Resuscitation in Special circumstances Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal range for extracellular potassium?

A

3.5-5

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2
Q

When serum pH decreases what happens to serum potassium and why?

A

It increases because potassium shifts from cellular to vascular space

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3
Q

What usually causes hyperkalaemia?

A

Increased potassium release from cells or impaired excretion by the kidneys

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4
Q

What is the definition of hyperkalaemia?

A

> 5.5

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5
Q

What is the definition of severe hyperkalaemia?

A

> 6.5

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6
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalaemia?

A
  • renal filure
  • drugs
  • tissue breakdown
  • metabolic acidosis
  • endocrine disorders
  • diet
  • spurious
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7
Q

Which drugs cause hyperkalaemia?

A

ACE-I
ARB
potassium sparing diuretics
NSAIDS
b-blockers
trimethoprim

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8
Q

What are the causes of tissue breakdown contributing to hyperkalaemia?

A

Tumour lysis
Rhabdomyolysis
Haemolysis

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9
Q

Which endocrine disorders might cause hyperkalaemia?

A

Addison’s disease

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10
Q

What may be the presentation of hyperkalaemia?

A

Weakness progressing to flaccid paralysis
Paraesthesia
Depressed deep tendon reflexes

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11
Q

At what level does hyperkalaemia tend to cause ECG changes?

A

6.7

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12
Q

What are the ECG changes that might be seen in hyperkalaemia?

A
  • first degree heart block
  • flattened/absent P waves
  • tall, peaked (tented) T waves
  • ST depression
  • S and T wave merging- sine wave
  • widened QRS
  • Ventricular tachycardia
  • bradycardia
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13
Q

What are the 5 key steps in treating hyperkalaemia?

A
  1. Cardiac protection
  2. Shifting potassium into cells
  3. removing potassium from the body
  4. monitoring serum potassium and glucose concentration
  5. prevention of recurrence
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14
Q

What are the main risks associated with treating hyperkalaemia?

A
  • hypoglycaemia
  • tissue necrosis
  • rebound hyperkalaemia
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15
Q

Why can tissue necrosis occur after treatment of hyperkalaemia?

A

2ry to extravasation of IV calcium salts

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16
Q

What is the treatment of mildly elevated K?

5.5-5.9

A
  • address cause
  • if treatment is indicated then use potassium binders (Calcium resonium) 15-30g
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17
Q

What is the treatment of a moderately elevated K- without ECG changes?

6.0-6.4

A
  • shift K intracellularly with glucose/insulin
  • 10 units short-acting insulin and 25g of glucose IV over 15-30 minutes
  • follow up with 10% glucose infusion at 50ml h for 5 h in patients with a pre treatment BM of <7
  • remove potassium with calcium resonium
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18
Q

What is the treatment of severe hyperkalaemia >6.5 without ECG changes?

A
  • seek expert help
  • give glucose/insulin
  • give salbutamol 10-20mg nebulised
  • remove k from the body, consider dialysis, sodium zirconium cyclosilicate and/or patiromer
  • consider cardiac monitoring
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19
Q

What is the treatment of severe hyperkalaemia with ECG changes?

A

Protect the heart with calcium salts: 6.8mmol Ca via 10mL calcium chloride IV over 2-5 minutes or 30mL 10% calcium gluconate over 15min

Use shifting agents- glucose+insulin/salbutamol

Remove K

Start cardiac monitoring

Calcium salts protect the heart by reducing the risk VF/pVT

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20
Q

What is the treatment of severe hyperkalaemia during CPR?

A

10mL calcium chloride 10% by rapid IV bolus

give insulin/glucose 10 units short acting insulin and 25g glucose IV by rapid injection

Give sodium bicarbonate 50mmol (50ml of 8.4% solution) IV by rapid injection if severe acidosis or renal failure

Consider dialysis

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21
Q

What is the definition of hypokalaemia?

A

<3.5
severe <2.5

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22
Q

What are the causes of hypokalaemia?

