RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY Flashcards
What is the composition of substantia ebornea by weight?
A. 95 % Hydroxyapatite, 5% amelogenins & water
B. 95% organic substances, 5% inorganic substances
C. 70% organic substances, 30% inorganic substances
D. 70% Hydroxyapatite crystals, 30% collagen fibers
What do you call the graph that shows the classic experimental measurement of pH changes
on tooth enamel surfaces during exposure to fermentable carbohydrates in the presence of
acidogenic bacteria (in plaque) over time?
A. Stephan’s curve
B. S-curve
C. Curve of Spee
D. Keyes-Jordan Diagram
What does the acronym CAMBRA stand for, and what is its value in caries prevention?
A. Computer-aided management by risk assessment
B. Caries management by risk assessment
C. Correct and modify by risk adjustment
D. Caries management and bacterial risk assessment
The least acidic environment in which demineralization of a tooth can occur has a pH of:
A. 9.0
B. 7.0
C. 5.0
D. 3.0
E. 1.0
What is the term for the earliest observable enamel caries lesion?
A. Arrested caries
B. White spot lesion
C. Class II caries
D. Senile caries
Identify the caries based on ICDAS. A cavitated caries, visible when wet, no exposed dentin
but has an underlying dark shadow from
A. Code 1
B. Code 2
C. Code 3
D. Code 4
Ideal depth of amalgam preparation and dentin remainining for adequate pulpal insulation is
______mm into dentin and ______mm remaining thickness.
A. 0.5mm, 2.0mm
B. 0.5mm, 1.6mm
C. 1mm, 2mm
D. 1.6mm, 2mm
Which of the following statements regarding caries risk assessment is correct?
A. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of current caries activity
B. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity
C. The presence of dental plaque is a good indicator of current caries activity
D. The presence of pit-and-fissure sealants is a good indicator of current caries activity
Parents of infants with high caries risk should use a xylitol containing gum four to five times
daily. Use of xylitol gum by the patient will reduce the transfer of caries-causing bacteria to the
infant.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
The following are indications for fluoride gel applications using a custom tray, except:
A. High consumption of carbonated beverages or citric fruits
B. Bulimic patients, gastric reflux patients
C. Older patients & nursing home patients
D. Chemotherapy and head & neck radiation-treated patients
E. None of the above
Which of the following is NOT a reason why fluoride prevents tooth decay?
A. Interference of bacterial metabolic activity
B. Prevention of bacterial aggregation
C. Remineralization of tooth structure
D. Decreased enamel solubility
The diffusion into plaque of salivary components such as calcium, phosphate, hydroxyl and
fluoride ions enhances remineralization of early carious lesions.
A. True
B. False
Maxillary teeth are more susceptible to caries than mandibular teeth. While mandibular
second bicuspid is more susceptible to caries than the maxillary first bicuspid.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
What is a primary factor in assessing caries risk?
A. The patient’s age
B. The color of the teeth
C. The patient’s dietary habits
D. The type of toothbrush used
Which of the following technique can be used for caries removal?
A. Air abrasion
B. Laser therapy
C. Ultrasonic scaling
D. Acid etching
A procedure to treat incipient decay, which involves conservative preparation of occlusal pits
& fissures using air abrasion or special burs, and often restored with flowable composites.
A. Class I GV black cavity preparation
B. Pit & Fissure sealant
C. Enameloplasty
D. Fissurotomy
Powder for treating mercury spillage?
A. Sulfur
B. Charcoal
C. ZOE
D. Pumice
The primary factor in developing the outline form for a composite resin restoration on the
proximal surface of an anterior tooth is
A. Position of the contact
B. Relationship to the adjacent tooth
C. Aesthetics required
D. Extent of caries involvement
E. Extension for prevention
Location of retention grooves for large Class III carious lesion
A. Incisal
B. Gingival
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
In Class V preparations to receive composite resin, the extension is determined by the
A. Position of the gingival crest
B. Contour of the tooth
C. Caries susceptibility of the patient
D. Extent of caries involvement
E. All of the above
What technique can be used to achieve marginal exposure and to control hemorrhage in a
Class V cavity preparation 3mm below gingival sulcus?
A. Surgical crown lengthening or electrosurgery
B. Impregnated retraction cord
C. Rubber dam
D. Tofflewire with matrix band
What should be done when placing the restoration for a kissing class III?
