 7 days

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47
Q

A pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation?

A

Zonary

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48
Q

During the estrus phase of the mare, which of the following occurs?

A

Ovulation

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49
Q

A bitch’s food caloric needs are highest:

A

During the fourth week of lactation

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50
Q

Which of the following is commonly seen in rabbits, in which the intestinal flora is disrupted?

A

Dysbiosis

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51
Q

What nerve block is commonly used to desensitize nerves and add additional analgesia to an onychectomy procedure?

A

circumferential nerve block

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52
Q

what is a circumferential nerve block commonly used for

A

used to desensitize nerves and to add aditional analgesia to an onychectomy procedure

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53
Q

what is a retrobulbar block is commonly used for

A

used to desensitize the eye before enucleation surgery

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54
Q

what does an epidural do

A

provides desensititzation to the trunk and lower extremities

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55
Q

what does a sacrococcygeal block do

A

provides desensitization to the tail, anus, penis or vulva

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56
Q

Regarding the use of pain scales in hospitalized animals, which of the following statements is false?

  • Pain scales may encourage routine evaluation of hospitalized animals.
  • Pain scales can be used to determine whether analgesic therapy should be discontinued.
  • Effective analgesic therapy should result in an animal with a low pain score.
  • A low pain score indicates that analgesic therapy is sufficient, even if an animal is exhibiting some questionable behaviors.
A

A low pain score indicates that analgesic therapy is sufficient, even if an animal is exhibiting some questionable behaviors.

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57
Q

During hospitalization, how often should a pain assessment be performed?

A

every 4-6 hrs

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58
Q

Of the following listed blocks, which is not a dental nerve block?

  • Mandibular nerve block
  • Mental nerve block
  • Infraorbital nerve block
  • Retrobulbar nerve block
A

Retrobulbar nerve block

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59
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of alpha-2 agonists?

A

Increased heart rate

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59
Q

If your patient begins responding to surgical stimulation under anesthesia, what should the technician’s next step optimally be?

A

Administer IV analgesics

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60
Q

A drug termed an antagonist has which characteristics?

A

Affinity present but no efficacy

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61
Q

Chronic pain is often divided into what two categories?

A

nociceptive pain and neuropathic pain

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62
Q

During cryotherapy, the cold temperature raises the activation threshold of:

A

tissue nociceptors

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63
Q

When should cryotherapy be applied for best response?

A

during the acute inflammatory phase of tissue healing

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64
Q

Why is electrical stimulation used at select acupuncture points?

A

to increase the duration of effect

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65
Q

Which of the following opioid analgesics is often used as a continuous rate infusion because of its short duration of action (approximately 30 minutes)?

A

fentanyl

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66
Q

Gabapentin has proven useful for patients experiencing osteoarthritis pain, especially when used in combination with what other drug class?

A

NSAIDs

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67
Q

Which of the following answers represents the three zones of gray matter in the spinal cord?

A

Dorsal horn, ventral horn, intermediate zone

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68
Q

Veterinary technicians that advocate for pain management are most closely compared to what group of nurses?

A

Human neonatal and pediatric nurses

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69
Q

Which of the following opioids would be the best choice for moderate to severe pain?

A

hydromorphone

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70
Q

What inhibits the aggrecanase enzymes responsible for cartilage degradation in cats?

A

Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

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71
Q

Which of the following is essential for good communication between veterinarians and veterinary technicians who are working in pain management?

A

Knowledge of the physiology of pain and the pharmacology of analgesics

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72
Q

To prolong the duration of action because of vasoconstriction, lidocaine is often available in combination with what other drug?

A

epinephrine

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73
Q

When should low-level laser therapy not be used?

A

Over areas of malignancy or cancer

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74
Q

Which of the following analgesic adjuncts works to block NK-1 receptors and subsequent activation of substance P?

A

Maropitant

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75
Q

Massage is an example of which type of rehabilitation technique?

A

Manual therapy

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76
Q

How painful is an ovariohysterectomy?

A

moderate

77
Q

Which of the following is an example of an opioid agonist?

A

morphine

78
Q

Which of the following opioids is most commonly used for epidural analgesia?

A

morphine

79
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pain assessment in dogs is true?

  • Physiological parameters, such as heart rate and blood pressure, are sensitive tools for assessing pain in dogs.
  • A visual analog scale is a type of multidimensional pain scale and is useful for assessing pain in dogs.
  • Multidimensional pain scales yield better interobserver agreement than unidimensional pain scales.
  • Multidimensional pain scales correlate closely with vocalization and serum cortisol levels in chronically painful dogs.
A

Multidimensional pain scales yield better interobserver agreement than unidimensional pain scales.

