GENERAL PATHOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Difference in transudate and exudate is that the former has

A. Low protein
B. Cloudy appearance
C. Increased specific gravity
D. High protein

A

A. Low protein

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2
Q

Stage of syphilis presenting non-painful lesions known as chancre sores

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary

A

a. Primary

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3
Q

Each of the following is true of cell-mediated immunity EXCEPT

A. it is responsible for type IV hypersensitivity reactions.
B. it defends against parasites.
C. it is important in transplant rejection.
D. it involves NK cells and macrophages.
E. it involves predominantly B cells.

A

E. it involves predominantly B cells.

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4
Q

An infant with cleft lip, palate, polydactyly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, and ectodermal scalp
defect is suffering from

A. Trisomy 21
B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 13
D. Turner syndrome

A

C. Trisomy 13

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5
Q

An infant with osteopetrosis has dysfunctional _____.

A. Chondrocytes
B. Osteoblasts
C. Osteoclasts
D. Fibroblasts
E. Lymphocytes

A

C. Osteoclasts

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6
Q

The anterior horns of the spinal cord are primary sites of damage in:

A. Herpes Zoster
B. Meningococcal meningitis
C. Tertiary Syphilis
D. Poliomyelitis
E. Rabies

A

D. Poliomyelitis

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7
Q

A benign tumor arising from voluntary muscle is a

A. Leiomyoma
B. Papilloma
C. Rhabdomyoma
D. Leiomyosarcoma
E. Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

C. Rhabdomyoma

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8
Q

Wickham’s striae and saw tooth rete ridges are observed in which condition?

A. Pemphigoid of the mucous membrane
B. Lichen Planus
C. Erythema Multiforme
D. Peutz-Jeghers
E. Psoriasis

A

B. Lichen Planus

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9
Q

Which of the following will NOT promote fluid retention in the interstitial compartment?

A. Lymphatic obstruction
B. Increased capillary permeability
C. Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
D. Increased hydrostatic pressure of the blood
E. Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

A

E. Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

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10
Q

Which of the following is FALSE concerning necrotic changes?

A. Ischemia is seen with coagulative necrosis.
B. Fatty acids are released with liquefactive necrosis.
C. Myocardial infarcts cause liquefactive necrosis.
D. Caseous necrosis is seen in tuberculosis infection.
E. Granulomas are considered as being characteristic of caseous necrosis.

A

C. Myocardial infarcts cause liquefactive necrosis.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a type of irreversible cell injury?

A. Karyorrhexis.
B. Ribosomal detachment from endoplasmic reticulum.
C. Chromatin clumping.
D. Cellular and organelle swelling.
E. Bleb formation.

A
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12
Q

The most common cause of hypothyroidism in adults is Graves’ Disease. Hypothyroidism can be caused
by Iodine deficiency.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

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13
Q

Each of the following illnesses is a histiocytosis X disease EXCEPT

A. Letterer-Siwe disease.
B. Hand-Schüller-Christian disease.
C. Haberman disease.
D. eosinophilic granuloma.
E. none of the above.

A

C. Haberman disease

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14
Q

A 12-year-old patient presents with premature loss of primary teeth. On radiographic exam, a sharply marginated
lucency is seen in the area of tooth loss. Biopsy shows a round cell infiltrate with numerous eosinophils. This would
suggest which of the following?

A. Cherubism
B. Gardner’s syndrome
C. Paget’s disease
D. Fibrous dysplasia
E. Langerhans cell disease

A

E. Langerhans cell disease

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15
Q

The phase at which cells are most radiosensitive

A. S-phase
B. M-phase
C. G1-phase
D. GO-phase

A

B. M-phase

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16
Q

Which of the following is a major complication of chronic bronchitis?

A. Myxedema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Emphysema
D. Pernicious anemia
E. Malignant transformation

A

E. Malignant transformation

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17
Q

Condensing Osteitis

I. Involves anterior surface of maxilla
II. In young patients
III. Cotton-wool appearance
IV. Tissue reaction is proliferation
V. Patient with very high resistance

A. II, IV, V
B. III, IV, V
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II

A

A. II, IV, V

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18
Q

Nephrotic Syndrome , a glomerular disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION

A. Heavy Proteinuria
B. Lipiduria
C. Hyperalbuminemia
D. Hyperlipidemia
E. Severe Edema

A

C. Hyperalbuminemia

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19
Q

Which of the following cancers has the highest incidence in men?

