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ABD 313 > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 sonographic criteria for a simple cyst?

A
  1. Strong back wall
  2. Through transmission
  3. Anechoic, round, or oval
  4. Posterior enhancement
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2
Q

What is the most reliable criteria for a simple cyst?

A

Posterior enhancement

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3
Q

If septations are irregular and >1mm in thickness or solid elements are presents, the lesion must be presumed what?

A

Malignant

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4
Q

How does ADPKD differ from ARPKD with patients affected?

A

ADPKD presents later in life around the 4th decade, ARPKD is in paediatrics

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5
Q

How does ADPKD differ from ARPKD with sonographic appearance?

A

ADPKD: large cysts and large kidneys
ARPKD: echogenic and large

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6
Q

Which type of polycystic kidney disease is associated with cerebral berry aneurysms?

A

ADPKD

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7
Q

Which blood test is the most sensitive indicator of renal function?

A

Creatinine

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8
Q

What can multiple parapelvic cysts be mistaken for?

A

Hydronephrosis

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9
Q

What are medullary sponge kidneys the result of?

A

Dilated tubules

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10
Q

What will we see sonographically with medullary sponge kidneys?

A

Bilaterally echogenic pyramids

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11
Q

Which type is the most common form of choledochal cyst?

A

Type 1

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12
Q

How does Type 1 choledochal cyst present as?

A

Diffuse fusiform dilatation of the CBD

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13
Q

Type 1 choledochal cysts have a known association with what?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

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14
Q

What are 4 benign neoplasms that affect the liver?

A

Lipoma, FNH, hemangioma, and adenoma

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15
Q

What is the most common benign neoplasm of the liver?

A

Hemangioma

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16
Q

How does a liver hemangioma appear sonographically?

A

Hyperechoic, homogenous, and well-defined

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17
Q

Which benign neoplasm of the liver would contain Kupffer cells?

A

FNH

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18
Q

What is the typical sonographic appearance of an FNH?

A

Isoechoic to the liver (stealth lesion)

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19
Q

Which benign liver neoplasm is associated with oral contraceptives?

A

Adenoma

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20
Q

What other disease are liver adenomas related to?

A

Von Geirks or GSD

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21
Q

What is the appearance of a liver adenoma of a sulfur colloid scan?

A

Cold

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22
Q

Which benign liver neoplasm is extremely rare?

A

Lipoma

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23
Q

What is a true benign neoplasm of the gallbladder?

A

Adenoma

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24
Q

How is an adenoma of the GB and a cholesterol polyp differentiated?

A

Not possible, cholesterol polyps are just more common

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25
Q

A hyperechoic focus in the GB wall demonstrating comet tail artifact is characteristic of what?

A

Adenomyomatosis

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26
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of the kidney?

A

Angiomyolipoma

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27
Q

What is an AML composed of?

A

Vessels, muscle, and fat

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28
Q

Who are AML’s more common in and what do they have an association with?

A

More common in female patients and have an association with tuberous sclerosis

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29
Q

What is the typical sonographic appearance of an AML?

A

Hyperechoic, round, homogenous, affecting the cortex of the kidney

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30
Q

What artifact can be seen with a myelolipoma of the adrenal gland?

A

Broken diaphragm or propagation speed artifact

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31
Q

What is the most common benign neoplasm affecting the abdominal wall?

A

Desmoid

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32
Q

Where do desmoid tumors develop?

A

Surgical or laproscopic sites

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33
Q

What sonographic signs would create suspicion for malignancy in the liver?

A
  • Flow with color doppler and high velocity
  • Multiple lesions or masses
  • Lymphadenopathy in porta hepatis region
  • Hypoechoic halo
  • Solid hypoechoic mass
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34
Q

What is the most common primary malignant tumor of the liver?

A

HCC

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35
Q

What are risk factors for HCC?

A

Alcohol, hep B and C, exposure to toxins, metabolic disorders (GSD)

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36
Q

What lab value will be elevated in 70% of HCC cases?

A

AFP

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37
Q

Is venous invasion common with HCC?

A

Yes, in the portals and hepatics

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38
Q

What are the two types of lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkins

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39
Q

Which age groups do Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s affect?

A

Hodgkin’s: Paediatric

Non-Hodgkin’s: Elderly

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40
Q

What are some common sonographic findings for both Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Lymphadenopathy, retroperitoneal nodes, splenomegaly, compression and displacement of surrounding structures

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41
Q

GB carcinoma is a form of what?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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42
Q

GB carcinoma is more common in which gender?

A

Females

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43
Q

GB carcinoma has an association with what?

A

GB stones

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44
Q

GB carcinoma signs and symptoms are similar to what?

A

Chronic cholecystitis

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45
Q

Klatskin’s tumor is the most common form of what?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

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46
Q

Where are Klatskin’s tumors located?

A

Confluence of the right and left hepatic ducts

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47
Q

How are Klatskin’s tumors characterized by sonographically?

A

Dilated intrahepatic ducts and a normal CBD

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48
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the pancreas?

A

Adenocarcinoma

49
Q

Where is adenocarcinoma of the pancreas commonly located?

A

Head

50
Q

What lab value will be elevated with adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?

A

Lipase

51
Q

What is the most common malignant renal tumor in adults?

A

RCC

52
Q

What is the most common malignant renal tumor in children?

A

Nephroblastoma

53
Q

What is a nephroblastoma also called?

A

Wilm’s tumor

54
Q

What other malignancy can a nephroblastoma be confused with?

A

Neuroblastoma

55
Q

What is the most common tumor of the renal collecting system?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

56
Q

Which zone does prostate cancer typically develop?

