Review #3 Flashcards

1
Q

BRCA1 lifetime breast cancer risk

A

55-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

BRCA2 lifetime breast

A

45-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

BRCA1 lifetime ovarian cancer risk

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

BRCA2 lifetime ovarian cancer risk

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Other cancers associated with BRCA

A

Colon, prostate, pancreatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rates of pregnancy with perfect use of… OCPs, CuIUD, LNGIUD, Nexplanon

A

0.3, 0.6, 0.2, 0.05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for fibrocystic breast disease

A

NSAIDs, OCPs (danazol, tamoxifen in adults with pain not relieved by these treatments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Systemic treatment for GSM

A

Ospemifene, a SERM approved for use in postmenopausal women with dyspareunia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment for foul vaginal odor (with pessary, for example)

A

Oxyquinolone sulfate gel intravaginally 2-3 times per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Muscle incised in midline episiotomy

A

Bulbospongiosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most common bacteria causing mastitis

A

S. aureus, coag neg staph, strep viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Embryo transfer most likely to be successful how many days after fertilization

A

5 (blastocyst)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cyst of mongomery

A

Peri-areolar cyst, seen on ultrasound, most likely to resolve spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SERM causing endometrial polyps

A

Tamoxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Radiation dose generally considered safe for a fetus

A

50 mGy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

History-indicated cerclage

A

One or more second trimester losses related to painless cervical dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Developmental cause of transverse vaginal septum

A

Failure of fusion of urogenital sinus and Mullerian ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Autoimmune disease associated with chlamydia infection

A

Reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chlamydia treatment

A

Doxy 100 mg BID x7 days, or (if pregnant) azithromycin 1 g x1 dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HIV screening interval for pregnant patient with HIV-positive partner (suppressed viral load)

A

qtrimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Delivery timing for placenta previa

A

34.0 to 35.6 wga

22
Q

Likelihood of accreta with previa by number of prior C/S

A

1% (none), 3% (one prior), 11%, 40%, 61%, 67%

23
Q

What to do with measles exposure in pregnancy if known not to be immune

A

IVIG within 6 days of exposure

24
Q

Tamiflu dosing: ppx vs tx

A

75 mg QD x10 d or 75 mg BID x5 d

25
Q

Next step for “unsatisfactory cytology” pap

A

Repeat in 2-4 months (any age group)

26
Q

Origins of uterovaginal nerve plexus

A

Inferior hypogastric plexus and sacral nerve roots

27
Q

EPDS score c/f depression

A

> 12

28
Q

Timing for rescue BMZ

A

At least 14 days

29
Q

Pregnancy risks with anorexia

A

FGR, SGA, antepartum hemorrhage

30
Q

Pregnancy risk with bulimia

A

SAB

31
Q

Which ovarian vein more likely to be affected by thrombosis

A

Right

32
Q

Max fluid deficit for electrolyte-poor fluid in hysteroscopy

A

1000 mL

33
Q

Youngest age to initiate HPV-based testing for cervical cancer

A

35 y/o

34
Q

Definition of recurrent pregnancy loss

A

2 or more clinically proven pregnancies

3 consecutive pregnancies (do not have to be clinically proven)

35
Q

Initial work-up for RPL

A

Parental karyotype, uterine assessment, TSH, APLS labs

36
Q

Johnson procedure

A

Standard attempt to reduce inverted uterus

37
Q

Haultain procedure

A

Laparotomy with incision in posterior of uterus to reduce inversion

38
Q

Huntington procedure

A

Laparotomy with serial clamping to reduce inversion

39
Q

When to start ASA ppx

A

12 - 16 wga

40
Q

Anti-epileptic associated with cleft palate

A

Topiramate

41
Q

Anti-epileptic associated with major congenital malformations and cognitive / behavior teratogenesis

A

Valproate

42
Q

Safest anti-epileptics in pregnancy

A

Lamotrigine, levetiracetam

43
Q

Bacteria found in cultures from long-term IUD users

A

Actinomyces

44
Q

Phenotype of newborn with congenital adrenal hypoplasia

A

Ambiguous genitalia (in XX individual)

45
Q

What causes low aldosterone, low cortisol, and high testosterone at birth? (enzyme deficiency and disease name)

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency, leads to congenital adrenal hypoplasia

46
Q

What defines FMR1 gene premutation?

A

CGG repeats 50-100

47
Q

Disorders detected by NIPs

A

Trisomy 13, 18, 21, or sex chromosome disorders

48
Q

Recommended pre-op testing for healthy patients over 65 y/o

A

CBC

49
Q

Which progestin has anti-androgenic effects?

A

Drospirenone

50
Q

Rotational forceps

A

Kielland