80
Q

what is myelin

A

it covers the A delta nerve fibers , helps transmit impulses more quickly across the axons and synapses of nerves

81
Q

what is substance P

A

it is a neurotransmitter that transmitter pain impulses along the A-delta fibers

82
Q

What is the function of myelin?

A

To increase the rate of nerve impulse transmission.

83
Q

A traumatic cause of OA in dogs includes obesity as a risk factor. What is the most common traumatic cause of OA in dogs?

A

Ruptured cruciate ligaments

84
Q

Which of the following opioids is the best choice of analgesic for an ER patient for whom vomiting and/or abdominal contractions are contraindicated?

A

methadone

85
Q

Which of the following drugs is not considered an alpha-2 agonist?

A

acepromazine

86
Q

Of the inhalant anesthetics, which is the only one thought to have analgesic properties?

A

nitrous oxide

87
Q

Which of the following opioids is least likely to cause vomiting in cats?

A

methadone

88
Q

What is meant by the term noxious stimulus?

A

A damaging or potentially damaging tissue stimulus

89
Q

Prostaglandins play an important role in:

A

Mammalian renal physiology

90
Q

Which of the following terms describes the technique when a local anesthetic is injected into the cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Spinal anesthesia

91
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in the process of pain perception as well as in the vomiting reflex?

A

Substance P

92
Q

What block can be performed before surgery of the abdominal cavity?

A

Incisional block

93
Q

When should cryotherapy be applied for best response?

A

During the acute inflammatory phase of tissue healing , After exercise to lessen inflammatory response,
Immediately following surgery

94
Q

Which of the following chemicals is not considered a major inflammatory mediator of pain?

A

estrogen

95
Q

Which of the following drugs has been useful in not only reducing opioid-related nausea and vomiting, but also in reducing the MAC of anesthetic gases needed when given preoperatively?

A

maropitant

96
Q

Which of the following mu agonist opioids also has additional affinity for the NMDA receptor making it potentially useful for neuropathic pain?

A

methadone

97
Q

Which of the following is an example of an opioid agonist?

A

morphine

98
Q

Which of the following describes a myofascial trigger point?

A

A painful area of sustained muscle contraction that cannot easily self-release

99
Q

Which of the following does not function as an NMDA receptor antagonist?

A

Hydromorphone

100
Q

How do nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs exert their analgesic activity?

A

Inhibition of the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).

101
Q

what is bucking

A

the animal is trying to breath agaist the set respiratpry rhythm and volume being delivered by the machanical ventilator

102
Q

You are examining the capnography waveform of the patient under anesthesia. You notice that the baseline is elevated (not going back to zero), but the waveform otherwise looks normal. Why might this be happening?

A

the patient is rebreathing CO2

103
Q

Which of the following describes capnometers where the measuring chambers are placed directly in the airway and the measurement signal is generated?

A

mainstream capnometer

104
Q

what does sidestream capnometer mean

A

connected to the ETtube via an end piece that contains a sampling line that continuously sample respiratory gases

105
Q

What should be used to clean most monitoring devices?

A

mild soap and water

106
Q

What are the 2 main components of “double drip”?

A

Guaifenesin and ketamine

107
Q

what is a double drip

A

500-mL bag of 5% dextrose in water containing 5% guaifenesin, to which 5 mL of ketamine has been added

108
Q

You are preparing for an emergency German shepherd patient presenting with a suspected GDV. It will likely require emergency surgery soon after arrival. In preparing for the procedure, where you are going to place the IV catheter?

A

Large-bore catheter in the jugular vein

109
Q

Which type of laryngoscope is composed of a straight blade with a light source on a handle?

A

Miller

110
Q

What is a miller laryngoscope

A

the blade is straight on the laryngoscope

111
Q

what is te Macintosh laryngoscope

A

the blade is curved

112
Q

What is the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification system rating for a patient that is anemic or moderately dehydrated?

A

class P3

113
Q

What does the term hypostatic congestion mean?

A

Pooling of blood in the dependent lung

114
Q

how do you prevent hypostatic congestion

A

the patient in recovery should be turned every 10-15 minutes to prevent pooling of the blood in the dependent lung

115
Q

You have a patient that looks asleep, will not respond to voice, but will respond to pain. Which of the following would describe its level of consciousness?