A

Peripheral

57
Q

What is a highly malignant adrenal tumor that occurs in children?

A

Neuroblastoma

58
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of the liver?

A

Metastatic disease

59
Q

What is an AAA caused by?

A

Weakening of the aortic wall

60
Q

What is the most common predisposing factor of an AAA?

A

Atherosclerosis

61
Q

What is the most common type of AAA?

A

Fusiform

62
Q

To be considered an aneurysm, the abdominal aorta must measure what?

A

> 3cm

63
Q

When measuring an AAA, always measure where?

A

Outer to outer

64
Q

What is the most common complication of an AAA?

A

Stenosis or occlusion

65
Q

What is the most critical complication of an AAA?

A

Rupture

66
Q

What is the most common primary tumor of the IVC?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

67
Q

What is the most common tumor of the IVC?

A

Metastatic RCC

68
Q

What is the most common abnormality of the IVC?

A

Thrombosis coming from the legs

69
Q

What are the 2 most frequent congenital abnormalities of the IVC?

A

Transposition and duplication

70
Q

What is the most common cause of intrahepatic portal hypertension?

A

Cirrhosis

71
Q

What is the upper limit of normal for the MPV?

A

13mm

72
Q

Name the 5 collateral routes often associated with portal hypertension:

A
  1. Para-umbilical
  2. Gastroesophageal
  3. Splenorenal/gastrorenal
  4. Intestinal
  5. Hemmorhoidal
73
Q

Portal hypertension can be treated with what kind of procedure?

A

TIPS

74
Q

A clot in the portal venous system is referred to as what?

A

Portal vein thrombosis

75
Q

Portal vein thrombosis can result in what?

A

Cavernous transformation

76
Q

What is cavernous transformation also called?

A

Can of worms

77
Q

What is obstruction of the hepatic veins referred to as?

A

Budd Chiari

78
Q

What does Budd Chiari have a link with?

A

Oral contraceptive use

79
Q

What is fat accumulation within the hepatocytes referred to as?

A

Fatty infiltration

80
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of fatty infiltration?

A

Obesity and alcohol use

81
Q

Describe focal fatty infiltration:

A

Normal liver parenchyma with focal fat area

82
Q

Describe focal fatty sparing:

A

Fatty liver parenchyma with focal normal tissue

83
Q

What is a diffuse process that destroys liver cells?

A

Cirhossis

84
Q

What is the leading cause of cirrhosis?

A

Alcohol abuse

85
Q

What is the classic clinical presentation for this condition?

A

Hepatomegaly, jaundice, ascites

86
Q

In the chronic stage of cirrhosis, what will the liver do in terms of size?

A

Decrease

87
Q

With chronic cirrhosis, the liver will have a CL/RL ratio of what?

A

> 0.65

88
Q

What are two other names for biliary sludge?

A

Biliary sand and microlithiasis

89
Q

What is tumefactive sludge?

A

Sludge that mimc polypoid tumors (sludge balls)

90
Q

What does GB hepatization refer to?

A

GB filled with sludge w/ same echogenicity as the liver

91
Q

What is pseudosludge?

A

Artifact

92
Q

What is the most common disease of the GB?

A

Cholelithiasis

93
Q

Who is at risk for developing cholelithiasis?

A

Females, fat, 40, family history, and fertile

94
Q

What is the most common complication of cholelithiasis?

A

Biliary colic

95
Q

What is choledochalithiasis?

A

Stones in the biliary tree

96
Q

What is the most common cause of choledochalithiasis?

A

Migration of stones from the GB

97
Q

Where is the most common location for a stone to lodge in the biliary tree?

A

Ampulla of Vater

98
Q

List 4 areas in the urinary tract where a stone might lodge:

A

UPJ, iliacs, UVJ, bladder outlet

99
Q

Which urinary tract area is most common for a stone to lodge?

A

UVJ

100
Q

Stones with what measurement may be passed spontaneously?

A

<5mm

101
Q

What is a broad term used to describe poorly functioning but unobstructed kidneys?

A

Medical renal disease

102
Q

What is the the most common cause of ARF?

A

ATN (acute tubular necrosis)

103
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic renal failure?

A

Diabetes

104
Q

List two ways that end stage renal failure is treated:

A

Dialysis and transplant

105
Q

What is the classic clinical presentation for infection and inflammation?

A

Fever, leukocytosis, and pain

106
Q

What is an inflammation of the liver?

A

Hepatitis

107
Q

What is hepatitis caused by?

A

Viruses or toxins

108
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of acute hepatitis:

A

Hypoechoic liver with bright portals and a thick GB

109
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of chronic hepatitis:

A

Decreased size and increased echogenicity

110
Q

What is acute cholecystitis most often due to?

A

Stones impacted in the GB neck

111
Q

A GB wall is considered thickened if it measures what?

A

> 3mm

112
Q

An inflamed GB without stones is characteristic of what?

A

Acalculus cholecystitis

113
Q

The WES sign is associated with which form of cholecystitis?

A

Chronic

114
Q

GB carcinoma has an association with which form of cholecystitis?

A

Chronic, porcelain

115
Q

Name two causes of acute pancreatitis:

A

Binge drinking and biliary stones

116
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Alcoholism

117
Q

How do lab findings differ between acute and chronic pancreatitis?

A

Acute: both amylase and lipase increased

118
Q

Diverticulitis is most common in which quadrant?

A

LLQ

119
Q

Acute pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by what?

A

E. coli

ABD 313 (11 decks)

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