A. The restorations are placed separately but finished and polished simultaneously
B. The restorations are placed, finished and polished simultaneously
C. The restorations are placed and finished separately, then polished at the same time
D. The restorations are placed, finished and polished separately
The ideal etching time for dentin
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 2 minutes
Which one of the following is the most important event for dentin bonding?
A. Smear layer removal
B. Smear plug removal
C. Peritubular dentin decalcification
D. Intertubular dentin decalcification
What is created when the etched dentin areas is applied with bonding agent?
A. Resin tags
B. Smear layer
C. Smear plug
D. Hybrid layer
Which of the following statements about indirect pulp caps is false?
A. Some leathery caries may be left in the prep
B. A liner is generally recommended in the excavation
C. The operator should wait at least 6-8 weeks before reentry (if then)
D. The prognosis of indirect pulp caps tx is poorer than that of direct pulp caps
Approximately 1 month following the placement of a large mesio-occluso-distal amalgam
with deep proximal boxes, the patient experiences definite pain in the region of the tooth. The
probable cause for the pain is:
A. Moisture contamination of amalgam causing delayed expansion
B. An undetected exposure of a pulp horn
C. Supraocclusion
D. Gingival excess
E. Open contact due to faulty matrix application
The treatment of choice for vital, wide apex permanent tooth which shows pulp exposure is:
A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy
C. Apexification
D. Apexogenesis
Metal instruments are contraindicated for use with composite resin, because the
A. Metal is abraded by the filler and discolors the restoration
B. Monomer reacts with the metal and forms corrosive products which affect the final shade
C. Polymer reacts with the metal to affect the shade
D. Metal inhibits the polymerization
Metal instruments are contraindicated for use with composite resin, because the
A. Metal is abraded by the filler and discolors the restoration
B. Monomer reacts with the metal and forms corrosive products which affect the final shade
C. Polymer reacts with the metal to affect the shade
D. Metal inhibits the polymerization
An adverse pulpal reaction is most likely to occur when which of the following materials is
placed directly into a deep cavity preparation
A. Silver amalgam
B. Zinc oxide eugenol
C. Polycarboxylate cement
D. Silicate cement
E. Zinc phosphate cement
One of the claims for the superiority of composite resin restorations over silicate cement
restorations is that resin restorations _____________.
A. Prevent galvanic action
B. Are practically insoluble in oral fluids
C. Adapt to the walls of the cavity better
D. Have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion
E. Prevent bacterial infection
A decrease in which of the following properties of saliva is likely to cause a decrease in
caries activity?
A. pH
B. Flow
C. Viscosity
D. Mineral content
E. Buffering capacity
In comparison to amalgam restoration, composite restorations are ___________________.
A. Stronger
B. More technique-sensitive
C. More resistant to occlusal forces
D. Not indicated for Class II restorations
The one constant contraindication for a composite restoration is ___________________.
A. Occlusal factors
B. Inability to isolate the operating area
C. Extension onto the root surface
D. Class I restoration with a high C-factor
When removing a rubber dam, the first step should be to
A. Remove the clamp
B. Remove the clamp & rubber dam at the same time
C. Cut the interseptal rubber dam with scissors
D. Remove widgets and floss from interproximal
On a rubber dam placement which isolated the 6 maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist
observed an unusual amount of wrinkling of the rubber dam between the teeth. This wrinkling is
the result of
A. Punching the holes too small
B. Punching the holes too far apart
C. Punching the holes too close together
D. Crowding and overlapping of the anterior teeth
E. Teeth with broad contacts incisogingivally
Tin is incorporated into an amalgam alloy for the purpose of
A. Increasing expansion and strength
B. Reducing expansion and hardness
C. Increasing strength
D. Acting as scavenger
In preparing Class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the mesial and distal
walls toward the occlusal surface. The divergence serves to:
A. Prevent undermining of the marginal ridges
B. Provide convenience form
C. Resist the forces of mastication
D. Extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed
Silver amalgam should be condensed within 4 minutes following trituration because:
A. Excess will be more easily removed
B. The final set takes place within 5 mins
C. Time studies indicate this is the most efficient working time
D. Beyond this time, the residual mercury retention is markedly increased
A deficient margin at a proximogingival cavosurface angle of a freshly condensed Class II
amalgam restoration may have been caused by:
I.
Poor condensation of the amalgam
II.
Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
III.