A
  • GI losses
  • drugs
  • renal losses
  • endocrine disorders
  • metabolic acidosis
  • magnesium depletion
  • poor diet
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23
Q

Which drugs cause hypokalaemia?

A

diuretics, laxatives, steroids

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24
Q

Which conditions/procedures cause renal losses of k?

A

renal tubular disorders
diabetes insipidus
dialysis

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25
Q

Which endocrine conditions may cause K loss?

A

Cushings, hyperaldosteronism

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26
Q

What are the symptoms of hypokalaemia?

A
  • fatigue
  • weakness
  • leg cramps
  • constipation
  • rhabdomyolysis
  • ascending paralysis
  • respiratory difficulties
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27
Q

What are the ECG features of hypokalaemia?

A

U waves
T wave flattening
ST segment changes
arrythmias

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28
Q

What is the maximum recommended dose of iv K?

A

20mmol h

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29
Q

When is a higher dose of K indicated?

A

When cardiac arrest is imminent
- 2mmol /min for 10 minutes followed by 10mmol over 5-10 min

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30
Q

Which other mineral is essential for K uptake?

A

Mg

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31
Q

What is the definition of hypercalcaemia?

A

> 2.6mmol

ionised calcium is usually measured on blood gas machines

Normal ionised Ca is 1.1-1.3

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32
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcaemia?

A
  • primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism
  • malignancy
  • sarcoidosis
  • drugs
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33
Q

What are the symptoms of hypercalcaemia?

A
  • abdominal pain
  • confusion
  • weakness
  • hypotension
  • arrhythmias
  • cardiac arrest
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34
Q

What are the ECG signs of hypercalcaemia?

A
  • short QT interval
  • prolonged QRS
  • flat T waves
  • AV block
  • cardiac arrest
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35
Q

What are the treatments for hypercalcaemia?

A
  • fluid replacement IV
  • furosemide 1mg kg
  • hydrocortisone 200-300mg iV
  • pamindronate 30-90mg iV
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36
Q

What is hypocalcaemia?

A

<2.1 total calcium

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37
Q

What are the causes of hypocalcaemia?

A
  • chronic renal failure
  • acute pancreatitis
  • calcium channel blocker overdose
  • toxic shock
  • rhabdomyolysis
  • tumour lysis syndrome
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38
Q

What are the symptoms of hypocalcaemia?

A

Paraesthesia
Tetany
Seizures
AV block
Cardiac arrest

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39
Q

What are the ECG signs of hypocalcaemia?

A
  • prolonged QT
  • T wave inversion
  • heart block
  • cardiac arrest
40
Q

What is the treatment of hypocalcaemia?

A

Calcium chloride 10% 10-40mL IV
1-2g 50% Magnesium Sulfate (2-4ml 4-8mmol) IV if neccesary

41
Q

What is hypermagnesaemia?

A

> 1.1

42
Q

What are the causes of hypermagnesaemia?

A

Renal failure
Iatrogenic

43
Q

What are the symptoms of hypermagnesaemia?

A

Confusion
Weakness
Respiratory depression
AV- block
cardiac arrest

44
Q

What are the ECG changes in hypermagnesaemia?

A

prolonged PR interval
T Wave peaking
AV block
arrest

45
Q

When should treatment for hypermagnesaemia be considered?

A

> 1.75

46
Q

What is the treatment for hypermagnesaemia?

A

Calcium chloride 10% 5-10mL IV
Ventilatory support if neccessary
Saline diuresis 0.9% saline with furosemide 1mg per kg
HD

47
Q

What is hypomagnesaemia?

A

<0.6

48
Q

What are the causes of hypomagnesaemia?

A
  • GI loss
  • polyuria
  • starvation
  • alcoholism
  • malabsorption
49
Q

what are the sympoms of hypomagnesaemia?

A
  • tremor
  • ataxia
  • nystagmus
  • seizures
  • arrhythmias -TDP
  • cardiac arrest
50
Q

What are the ECG changes in hypomagnesaemia?