A

stuporous

stupor (sleep like state)

116
Q

What is the LOC if patients are more depressed and cannot be fully aroused

A

obtunded

117
Q

Placing an endotracheal tube that is too small compared with the diameter of the trachea can cause:

A

Increase in airway resistance

118
Q

Common side effects of acepromazine include all of the following except:

A

Respiratory depressant

119
Q

in what situation should acepromazine be avoided in and why?

A

patient in shock (hit by car) and/or cardiovascular instability due to peripheral vasodilation leading to decreased temp and overall blood pressure

120
Q

what agents are cross placental ?

A

Ace, diazepam, isoflurane

121
Q

Where does atropine block the release of acetylcholine?

A

Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system

122
Q

What 2 receptors are associated with the PNS system for acetylcholine?

A

nicotinic and muscarnic receptors

123
Q

Which of the following types of pain is considered a protective pain?

A

acute pain , serves as a warning

124
Q

Which of the following types of pain dissipates as the initial source of pain resolves?

A

acute pain

125
Q

Which of the following types of pain is most associated with trauma or surgery?

A

adaptive pain

126
Q

Which of the following are considered adjuncts for pain management?

A

Weight loss
Laser therapy
Physical rehabilitation

127
Q

What is the indication for induction with etomidate in dogs?

A

Severe cardiac disease

128
Q

why is etomidate the induction agent of choice for animals with moderate to severe heart disease ?

A

it has little effect on heart rate, rhythm, blood pressure and cardiac output after a brief period of hypotension

129
Q

what is the induction agent of choice for renal patients?

A

propofol

130
Q

what induction agent cannot be given to orthopedic patients?

A

etomidate

131
Q

Inadequate oxygenation of the tissues for longer than________ minutes could result in brain damage

A

4

132
Q

Which of the following factors do not influence minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?

A

sex

133
Q

When is airway obstruction most likely to occur in a surgical patient?

A

During the preanesthetic and recovery period

134
Q

what is an example of a neuroactive steroid anesthetic?

A

Alfaxalone

135
Q

Reptiles have a three-chambered heart consisting of the following:

A

Two atria and one ventricle

136
Q

Which inhalant anesthetic causes the most dramatic increase in cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure?

A

nitrous oxide

137
Q

Which of the following opioids would be best to use in cases where you want to avoid vomiting such as cases with increased intracranial pressure?

A

Methadone

138
Q

All of the following patients would be a good candidate for etomidate as the induction drug, except for patients that are experiencing:

A

Cesarean section
Known cardiac disease
Cardiovascular instability resulting from trauma

139
Q

Which of the following fluids is considered an unbalanced solution?

A

0.9% saline

140
Q

which drug is most preferred for pediatric patients for surgery to help maintain heartrate

A

anticholinergics

141
Q

What agent should be avoided in geriatric patients?

A

dexmedetomidine

142
Q

why are some alpha 2 adrenergic agonists avoided in geriatric patients?

A

dexmedetomidine, medetomidine, and xylazine require extensive hepatic metabolism and have dose-related negative effects on the cardiovascular, respiratory, and central nervous systems.

143
Q

Which of the following drugs drastically reduces cardiac output?

A

dexmedetomidine

144
Q

Which drug is the most potent sedative?

A

detomidine

used in horses for sedation, analgesia and msucle relaxation

145
Q

if image has a good degreee of blackness but need more details, what do you need to change?

A

mAs (bc how much electrons are produced)

146
Q

Your radiograph appears dark grey at the open areas, what do you need to change?

A

KvP (penetration of power)

147
Q

What size endotracheal tube would an adult 18-kg dog require?

A

9–9.5 mm

148
Q

what is a passive scavenger system?

A

Uses positive pressure of the gas in the anesthetic machine to push gas into the scavenger

149
Q

what is an active system

A

uses suction created by a vacuum pump or fan to draw gas into the scavenger

150
Q

When is the negative pressure relief valve important?

A

If there is a failure of oxygen flow through the system

151
Q

Which of the following statements are false?

  • Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space.
  • Choosing a tube that is too small may result in increased resistance to breathing.
  • Choosing a tube that is too long may result in hypoxemia
  • Failure to cuff the tube may result in aspiration of foreign material.
A

Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space.

152
Q

Which of the following local blocks would provide additional anesthesia/analgesia to a sheep undergoing a large abdominal surgery?

A

Epidural block

153
Q

in what regions would an epidural block be used ?

A

the flank, abdomen, inguinal, and perineal regions.

154
Q

when would a caudal block be used

A

primarily for obstetric procedures of the vagina and vulva or for tail docking.

155
Q

when would a peroneal block be used ?

A

hind limb below the hock

156
Q

what would a cornual block be used

A

dehorning procedures

157
Q

An intact thoracic cavity is under ______________.