Use of too large initial increment of amalgam
IV.
Debris in the corner of the proximal box
V.
Use of hand condensation rather than mechanical condensation
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, III, V
C. I, III, IV
D. I, III, V
E. II, IV, V
A class II cavity preparation in a primary molar for dental amalgam restoration will not
require a gingival bevel, because the enamel rods in the area incline:
A. Facially
B. Lingually
C. Gingivally
D. Occlusally
E. Vertically
Acid etching procedures with a resin system help in:
I.Retaining the resin
II.Improving the color matching
III.Preventing thermal exchange
IV.Preventing microleakage
V.Providing a clean enamel surface for the resin
A. I, II, III
B. I, III, V
C. I, IV, V
D. II, IV, V
E. All of the above
Use of water spray during tooth preparation have the following advantages:
A. Dehydration of oral tissues
B. Tooth restorative material and other debris are carried away
C. Pulp is protected from heat
D. Clean view of cavity can be achieved
E. Bacterial contamination controlled
The dangers of the use of air as a coolant while cutting with ultra high speed are that it may
I.Allow the cutting to proceed too quickly
II.Cool the pulp below the danger point
III.Dehydrate the tooth
IV.Cause the tooth to be hypersensitive
V.Draw the odontoblasts into the dentinal tubules
A. I, III, V
B. II, III
C. II, IV, V
D. III, IV, V
E. IV, V
The bur used in cavity preparation to converge the facial and lingual walls
A. 245
B. 7901
C. 169
D. 171
On a carbide bur, a greater number of cutting blades results in ________ efficient cutting
and a __________ surface
A. Less; smoother
B. Less; rougher
C. More; smoother
D. More; rougher
The rotational instrument which leaves the roughest surface on cut tooth structure is a
______________.
A. Garnet disc at low speed
B. Medium grit diamond at ultra speed
C. Cross cut fissure bur at ultra speed
D. Cross cut fissure bur at low speed
E. Medium grit diamond at low speed
Which material has had fluorides incorporated into it by the use of a fluoride flux in its
manufacture?
A. Zinc silicophosphate
B. Zinc phosphate
C. Polycarboxylate
D. Bis-GMA
When deep caries has been excavated and the cavity is close to the pulp, it is acceptable to
A. Coat the entire area with cavity varnish and then place a liner of calcium hydroxide
followed by a zinc phosphate base
B. Place a liner of calcium hydroxide followed by a coating of cavity varnish over the entire
cavity, followed by a zinc phosphate base
C. Place a liner of calcium hydroxide followed by a coat of cavity varnish, followed by a liner
of calcium hydroxide and phosphate cement
D. Coat the deep excavation with prednisolone followed by a coat of cavity varnish followed
by calcium hydroxide and phosphate cement
The most important consideration for pulp protection in restorative technique is:
A. An adequate protective base
B. Complete removal of caries
C. Thickness of remaining dentin
D. Proper sealing of the remaining dentin
What type of setting reaction is common to all glass ionomer materials?
A. Polymerization
B. Oxidation-reduction
C. Acid-base
D. All of those mentioned
The solubility of zinc phosphate cement is markedly influenced by:
I.Powder/liquid ratio
II.Diet and oral flora of the patient
III.Brand of the material
IV.Age of the patient
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. I, III
D. II, III
E. All of the above
For a 12-year old, the treatment of choice for a fractured mandibular lateral incisor involving
the mesio-incisal angle but not the pulp is:
A. Etching and placement of a resin restoration
B. Lingual dovetail inlay
C. Pin-retained metallic restoration
D. Porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
E. None of the above
What is the minimal occlusal clearance in a preparation for a porcelain-fused-to-metal
restoration?
A. 0.5mm
B. 1.0mm
C. 1.5cm
D. 0.15cm
E. 2.5mm
Which of the following procedures should be accomplished after an inlay is cemented
permanently and before the cement has set?