A. Colorectal
B. Urinary tract
C. Prostate
D. Lung
E. Leukemia

A

C. Prostate

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20
Q

A lysosomal storage disease characterized by deficiency of hexosaminidase A with “cherry-red spot formation”
in the retina leading to blindness is:

A. Niemann-Pick disease
B. Pompe’s disease
C. Tay-Sach’s disease
D. Gaucher’s disease
E. Her’s disease

A

C. Tay-Sach’s disease

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21
Q

A cotton-wool appearance describes the radiograph of a patient with

A. Osteopetrosis
B. Osteitis deformans
C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
D. Seborrheic keratosis
E. Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

B. Osteitis deformans

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22
Q

This is the type of Human Herpesvirus that is commonly associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma.

A. HHV-1
B. HHV-2
C. HHV-4
D. HHV-8

A

D. HHV-8

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23
Q

Edema occurs due to

A. Increased capillary permeability
B. Decreased capillary permeability
C. Decreased interstitial fluid
D. Decreased blood flow

A

A. Increased capillary permeability

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24
Q

Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which of the following diseases?

A. Klinefelter Syndrome
B. Multiple Myeloma
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Pemphigus
E. Peutz-Jeghers

A

A. Klinefelter Syndrome

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25
Q

The constant low level of a disease in a given area is termed:

A. Pandemic
B. Endemic
C. Epidemic
D. None of the above

A

B. Endemic

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26
Q

Which of the following disorders is least likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with
jaundice?

A. Hepatitis
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Cholelithiasis
D. Glomerulonephritis
E. Carcinoma of the pancreas

A

D. Glomerulonephritis

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27
Q

Type of necrosis seen in hemorrhagic infarction of the lung is

A. Caseous necrosis
B. Coagulation Necrosis
C. Fibrinoid necrosis
D. Gangrenous necrosis

A

B. Coagulation Necrosis

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28
Q

Oncogenic viruses in human are

A. HPV
B. EBV
C. Hepatitis-B virus
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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29
Q

All of the following are features of Albers-Schonberg disease EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?

A. Anemia
B. Multiple bone fractures
C. Decreased bone density
D. Blindness
E. Deafness

A

C. Decreased bone density

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30
Q

An increase in alkaline phosphatase may be seen in all of the following conditions except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteitis deformans
D. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate with bone metastases
E. Multiple myeloma

A

B. Osteoporosis

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31
Q

A 60-year-old male patient reports of painless swelling of maxilla since 4 years. On examination the maxilla
was expanded bilaterally. Laboratory diagnosis revealed that the patient had increased alkaline phosphatase
levels. What can be the diagnosis?

A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Cherubism
C. Paget’s disease
D. Osteosarcoma

A

C. Paget’s disease

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32
Q

Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the maxilla and the mandible, multiple skin lesions and calcification of
the falx cerebri are characteristic of

A. Horner’s syndrome
B. Gardner’s syndrome
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
E. basal cell nevus syndrome

A

E. basal cell nevus syndrome

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33
Q

Which of the following is caused by the inhalation of carbon dust?

A. Asbestosis
B. Silicosis
C. Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
D. Anthracosis

A

D. Anthracosis

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34
Q

Suppose a patient presents with café au lait spots, which of the following is NOT commonly associated with this
clinical finding?

A. Neurofibromatosis (type 1)
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Fanconi anemia
D. McCune-Albright syndrome
E. Vitiligo

A

E. Vitiligo

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35
Q

Symptoms of myocardial infarction include all of the following except one.

A. Angina
B. Diaphoresis
C. Fever
D. Vomiting
E. Dyspnea

A

C. Fever

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36
Q

The most prominent mechanism of spread of the hepatitis A virus is by which of the following routes?

A. Oral-anal
B. Respiratory
C. Sexual contact
D. Perinatal
E. Insect vectors

A

A. Oral-anal

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37
Q

Aschoff’s bodies are observed in which of the following conditions?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Scleroderma

A

D. Rheumatic fever

38
Q

Orange peel and Ground glass radiographic appearance is observed in cases of

A. Pagets disease
B. Ewing’s Sarcoma
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Fibrous Dysplasia

A

D. Fibrous Dysplasia

39
Q

A chromosomal aberration in chromosome number 22 is associated with:

a. Down’s Syndrome
b. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
c. Aplastic Anemia
d. Turner’s Syndrome

A

b. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

40
Q

Gustatory sweating is the chief symptom in

a. Bell’s palsy
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Orolingual paresthesia
d. Auriculotemporal syndrome
e. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia

A

d. Auriculotemporal syndrome

41
Q

The most aggressive type of bronchogenic carcinoma

A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Small cell carcinoma
D. Large cell carcinoma

A

C. Small cell carcinoma

42
Q

All of the following are histopathologic features of malignant cells except one.

A. Anaplasia
B. Pleomorphism
C. Aneuploidy
D. Large nuclei
E. Low nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio

43
Q

Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following anatomic findings?