A

Negative pressure

158
Q

when would you not place a patient on a controlled ventilator

A

intestinal foreign body

159
Q

when should a patient be placed on a controlled ventilator

A

has an inability to ventilate because of factors such as decreased ventilator drive resulting from anesthetic agents or the patient having a thoracotomy,

ex: open thorax thoracotomy, chest wall trauma, Neuromuscular blockade, Pneumothorax

160
Q

All of the following items make it easier to intubate swine, except

  • Speculum
  • Laryngoscope
  • Stylet
  • Epiglotoscope
A

Epiglotoscope

161
Q

Which of the following is safe to use in animals that will be slaughtered?

A

none, they should not be given any sedatives or tranquilizers

162
Q

Which drug and its drug class is not generally suggested for use in ruminants?

A

atropine ; anticholinergics

163
Q

Which of the following is the volume of the breathing system occupied by gases that are rebreathed without any change in composition?

A

Apparatus dead space

164
Q

what is apparatus dead space

A

the volume of the breathing system occupied by gases that are rebreathed withot any change in composition

165
Q

The benefits of placing an arterial catheter include all of the following except:

  • Ability to obtain central venous pressure
  • Ability to obtain direct blood pressure
  • Provides access to quick blood sample collection
  • Ability to obtain and monitor blood gas samples
A

Ability to obtain central venous pressure

166
Q

A patient in ASA class I physical status is:

A

A normal patient with no organic disease

167
Q

Why should glycopyrrolate be used in rabbits instead of atropine?

A

Many rabbits have high levels of atropinase, so atropine is relatively ineffective

168
Q

At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?

A

increases

169
Q

Which of the following drugs would most likely be the cause of atrioventricular block in a patient under anesthesia?

A

Dexmedetomidine

170
Q

What will the approximate blood volume of a 40-g adult mouse be?

A

3 mL

Average adult mouse blood volume is 2.5 mL

171
Q

Which of the following is defined as the delivery of specific drugs for analgesia, sedation, amnesia, and muscle relaxation?

A

balanced anesthesia

172
Q

Because of the enlarged fleshy tongue and a narrowed upper airway, which of the following statements is correct when dealing with neonatal and pediatric patients undergoing general anesthesia?

A

Neonatal and pediatric patients should be intubated for all procedures requiring general anesthesia because they are at risk for upper airway obstruction

173
Q

Why might you not get an accurate reading from a pulse oximeter in small mammals?

A

The heart rate of the animal may exceed the upper range of the instrument

174
Q

A 10-year-old mixed-breed intact male dog presents to the clinic after being rescued from a house fire. He is tachycardiac, dyspneic, and has a large wound on his left hind limb. This patient is compromised. Which of the following would be the better anes

A

Etomidate and midazolam

175
Q

Which of the following are tranquilizers that cause muscle relaxation, and in some young healthy animals, this can also cause excitation?

A

benzodiazepines

176
Q

Which of the following drugs when administered alone produces minimal sedation in healthy dogs and cats?

A

Midazolam

177
Q

Which of the following drugs can cause excitation in healthy patients when used as a premedication or induction agent?

A

Midazolam

178
Q

Which of the following is the ideal way to assess ventilation in the horse?

A

Blood gas analysis

179
Q

Which of the following best represents systolic blood pressure?

A

The pressure measured when the left ventricle contracts

180
Q

What is an advantage of using medetomidine combined with ketamine for anesthesia of rodents and rabbits?

A

It can be partially reversed by using atipamezole, allowing faster recovery

181
Q

Which of the following can profoundly affect cardiac output and blood pressure in the neonate?

A

Bradycardia

182
Q

Which of the following opioids can be used effectively in the feline patient when administered via the transmucosal route?

A

Buprenorphine

183
Q

It is believed that the viscera may contain more kappa receptors than mu receptors. If this is correct, which of the following drugs would provide better analgesia for visceral pain?

A

Butorphanol

184
Q

what kind of agonist is butorphanol

A

Kappa

185
Q

Which opiods are mu receptor

A

Morphine, oxymorphone, and hydromorphone

186
Q

Which of the following drugs is classified as a full mu opioid?

A

Hydromorphone

187
Q

which opioid is a partial mu agonist

A

buprenorphine

188
Q

What is the main component of soda lime (a substance used to absorb carbon dioxide from the breathing system)?

A

Calcium hydroxide

189
Q

Cardiac output in the pediatric patient is primarily dependent on which of the following?

A

heart rate

190
Q
A

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