review question bank Flashcards
a 12 lb cat needs 360 ml of fluid per day. Calculate the drip rate for this cat using a 60 gtt/mL drip set ?
1 gtt/ 4 sec
360 mL / 24 hrs = 15 ml/hr
15 ml/ hr x 60 gtt/ml = 900 gtt/hr
900 gtt/hr x 1 hr/60 min = 15 min x 1 min/60 sec = 0.25 gtt/sec = 1 gtt/4 sec
A symptom of botulism is:
dysphagia
what is botulism
is a rapidly progressive, often fatal neurologcal disease in horses. characterized by profound weaknessm muscle fasciculations, and dysphagia (inability to swallow).
Bovine viral diarrhea can manifest with all of the following clinical symptoms, except:
- Oral ulcers
- Pyrexia
- Bloat
- Lethargy
Bloat
What is BVD
Bovine Viral Diarhhea, common viral pathogen affecting all ages of cattle. manifest as sudden onset of fever, depression, anorexia, oral and GI ulcers and ersions, and diarhhea(sometimes w blood and mucus).
responsible for abortions, in utero infections and birth defects
Which of the following conditions matches a patient exhibiting a head tilt, facial paresis, nystagmus, positional strabismus, and ataxia?
Vestibular syndrome
What is brachycephalic syndrome
a collection of anatomical features that a bracycepahlic is prediposed to havbg, which imepedes proper breathering
Horner syndrome
described as miosis, ptosis (drooping eyelid), enophthalmos(posterior displacement of eye bc of muscle dysfunction), and protruding nictitans
Wobbler syndrome
is ataxia and paresis that occus from vetebral malfromations (spondylosis)
Which of the following animals does NOT have bulbourethral glands?
dog
what is bulbourethral glands
they secrete a mucinous fluid before ejaculation that clears and lubricates the urethra for the passage of semen
The two main minerals that make up bone are:
calcium and phosphorus
If the client wants to feed a preservative-free food to a pet, which food should you recommend?
canned food
Which of the following provides a smooth joint surface, allowing the bones to move freely over one another?
cartilage
In cats, hepatic lipidosis often occurs as a result of which of the following?
anorexia and weight loss
Cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle?
polyestrous
Causes of congenital heart disease include all of the following, except:
viruses
Epithelial cells that contain tiny hairlike projections that move foreign particles along the epithelial surface are known as:
ciliated epithelium
Which of the following are clinical symptoms seen in a cat with heartworm disease?
vomitting
Which of the following diseases exhibit coughing, fever and mucopurulent discharge?
canine distemper
You have been asked to obtain a blood sample for a CBC and chemistry panel from a 100-g cockatiel. Which of the following vessels is most commonly used in this species?
jugular vein
All of the following can result from colitis in horses, except:
hypervolemia
What does frank blood in the diarrhea indicate?
colitis
The initial secretion of the mammary gland before milk is produced is known as:
colostrum
Which of the following is a common cause of bradycardia?
hyperkalemia
what are common causes of bradycardia
hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, toxin ingestion and increased Increased intracranial pressure
what are common causes of tachycardia
hypovolemia, hypoxia, and hypokalemia
What is the most common cause of alopecia and dermatitis in the pet mouse?
fur mites
Common symptoms of diabetes in both dogs and cats include:
- bradypnea/bradycardic
- PU/PD
- Weight gain/pitting edema
Which of the following is not generally a symptom of osteoarthritis in cats?
changes in eating habits
what are common symptoms of osteoarthritis in cats
- mobility changes (reluctance to jump or juump as high)
- changes in activity level such as decreased playing or hunting
- change in grooming habits
Complications of colitis in an equine patient could include:
founder(laminitis)
what are complications of colitis
- Laminitis (founder)
- CV collapse
- cardiac arrhythmias
- thrombophlebitis
- stertor/stritor noises made while breathing
Contagious ecthyma is a common viral disease of small ruminants that is zoonotic. What is this disease also known as?
orf / sore mouth
When a female dog is bred, the amount of food (calories) she is fed should be increased:
5 or 6 weeks after breeding
Deficiencies in iron may result in anemia. Which of these minerals may also cause anemia if it is deficient in a dog’s or a cat’s diet?