A

Prolonged PR and QT
ST depression
T wave inversion
Flattened p waves
increased QRS duration
tdp

51
Q

What is the treatment for hypomagnesaemia?

A

Severe or symptomatic
- 2g 50% magnseium sulphate (4mL; 8mmol) IV over 15 mins

TDP
- 2g 50% magnseium sulphate (4mL; 8mmol) IV over 1-2 mins

Seizure
- 2g 50% magnseium sulphate (4mL; 8mmol) IV over 10 mins

52
Q

How much more likely are HD patients to suffer an OOH cardiac arrest?

A

20 x

53
Q

What are the risk factors for cardiac arrest in HD patients?

A

electrolyte disturbance
fluid shift
medical comorbidities

54
Q

What should you do if someone on a HD machine arrests?

A
  • stop dialysis and return the patients blood volume with fluids
  • disconnect form the maching unless defibrillation proof
  • leave dialysis access open for drug administration
  • provide prompt management of hyperkalaemia
55
Q

How can sepsis be identified?

A

SOFA score

56
Q

What is septic shock?

A

Sepsis requiring vasopressors to maintain a MAP > 65 and a serum lactate >2 mmol despite fluid resus

57
Q

What is in the 1 hour care bundle for sepsis?

A
  • Give high flow 02
  • blood cultures and any other sampling required
  • give broad spectrum abx
  • initiate fluid resus
  • measure lactate
  • measure urine output

B- Blood culture
U- urine output
F- fluids
A- antibiotis
L- lactate
O- o

58
Q

What is the fluid regimen in sepsis?

A

Give fluid challenges in boluses of 250-500ml of crystalloid to maximum volume of 30ml/kg body weight in patients with hypotension, high lactate, or other signs of low urine output

If the MAP is still less than 65 despite fluids then escalation for vasopressors is required

59
Q

How do you work out the MAP

A

Mean Arterial Pressure = 1/3(SBP) + 2/3(DBP)

60
Q

Who should you consider giving a single dose of activated charcoal to?

A

A patient hwo has ingested a potentially toxic amount of a toxin known to be absorbed by activated charcoal, up to one hour previously

Multiple doses may be beneficial in poisoning with carbamazepine, dapsone, phenobarbital, quinine and theophylline

61
Q

When should whole bowel irrigation be considered?

A

Potentially toxic ingestion of sustained release or enteric-coated drugs, oral iron poisoning and the removal of whole packets of ingested drugs

62
Q

When is urine alkalinisation used and how?

A

Give IV sodium bicarbonate in moderate to severe salicylate poisoning

63
Q

What kind of drugs can haemodialysis remove?

A

Removes drugs or metabolites with low molecular weight, low protein binding, small volumes of distribution and high water solubility

64
Q

What does opioid poisoning cause?

A
  • respiratory depression
  • pinpoint pupuls
  • coma and respiratory arrest
65
Q

What are the initial doses of naloxone?

A

400 mcg IV, 800 mcg IM, 800mcg SC or 2mg IN

66
Q

What dose of naloxone does large opiate overdose require?

A

Titration to dose of 10mg

67
Q

What is the duration of action of naloxone?

A

45-70min

68
Q

How long can respiratory depression last for after opioid overdose?

A

4-5h

69
Q

What can acute withdrawal from opiates cause?

A

Sympathetic excess
* pulmonary oedema
* venticular arrhythmia
* severe agitation

70
Q

What does overdose of benzodiazepines cause?

A

Loss of consciousness, respiratory depression and hypotension

71
Q

When can flumazenil be used?

A

Reverse sedation caused by benzodiazepine overdose where there is no history or risk of seizures

72
Q

When can use of flumazenil be dangerous?

A

Can cause significant toxicity (seizure, arrhythmia, hypotension, withdrawal syndrome) in patients with** benzodiazepine dependence** or co-consumption of proconvulsant medications such as TCA’s

73
Q

What can overdose with TCAs cause?

A
  • hypotension
  • seizures
  • coma
  • life-threatening arrhythmia
74
Q

How does TCA overdose cause VT?