A. Remove occlusal interferences
B. Deepen occlusal sluiceways
C. Polish the inlay with sandpaper disks
D. Burnish all margins for final adaptation
E. Complete the polishing by use of rubber cups and fine abrasive
The interim restoration of choice for placement between completion of the cavity prep and
the seating of an indirect composite inlay restoration is:
A. Zinc oxide eugenol
B. Zinc phosphate
C. Polycarboxylate cement
D. Acrylic inlay cemented with non-eugenol cement
A composite restoration is wider than the diameter of the light tip of the curing unit. In this
situation, the restoration is cured by:
A. Moving the tip over the surface for the required time
B. Placing the tip stepwise over each area and exposing each area for the required time
C. Positioning the tip far enough from the surface to illuminate the entire surface
D. Centering the tip on the surface and curing the entire restoration from this position
Visible light curing units are most hazardous to the
A. Retina
B. Lens
C. Cornea
D. Iris
Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-tooth
syndrome:
A. Collar preparation
B. Skirt preparation
C. Slot preparation
D. Facial and lingual surface groove extension
Thin extensions of facial and lingual proximal margins of an onlay preparation
A. Skirt
B. Slot
C. Lock
D. Collar
E. None
A retention groove whose length is in a longitudinal plane and in dentin:
A. Skirt
B. Slot
C. Lock
D. Collar
E. None
A retention groove whose length is in a transverse plane and in dentin:
A. Skirt
B. Slot
C. Lock
D. Collar
E. None
The gingival-to-occlusal divergence of the cavity walls for Class II inlay cast metal
restoration
A. 2-3 degrees
B. 2-4 degrees
C. 2-5 degrees
D. 3-5 degrees
In class I cavity prep, if the width of the marginal ridge is less than _______, the prep should
be converted to a Class II.
A. 1.6mm
B. 1.8mm
C. 2.0mm
D. 2.5mm
The ideal cavosurface margin for an indirect composite inlay is:
A. Less than 90 degrees
B. More than 90 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. Between 90-100 degrees
E. Between 80-90 degrees
The gingival margins of a gold inlay preparation are generally beveled because this
A. Protects the margins
B. Helps to seal the cavity
C. Allows for a better impression
D. Facilitates finishing
E. All of the above
What effect does contamination by moisture during mixing or condensation have on
amalgam containing zinc?
I.A marked expansion
II.A shard decrease in flow
III.Acceleration of the setting reactions
IV.No appreciable effect on the physical properties except susceptibility to tarnish
V.Loss of compressive strength
A. I only
B. I, II, III
C. I, V
D. IV only
This refers to deformation of amalgam under load over time
A. Fatigue
B. Creep
C. Corrosion
D. Contraction
E. Expansion
An ion-releasing composite material that reduces secondary caries formation at the margin
of a restoration by inhibiting bacterial growth:
A. Ceromers
B. Ormocers
C. Flowable composites
D. Smart composites
E. Compomers
Contain acidic functional groups that can participate in an acid/base reaction following
polymerization of the resin molecule:
A. Composite resin
B. Glass ionomers
C. Compomers
D. Giomers
E. None of these
In the restoration of the proximal surfaces of posterior teeth, periodontal involvement is
MOST likely to develop when there is
A. A flat marginal ridge
B. Failure to polish the proximal surfaces
C. Overextension faciolingually of the cavity
D. Insufficient contact
E. Underextension cervically of the gingival wall
In order to maintain periodontal health, the best position for the cavosurface margin is
A. In the gingival sulcus midway between the crest of the tissue and the epithelial
attachment
B. At the epithelial attachment
C. At the free gingival crest
D. Occlusal to the free gingival crest
E. C or D
During a nonvital bleaching procedure, if a barrier material is not placed between the root
canal filling and bleaching material, the tooth can be subjected to:
A. External cervical root resorption
B. Demineralization of tooth structure
C. Gingival inflammation
D. Poor color improvement
What is the common cause of failure of pulpotomy, that employs a calcium hydroxide in
primary molars
A. Pulp fibrosis
B. Pulp calcification
C. Anxylosis
D. Internal resorption
Which of the following factors is MOST related to the initiation of senile caries?
A. Erosion
B. Attrition
C. Pulpal fibrosis
D. Gingival recession
Which of the following is the most likely postoperative complication of bleaching a tooth that
has not been adequately obturated?
A. Fracture
B. Discoloration
C. Acute apical periodontitis
D. Chronic apical periodontitis
E. External cervical root resorption
Tooth bleaching affects a color change in which of the following tooth parts?
A. Dentin only
B. All of the enamel
C. Both dentin & enamel
D. Only the surface of enamel
What is the current recommended bleaching material for the “walking bleach” technique?