A. Aortic stenosis
B. Tricuspid stenosis
C. Pericardial effusion
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
E. Right ventricular hypertrophy

A

D. Left ventricular hypertrophy

44
Q

All of the following microbes are associated with infections secondary to HIV infection except one.
Which one is the exception?

A. Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly Pneumocystis carinii)
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Coxsackievirus
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Candida albicans

A

C. Coxsackievirus

45
Q

Rubeola commonly produces an exanthem of the buccal mucosa designated as

A. Negri bodies
B. Fordyce’s spots
C. Paschen bodies
D. Koplik spots
E. Guarnieri bodies

A

D. Koplik spots

46
Q

Hypertension (long term) is compensated by which of the following renal mechanisms?

A. Increased circulating antidiuretic hormone(vasopressin)
B. Increased sympathetic activity
C. Decreased circulating aldosterone
D. Increased circulating angiotensin II

A

C. Decreased circulating aldosterone

47
Q

Polydactyly, craniosynostosis, late closure of fontanelles is a feature of :

A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s syndrome
C. Pierre Robin syndrome
D. Down Syndrome

A

A. Apert’s syndrome

48
Q

Negri bodies, Guarnieri bodies, and molluscum bodies are example of

A. foreign bodies
B. inclusion bodies
C. asteroid bodies
D. Verocay bodies
E. psammoma bodies

A

B. inclusion bodies

49
Q

Most radiosensitive cells among the following are

A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Megakaryocytes

A

B. Lymphocytes

50
Q

A fluid filled elevated lesion of the skin is called

A. Bulla
B. Macule
C. Papule
D. Nodule

51
Q

Myasthenia gravis is a disorder that is usually caused by -

A. Trauma to a specific skeletal muscle
B. Trauma to the central nervous system
C. Autoimmune factors
D. Excessive sympathetic stimulation
E. Trauma to a nerve or nerves to skeletal muscle

A

C. Autoimmune factors

52
Q

Accumulation of fluid in the pericardium occurs most often with which of the following conditions?

A. Unstable angina
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Myocarditis
D. Acute pericarditis
E. Tamponade

A

E. Tamponade

53
Q

Which of the following is a hemolytic anemia?

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

54
Q

Epstein–Barr virus is associated with

A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

55
Q

The characteristic cells of the herpetic lesion are known as:

A. Lipschutz bodies
B. Civatte bodies
C. Lisch nodules
D. Reed-Stemberg cells

A

A. Lipschutz bodies

56
Q

Bence Jones proteins are associated with

A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Infectious mononucleosis

A

C. Multiple myeloma

57
Q

In lichen planus, the basal cells which are shrunken with an eosinophilic cytoplasm and with a pyknotic and fragmented nuclei are called

A. Tzank cells
B. Civatte bodies
C. Donovan bodies
D. Rushton bodies

A

B. Civatte bodies

58
Q

A 60-year-old male patient reports of painless swelling of maxilla since 4 years. On examination the maxilla was expanded bilaterally. Laboratory diagnosis revealed that the patient had increased alkaline phosphatase
levels. What can be the diagnosis?

A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Cherubism
C. Paget’s disease
D. Osteosarcoma

A

C. Paget’s disease

59
Q

DiGeorges syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of

A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Both B and T lymphocytes
D. Antibodies
E. Complement inhibitor

A

B. T lymphocytes

60
Q

The most signiicant complications of Barrett’s esophagus is _______.

A. Varices
B. Stricture
C. Hemorrhage
D. Adenocarcinoma
E. Ulceration

A

D. Adenocarcinoma

61
Q

Osteoporosis, metastatic calcifications, renal stones, increase serum calcium level are manifestations of:

A. Hyperadrenalism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism

A

B. Hyperparathyroidism

62
Q

Addison’s disease is an endocrine disturbance caused by hypofunction of the

A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Anterior lobe of the pituitary
D. Posterior lobe of the pituitary

A

A. Adrenal cortex

63
Q

In pemphigus, autoantibodies are directed against which of the following structures?

A. Acetylcholine receptor
B. Sarcomere
C. Epidermis
D. Thyroid follicle
E. Lysosomes

A

C. Epidermis

64
Q

Heart-failure cells are

A. Aschoff’s giant cells
B. Anitschkow’s myocytes
C. Hypertrophic myocardial fibers
D. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveoli

A

D. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveoli

65
Q

A possible autoimmune vasculitis that may have mouth and genital ulcers with inflamed cartilage is

A. Ramsy-Hunt syndrome
B. Reiter syndrome
C. Gorlin’s syndrome
D. Behcet syndrome

A

D. Behcet syndrome

66
Q

A cigarete-smoking patient notice a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing characterized by prolonged,
expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Bronchopneumonia
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Pulmonary emphysema
d. Carcinoma of the lung
e. Left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema

A

c. Pulmonary emphysema

67
Q

The MOST feared consequence of graft therapy in a patient with an immunodeficiency is

A. Autoimmunity
B. Immunoproliferation
C. Immune complex injury
D. Host versus graft reaction
E. Graft versus host reaction

A

E. Graft versus host reaction

68
Q

Choose a tumor suppressor gene

A. myc
B. fos
C. ras
D. Rb

69
Q

All of the following are true regarding Kaposi Sarcoma except:

A. It is a vascular tumor
B. It is caused by herpesvirus type 2
C. It is highly associated with HIV/AIDS
D. It is a classical lesion characterized by red-purple patches and plaques that eventually become nodular

A

B. It is caused by herpesvirus type 2

70
Q

Which of the following groups of cells are characteristic of a chronic inflammatory process?

A.Neutrophils, mast cells and basophils
B. Neutrophils, eosinophils and histiocytes
C. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages
D. Basophils, eosinophils, and Reed-Sternberg cells
E. Histiocytes, Reed-Sternberg cells, and mast cells

71
Q

Which of the following statements about carcinoma of the colon is NOT true?

A. The transverse colon is the most common site
B. Carcinoma of the colon is more common in industrialized nations
C. Tumors of the left side are more likely to cause symptoms
D. Symptoms generally occur only in advanced disease state
E. Sigmoidoscopic examination can disclose a majority of tumors

A

A. The transverse colon is the most common site

72
Q

Each of the following are symptoms of Sjögren’s syndrome EXCEPT

A. Xerostomia
B. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Associated CT disease

A

C. Sarcoidosis

73
Q

What does HAART stand for

A. Highly Accurate Antiretroviral Therapy
B. Human Activated Antiretroviral Therapy
C. Histiocyte Active Antiretroviral Therapy
D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

A

D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

74
Q

A Substance which promotes the proliferation of T-helper cells that assist in the activation of B-lymphocytes to
respond effectively to an antigen

A. Opsonin
B. Interleukin
C. Bradykinin
D. Immunoglobulin

75
Q

The following may be transmitted from mother to fetus except one. Which is it?

A. Hepatitis B
B. HIV
C. Rubeola
D. Rubella

A

C. Rubeola

76
Q

Severe generalized edema is called

A. Myxedema
B. Pitting edema
C. Anasarca
D. Dependent edema

A

C. Anasarca

77
Q

Type I Diabetes is caused by a reduction in sensitivity of insulin’s target cells. Type I Diabetes is more common
than type 2 diabetes

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

B. Both statements are false

78
Q

Ascites is the accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural cavity. In 85% of cases, ascites is caused by cirrhosis

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

79
Q

The characteristic oral clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is

A. macrognathia.
B. melanin pigmentation of the lips.
C. yellowish spots on the oral mucosa.
D. small, papillary lesions on the palate.
E. a rhomboid-shaped red patch on the dorsum of the tongue.

A

B. melanin pigmentation of the lips.

80
Q

Marie Strumpell disease affects the:

A. Knee joint
B. Spine
C. Pelvis
D. Heart

81
Q

Each of the following endocrine disorders can contribute to secondary hypertension EXCEPT

A. Cushing syndrome
B. diabetes
C. pheochromocytoma
D. hypoaldosteronism
E. hyperthyroidism

A

D. hypoaldosteronism

82
Q

An increase in alkaline phosphatase may be seen in all of the following conditions exceptone. Which one is the
exception?

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteitis deformans
D. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate
E. Multiple myeloma

A

B. Osteoporosis

83
Q

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is caused by_____.

A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepa B virus
C. HIV virus
D. HSV

A

C. HIV virus

84
Q

The pathognomonic lesion of erythema multiforme is a:

A. Butterfly rash
B. “target” lesion
C. “pasted-on” plaque
D. Hill-Sachs lesion

A

B. “target” lesion

85
Q

“Hair-on-end” appearance in a skull roentgenogram is seen in

A. Fibrous Dysplasi
B. Thalassema
C. Garre’s Osteomyelitis
D. Paget’s disease

A

B. Thalassema

86
Q

A disease characterized by small, papulovesicular greyish-white lesions commonly found at the soft palate
and pharynx

A. Summer Illness
B. Hand-Foot-Mouth disease
C. Herpes Simplex
D. German Measles

A

A. Summer Illness

87
Q

Which of the following is usually least malignant?

A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

88
Q

T1 N1 MO lesion is

A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

A

C. Stage III

89
Q

Which of the following is a histologic hallmark of malignancy?

A. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Desmoplasia

A

B. Anaplasia

90
Q

Some microorganisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of

A. Coagulase
B. Peroxidase
C. Bradykinin
D. Hyaluronidase

A

D. Hyaluronidase