A

Cardiac toxicity is mediated by anticholinergic and sodium channel-blocking effects

75
Q

What are the anticholinergic effects?

A
  • dilated pupils
  • dever
  • dry skin
  • delirium
  • tachycardia
  • ileus
  • urinary retention
76
Q

What exacerbates hypotension in TCA overdose?

A

alpha-1 receptor blockade

77
Q

What should be considered as a treatment for tri-cyclic induced ventricular conduction abnormalities?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

78
Q

What can occur in local anaesthetic toxicity?

A
  • severe agitation
  • loss of consciousness
  • tonic-clonic convulsions
  • sinus bradycardia
  • conduction blocks
  • asystole
  • ventricular arrhythmia
79
Q

What can potentiate toxicity in local anaesthetic overdose?

A

Pregnancy
Extremes of age
Hypoxaemia

80
Q

What might patients with cardiovascular collapse and cardiac arrest attributable to local anaesthetic benefit from?

A

IV 20% lipid emulsion in addition to ALS

give up to three boluses at 5 min intervals until stable or has had up t

Give initial bolus of 1.5mL kg 20% lipid emulsion followed by an infusion of 15ml kg h

81
Q

What are common stimulants to cause overdose?

A

Cocaine
Amphetamine

82
Q

What can happen in stimulant overdose?

A
  • agitation
  • symptomatic tachycardia
  • hypertensive crisis
  • hyperthermia
  • myocardial ischaemia with angina
83
Q

What is an effective 1st line for opiate overdose?

A

Small doses of benzodiazepine (midazolam, diazepam and lorazepam)

84
Q

What can reverse cocaine-induced coronary vasoconstriction?

A

GTN and phentolamine

85
Q

What can be lifesaving in organophosphate, carbamate or nerve agent poisoning?

A

Atropine

86
Q

What doses of atropine may be required in drug induced brady?

A

2-4mg IV

87
Q

What are features of severe asthma?

That might suggest a patient is at higher risk of a fatal attack

A
  • a history of near fatal asthma requiring intubation and ventilation
  • hospitalisation or ED attendance in the past year
  • requiring three or more classes of asthma medications
  • increasing use or reliance on b2 agonists
  • adverse behavioural or psychological factors
  • non-adherence, psychiatric illness, alcohol/drug dependence, learning difficulty
88
Q

What causes the vast majority of asthma deaths?

A

Severe bronchospasm and mucous plugging leading to asphyxia

89
Q

What is the commonest cause of asthma-related arrhythmia?

A

Hypoxaemia

90
Q

What are the causes of cardiac arrest in asthma?

A
  • asphyxia
  • arrhythmia
  • AutoPEEP
  • tension pneumothorax
91
Q

What is the treatment for asthma?

A
  • salbutamol (5mg through an O2 driven nebuliser), repeated or continous dosing may be needed
  • nebulised ipatropium bromide (500mcg 4-6 hourly)
  • steroids - pred 40-50mg orally or hydrocortisone 100mg 6hrly
  • IV magnesium sulfate 2g (8mmol) IV over 20 min
  • consider IV salbutamol 250mcg IV slowly when inhaled therapy is not possible- bag-mask ventilation
  • following senior advice consider giving aminophylline

oral steroids have a longer half life

92
Q

If IV salbutamol is used what should you monitor?

A

Lactate

93
Q

What is the dose of aminophyline?

A

5mg kg IV over 20min
followed by infusion of 500-700mcg kg h

maintain concentrations of less than 20mcg l

94
Q

What can beta 2 agonists and steroids cause?

A

hypokalaemia

95
Q

When should tracheal intubation be considered in asthma?

A
  • deteriorating peak flow
  • decreasing conscious level/coma
  • persisting or worsening hypoxaemia
  • deteriorating respiratory acidosis
  • severe agitation- confusion and fighting the O2 mask
  • progressive exhaustion
  • respiratory or cardiac arrest
96
Q

What is the risk of trying to ventilate an asthmatic without a TT?

A

gastric inflation due to increased airway resistance