copper
An abnormal dilation of the pupil of the eye is defined as:
corectasis
To perform coupage, cupped hands should be used to tap firmly on the chest wall, starting:
Caudally and working forward
Which of the following is a common contributor to pancreatitis specific to dogs? Which of the following is a technique used to used to help loosen purulent material within the pulmonary parenchyma?
coupage
Clinical symptoms of milk fever include:
staggering gate
Current recommendations for feeding critically ill patients are to begin feeding equal to the patient’s estimated:
Resting energy requirement (RER)
Which of the following is least useful when resuscitating a dog in shock?
D5W
Rickets is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?
Vit D
Which of these endocrine disorders can result from the failure of the pituitary gland to produce antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
diabetes insipidus
In general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats?
5 to 7 days
A pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation?
Zonary
During the estrus phase of the mare, which of the following occurs?
Ovulation
A bitch’s food caloric needs are highest:
During the fourth week of lactation
Which of the following is commonly seen in rabbits, in which the intestinal flora is disrupted?
Dysbiosis
What nerve block is commonly used to desensitize nerves and add additional analgesia to an onychectomy procedure?
circumferential nerve block
what is a circumferential nerve block commonly used for
used to desensitize nerves and to add aditional analgesia to an onychectomy procedure
what is a retrobulbar block is commonly used for
used to desensitize the eye before enucleation surgery
what does an epidural do
provides desensititzation to the trunk and lower extremities
what does a sacrococcygeal block do
provides desensitization to the tail, anus, penis or vulva
Regarding the use of pain scales in hospitalized animals, which of the following statements is false?
- Pain scales may encourage routine evaluation of hospitalized animals.
- Pain scales can be used to determine whether analgesic therapy should be discontinued.
- Effective analgesic therapy should result in an animal with a low pain score.
- A low pain score indicates that analgesic therapy is sufficient, even if an animal is exhibiting some questionable behaviors.
A low pain score indicates that analgesic therapy is sufficient, even if an animal is exhibiting some questionable behaviors.
During hospitalization, how often should a pain assessment be performed?
every 4-6 hrs
Of the following listed blocks, which is not a dental nerve block?
- Mandibular nerve block
- Mental nerve block
- Infraorbital nerve block
- Retrobulbar nerve block
Retrobulbar nerve block
Which of the following is not a characteristic of alpha-2 agonists?
Increased heart rate
If your patient begins responding to surgical stimulation under anesthesia, what should the technician’s next step optimally be?
Administer IV analgesics
A drug termed an antagonist has which characteristics?
Affinity present but no efficacy
Chronic pain is often divided into what two categories?
nociceptive pain and neuropathic pain
During cryotherapy, the cold temperature raises the activation threshold of:
tissue nociceptors
When should cryotherapy be applied for best response?
during the acute inflammatory phase of tissue healing
Why is electrical stimulation used at select acupuncture points?
to increase the duration of effect
Which of the following opioid analgesics is often used as a continuous rate infusion because of its short duration of action (approximately 30 minutes)?
fentanyl
Gabapentin has proven useful for patients experiencing osteoarthritis pain, especially when used in combination with what other drug class?
NSAIDs
Which of the following answers represents the three zones of gray matter in the spinal cord?
Dorsal horn, ventral horn, intermediate zone
Veterinary technicians that advocate for pain management are most closely compared to what group of nurses?
Human neonatal and pediatric nurses
Which of the following opioids would be the best choice for moderate to severe pain?
hydromorphone
What inhibits the aggrecanase enzymes responsible for cartilage degradation in cats?
Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
Which of the following is essential for good communication between veterinarians and veterinary technicians who are working in pain management?
Knowledge of the physiology of pain and the pharmacology of analgesics
To prolong the duration of action because of vasoconstriction, lidocaine is often available in combination with what other drug?
epinephrine
When should low-level laser therapy not be used?
Over areas of malignancy or cancer
Which of the following analgesic adjuncts works to block NK-1 receptors and subsequent activation of substance P?
Maropitant
Massage is an example of which type of rehabilitation technique?