A. 5.25% sodium hypochlorite
B. 30% hydrogen peroxide
C. Sodium perborate
D. Iodoform
E. A & B only
In melting gold preparatory to casting, the appropriate zone of the flame to use is:
A. Reducing zone, since it is not as hot
B. Oxidizing zone to remove oxides
C. Reducing zone, since it prevents oxidation & is higher temperature than oxidizing zone
D. Either zone may be used, since with the current type of alloys both provide satisfactory
results
If gold has a fineness of 750, it has how many carats
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 20
E. 24
Local anesthetics aid in reducing flow of saliva during operative procedures by
A. Blocking cholinergic nerve endings
B. Blocking innervation to major salivary glands
C. Blocking efferent parasympathetic nerve pathways
D. Reducing sensitivity and anxiety during tooth preparation
E. Increasing sensitivity during tooth preparation
The following are the indications of ART, except:
A. Patients with extreme fear/anxiety
B. For the home-bound elderly and those living in nursing homes
C. Cavity is inaccessible to hand instruments
D. For mental and/or physically handicapped patients
E. Patients who abuse methamphetamine
An evaluation of which of the following represents the most important aspect in shade
selection, for the restoration to match an existing dentition
A. Hue
B. Chroma
C. Value
D. Shape
This phenomenon proposes that flexure of the tooth at the cervical margin while under load
is responsible for the progressive breakdown of the brittle dental tissues
A. Erosion
B. Attrition
C. Abrasion
D. Abfraction
E. Both b&d
A bevel is contraindicated on the cavosurface of a Class I dental amalgam cavity
preparation. Which of the following explains why?
A. This type of margin is prone to microleakage
B. The cavosurface bevel makes burnishing more difficult
C. Thin flange of amalgam restorative material might fracture
D. As the tooth undergoes natural attrition, the amalgam margin can abrade
The principal reasons for placing a gingival interproximal wedge in conjunction with a matrix
for amalgam condensation are to:
1.Separate the teeth slightly
2.Keep the band tight at gingival margin
3.Contributes to the interproximal contact of restoration
4.Retract the gingival tissue
A. 1,2,3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1,3,4
D. All of the above
The third number in a four-number instrument formula is:
A. Blade width
B. Blade length
C. Blade angle
D. Cutting edge angle
E. None of those mentioned
What is the cutting angle of a hand cutting instrument with the following formula: 10-85-8-14
A. 85 degrees
B. 360 degrees
C. 50 degrees
D. 306 degrees
Which component of traditional dental porcelain gives strength to the material
A. Feldspar
B. Kaolin
C. Quartz
D. Clay
Extension for prevention is directly related to:
A. Removal of unsupported enamel on the proximal surface of a Class III cavity prep
B. Depth of axial wall of a class III cavity
C. Elimination of all carious dentin beyond the average depth of the pulpal wall of a class I
cavity
D. The outline of the cavity
Retention form for composite restoration is achieved by:
A. Chemical bond with tooth
B. Adhesion to enamel & dentin
C. Mechanical undercuts
D. A & B
E. B & C
Salivary antibacterial agent that inhibit the growth of C.albicans and S.mutans
A. Apolactoferrin
B. Lactoperoxidase
C. Lysozyme
D. Histatins
E. Lactoferrin
When carving a Class I amalgam restoration, which statement is false?
A. Carving may be made easier by waiting 1 or 2 minutes after condensation, before it is
started
B. The blade of the discoid carver should move parallel to the margins resting totally on the
partially set amalgam
C. Do not carve deep occlusal anatomy
D. The carved amalgam outline should coincide with the cavosurface margins
The following are fillers used for composite resins, except:
A. Quartz
B. Fluoride containing fluorosilicates
C. Amorphous silica
D. Aluminum oxide
E. Barium, strontium
A type of bevel wherein entire enamel is beveled at 70 degree to cavity wall
A. Partial bevel
B. Long bevel
C. Butt joint
D. Concave bevel
The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is
A. Actinomyces viscosus
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptococcus salivarius
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
The stress required to fracture a material when forces are applied opposite and toward each
other:
A. Compressive strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Resistance form
D. Shear strength
E. Creep
Amalgam has a favorable coefficient of thermal expansion, but is a poor ___________
A. Thermal conductor
B. Thermal insulator
C. Tensile strength
D. Compressive strength
Overtriturated alloy with mercury has the following characteristics, except
A. Wet, runny, sticky
B. Increase in corrosion
C. Increase in strength
D. Decrease setting expansion time
E. Increase in creep