Manual therapy
How painful is an ovariohysterectomy?
moderate
Which of the following is an example of an opioid agonist?
morphine
Which of the following opioids is most commonly used for epidural analgesia?
morphine
Which of the following statements regarding pain assessment in dogs is true?
- Physiological parameters, such as heart rate and blood pressure, are sensitive tools for assessing pain in dogs.
- A visual analog scale is a type of multidimensional pain scale and is useful for assessing pain in dogs.
- Multidimensional pain scales yield better interobserver agreement than unidimensional pain scales.
- Multidimensional pain scales correlate closely with vocalization and serum cortisol levels in chronically painful dogs.
Multidimensional pain scales yield better interobserver agreement than unidimensional pain scales.
what is myelin
it covers the A delta nerve fibers , helps transmit impulses more quickly across the axons and synapses of nerves
what is substance P
it is a neurotransmitter that transmitter pain impulses along the A-delta fibers
What is the function of myelin?
To increase the rate of nerve impulse transmission.
A traumatic cause of OA in dogs includes obesity as a risk factor. What is the most common traumatic cause of OA in dogs?
Ruptured cruciate ligaments
Which of the following opioids is the best choice of analgesic for an ER patient for whom vomiting and/or abdominal contractions are contraindicated?
methadone
Which of the following drugs is not considered an alpha-2 agonist?
acepromazine
Of the inhalant anesthetics, which is the only one thought to have analgesic properties?
nitrous oxide
Which of the following opioids is least likely to cause vomiting in cats?
methadone
What is meant by the term noxious stimulus?
A damaging or potentially damaging tissue stimulus
Prostaglandins play an important role in:
Mammalian renal physiology
Which of the following terms describes the technique when a local anesthetic is injected into the cerebrospinal fluid?
Spinal anesthesia
Which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in the process of pain perception as well as in the vomiting reflex?
Substance P
What block can be performed before surgery of the abdominal cavity?
Incisional block
When should cryotherapy be applied for best response?
During the acute inflammatory phase of tissue healing , After exercise to lessen inflammatory response,
Immediately following surgery
Which of the following chemicals is not considered a major inflammatory mediator of pain?
estrogen
Which of the following drugs has been useful in not only reducing opioid-related nausea and vomiting, but also in reducing the MAC of anesthetic gases needed when given preoperatively?
maropitant
Which of the following mu agonist opioids also has additional affinity for the NMDA receptor making it potentially useful for neuropathic pain?
methadone
Which of the following is an example of an opioid agonist?
morphine
Which of the following describes a myofascial trigger point?
A painful area of sustained muscle contraction that cannot easily self-release
Which of the following does not function as an NMDA receptor antagonist?
Hydromorphone
How do nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs exert their analgesic activity?
Inhibition of the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).
what is bucking
the animal is trying to breath agaist the set respiratpry rhythm and volume being delivered by the machanical ventilator
You are examining the capnography waveform of the patient under anesthesia. You notice that the baseline is elevated (not going back to zero), but the waveform otherwise looks normal. Why might this be happening?
the patient is rebreathing CO2
Which of the following describes capnometers where the measuring chambers are placed directly in the airway and the measurement signal is generated?
mainstream capnometer
what does sidestream capnometer mean
connected to the ETtube via an end piece that contains a sampling line that continuously sample respiratory gases
What should be used to clean most monitoring devices?
mild soap and water
What are the 2 main components of “double drip”?
Guaifenesin and ketamine
what is a double drip
500-mL bag of 5% dextrose in water containing 5% guaifenesin, to which 5 mL of ketamine has been added
You are preparing for an emergency German shepherd patient presenting with a suspected GDV. It will likely require emergency surgery soon after arrival. In preparing for the procedure, where you are going to place the IV catheter?
Large-bore catheter in the jugular vein
Which type of laryngoscope is composed of a straight blade with a light source on a handle?
Miller
What is a miller laryngoscope
the blade is straight on the laryngoscope
what is te Macintosh laryngoscope
the blade is curved
What is the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification system rating for a patient that is anemic or moderately dehydrated?
class P3
What does the term hypostatic congestion mean?
Pooling of blood in the dependent lung
how do you prevent hypostatic congestion
the patient in recovery should be turned every 10-15 minutes to prevent pooling of the blood in the dependent lung
You have a patient that looks asleep, will not respond to voice, but will respond to pain. Which of the following would describe its level of consciousness?
stuporous
stupor (sleep like state)
What is the LOC if patients are more depressed and cannot be fully aroused
obtunded
Placing an endotracheal tube that is too small compared with the diameter of the trachea can cause:
Increase in airway resistance
Common side effects of acepromazine include all of the following except:
Respiratory depressant
in what situation should acepromazine be avoided in and why?
patient in shock (hit by car) and/or cardiovascular instability due to peripheral vasodilation leading to decreased temp and overall blood pressure
what agents are cross placental ?
Ace, diazepam, isoflurane
Where does atropine block the release of acetylcholine?
Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
What 2 receptors are associated with the PNS system for acetylcholine?
nicotinic and muscarnic receptors
Which of the following types of pain is considered a protective pain?
acute pain , serves as a warning
Which of the following types of pain dissipates as the initial source of pain resolves?
acute pain
Which of the following types of pain is most associated with trauma or surgery?
adaptive pain
Which of the following are considered adjuncts for pain management?
Weight loss
Laser therapy
Physical rehabilitation
What is the indication for induction with etomidate in dogs?
Severe cardiac disease
why is etomidate the induction agent of choice for animals with moderate to severe heart disease ?
it has little effect on heart rate, rhythm, blood pressure and cardiac output after a brief period of hypotension
what is the induction agent of choice for renal patients?
propofol
what induction agent cannot be given to orthopedic patients?
etomidate
Inadequate oxygenation of the tissues for longer than________ minutes could result in brain damage
4
Which of the following factors do not influence minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?
sex
When is airway obstruction most likely to occur in a surgical patient?
During the preanesthetic and recovery period
what is an example of a neuroactive steroid anesthetic?
Alfaxalone
Reptiles have a three-chambered heart consisting of the following:
Two atria and one ventricle
Which inhalant anesthetic causes the most dramatic increase in cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure?
nitrous oxide
Which of the following opioids would be best to use in cases where you want to avoid vomiting such as cases with increased intracranial pressure?
Methadone
All of the following patients would be a good candidate for etomidate as the induction drug, except for patients that are experiencing:
Cesarean section
Known cardiac disease
Cardiovascular instability resulting from trauma
Which of the following fluids is considered an unbalanced solution?
0.9% saline
which drug is most preferred for pediatric patients for surgery to help maintain heartrate
anticholinergics
What agent should be avoided in geriatric patients?
dexmedetomidine
why are some alpha 2 adrenergic agonists avoided in geriatric patients?
dexmedetomidine, medetomidine, and xylazine require extensive hepatic metabolism and have dose-related negative effects on the cardiovascular, respiratory, and central nervous systems.
Which of the following drugs drastically reduces cardiac output?
dexmedetomidine
Which drug is the most potent sedative?
detomidine
used in horses for sedation, analgesia and msucle relaxation
if image has a good degreee of blackness but need more details, what do you need to change?
mAs (bc how much electrons are produced)
Your radiograph appears dark grey at the open areas, what do you need to change?
KvP (penetration of power)
What size endotracheal tube would an adult 18-kg dog require?
9–9.5 mm
what is a passive scavenger system?
Uses positive pressure of the gas in the anesthetic machine to push gas into the scavenger
what is an active system
uses suction created by a vacuum pump or fan to draw gas into the scavenger
When is the negative pressure relief valve important?
If there is a failure of oxygen flow through the system
Which of the following statements are false?
- Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space.
- Choosing a tube that is too small may result in increased resistance to breathing.
- Choosing a tube that is too long may result in hypoxemia
- Failure to cuff the tube may result in aspiration of foreign material.
Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space.
Which of the following local blocks would provide additional anesthesia/analgesia to a sheep undergoing a large abdominal surgery?
Epidural block
in what regions would an epidural block be used ?
the flank, abdomen, inguinal, and perineal regions.
when would a caudal block be used
primarily for obstetric procedures of the vagina and vulva or for tail docking.
when would a peroneal block be used ?
hind limb below the hock
what would a cornual block be used
dehorning procedures
An intact thoracic cavity is under ______________.
Negative pressure
when would you not place a patient on a controlled ventilator
intestinal foreign body
when should a patient be placed on a controlled ventilator
has an inability to ventilate because of factors such as decreased ventilator drive resulting from anesthetic agents or the patient having a thoracotomy,
ex: open thorax thoracotomy, chest wall trauma, Neuromuscular blockade, Pneumothorax
All of the following items make it easier to intubate swine, except
- Speculum
- Laryngoscope
- Stylet
- Epiglotoscope
Epiglotoscope
Which of the following is safe to use in animals that will be slaughtered?
none, they should not be given any sedatives or tranquilizers
Which drug and its drug class is not generally suggested for use in ruminants?
atropine ; anticholinergics
Which of the following is the volume of the breathing system occupied by gases that are rebreathed without any change in composition?
Apparatus dead space
what is apparatus dead space
the volume of the breathing system occupied by gases that are rebreathed withot any change in composition
The benefits of placing an arterial catheter include all of the following except:
- Ability to obtain central venous pressure
- Ability to obtain direct blood pressure
- Provides access to quick blood sample collection
- Ability to obtain and monitor blood gas samples
Ability to obtain central venous pressure
A patient in ASA class I physical status is:
A normal patient with no organic disease
Why should glycopyrrolate be used in rabbits instead of atropine?
Many rabbits have high levels of atropinase, so atropine is relatively ineffective
At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?
increases
Which of the following drugs would most likely be the cause of atrioventricular block in a patient under anesthesia?
Dexmedetomidine
What will the approximate blood volume of a 40-g adult mouse be?
3 mL
Average adult mouse blood volume is 2.5 mL
Which of the following is defined as the delivery of specific drugs for analgesia, sedation, amnesia, and muscle relaxation?
balanced anesthesia
Because of the enlarged fleshy tongue and a narrowed upper airway, which of the following statements is correct when dealing with neonatal and pediatric patients undergoing general anesthesia?
Neonatal and pediatric patients should be intubated for all procedures requiring general anesthesia because they are at risk for upper airway obstruction
Why might you not get an accurate reading from a pulse oximeter in small mammals?
The heart rate of the animal may exceed the upper range of the instrument
A 10-year-old mixed-breed intact male dog presents to the clinic after being rescued from a house fire. He is tachycardiac, dyspneic, and has a large wound on his left hind limb. This patient is compromised. Which of the following would be the better anes
Etomidate and midazolam
Which of the following are tranquilizers that cause muscle relaxation, and in some young healthy animals, this can also cause excitation?
benzodiazepines
Which of the following drugs when administered alone produces minimal sedation in healthy dogs and cats?
Midazolam
Which of the following drugs can cause excitation in healthy patients when used as a premedication or induction agent?
Midazolam
Which of the following is the ideal way to assess ventilation in the horse?
Blood gas analysis
Which of the following best represents systolic blood pressure?
The pressure measured when the left ventricle contracts
What is an advantage of using medetomidine combined with ketamine for anesthesia of rodents and rabbits?
It can be partially reversed by using atipamezole, allowing faster recovery
Which of the following can profoundly affect cardiac output and blood pressure in the neonate?
Bradycardia
Which of the following opioids can be used effectively in the feline patient when administered via the transmucosal route?
Buprenorphine
It is believed that the viscera may contain more kappa receptors than mu receptors. If this is correct, which of the following drugs would provide better analgesia for visceral pain?
Butorphanol
what kind of agonist is butorphanol
Kappa
Which opiods are mu receptor
Morphine, oxymorphone, and hydromorphone
Which of the following drugs is classified as a full mu opioid?
Hydromorphone
which opioid is a partial mu agonist
buprenorphine
What is the main component of soda lime (a substance used to absorb carbon dioxide from the breathing system)?
Calcium hydroxide
Cardiac output in the pediatric patient is primarily dependent on which of the following?
heart rate
