Respiratory: TB Flashcards

1
Q

Mycobacteria are:

  • gram-negative cocci shaped bacteria
  • gram-postive cocci shaped bacteria
  • gram-negative rod shaped bacteria
  • gram-postive cocci shaped bacteria
  • gram-negative spiral shaped bacteria
A

Mycobacteria are:

  • gram-negative cocci shaped bacteria
  • gram-postive cocci shaped bacteria

gram-negative rod shaped bacteria

  • gram-postive rod shaped bacteria
  • gram-negative spiral shaped bacteria
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2
Q

What are the red flag pathologies (on BMJ BP) for haemoptysis? [8]

A
  • Pulmonary TB
  • Primary lung cancer
  • Lung metastasis
  • Anticoagulants
  • Toxic inhalation
  • Mitral valve stenosis
  • PE
  • LVF
  • Coagulopathy
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Aspergilloma
  • Aspiration of foreign body
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3
Q

Pathogenesis of TB?

A
  • Inhaled bacteria in droplets carried into lungs:
    typically settle in subpleural area mid or lower lung zones
  • Engulfed by alveolar macrophages form Ghon Focus
  • TB laden macrophages travel to local lymph nodes
  • Form Primary complex (aka Ghon Complex) = primary TB lung infection in non-immune host (Ghon Focus, TB granuloma), plus draining lymph nodes.
  • 5% Ptx have primary pulmonary TB
  • 5% will control TB temporarily, but it will be reactivated later (latent): post primary TB
  • 90 % have no more disease progression
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4
Q

What is a ghon focus? [1]

What is a ghon complex? [1]

A

A small lung lesion known as a Ghon focus develops. The Ghon focus is composed of tubercle-laden macrophages.

The combination of a Ghon focus and hilar lymph nodes is known as a Ghon complex

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5
Q

Investigating for TB:

Which stain do you use for Tb? [2]

What colour do they appear when using this stain? [2]

A

Ziehl–Neelsen stain: bright- red colored rods when a is used.

Auramine: flourescent coloured

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6
Q

Investigating TB:

How do you diagnose if you’ve got latent TB or not? [2]

A

Tuberculin sensitivity Test – aka PPD (Purified Protein Derivative) (Manteux) test:

  • Tuberculin is injected between layers of the dermis, tuberculin is a component of the bacteria, and if a person has previously been exposed to TB, the immune system reacts to the tuberculin and produces a small, localized reaction within 48 to 72 hours; if the reaction creates a large enough area of induration (rather than just redness), it’s considered to be a positive test.

DOESNT DISTINGUISH BETWEEN LATENT AND ACTIVE TB

IFN-γ assay

  • If patient has had TB infection, T lymphocytes produce interferon gamma in response – measured and compared with control sample.
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7
Q

If a patient has suspected primary TB, which investigations would you order? [2]

A

Primary investigations for active pulmonary infection include:
- chest x-ray
- three sputum samples obtained for microscopy, culture, and nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT).

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8
Q

Describe the three different sputum analyses used for TB investigations [3]

A

Sputum microscopy
- three samples are required.
- Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Culture Gold standard
- can take up to 6 weeks in solid media
- can take 1-3 weeks in liquid media

NAAT:
- amplifies a specific nucleic acid sequence that can be detected via a nucleic acid probe
- some NAATs can detect genes encoding drug resistance

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9
Q

Describe the two NAAT tests / assays used for TB [2]

A

Xpert MTB/RIF assay:
- detects M tuberculosis
- detects rifampin-resistance mutations.

Amplified Mycobacterium tuberculosis direct test:
- detects TB but NOT drug resistance.

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10
Q

Which form of investigating for latent TB is preferred for patients with a history of BCG vaccincation? [1]

A

An IGRA is preferred in individuals with a history of BCG vaccination.

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11
Q

The NICE guidelines on tuberculosis (2016) describe “deep cough” sputum samples. If they are not producing enough sputum, the options are what? [2]

A

Sputum induction with nebulised hypertonic saline

Bronchoscopy and bronchoalveolar lavage (saline is used to wash the airways and collect a sample)

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12
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of latent TB [1]

A

Latent infection of TB is asymptomatic and non-contagious

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13
Q

Name this sign of TB [1]

A

Erythema nodosum

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14
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of primary or reactivaed TB

A

Pulmonary TB:
* Dyspnoea, cough (+/- haemoptysis) , chest pain.
* Cough: over 2 to 3 weeks; initially dry, later productive.
* Chest examination: crackles, bronchial breath sounds, or maybe normal.
* Fever: usually gradual onset and low-grade.
* Night sweats: maybe drenching.
* Weight loss, anorexia, and malaise are also common.
* Erythema nodosum(tender, red nodules on the shins caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat)

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15
Q

Where is the most common extra-pulmonary site for TB? [1]

Describe how they change [3]

A

Lymph nodes:
* Enlarged
* Firm
* Non-tender

NB: most commonly affects cervical and supraclavicular nodes.

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16
Q

Describe the clinical findings on respiratory an examination for TB [4]

A
  • Sputum pots with purulent or blood-stained sputum
  • Enlarged, tender lymph nodes
  • Crackles or bronchial breathing over consolidation
  • Dullness to percussion and decreased fremitus over pleural effusions
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17
Q

State 4 differential diagnoses for pulmonary TB [4]

A
  • Bacterial pneumonia or viral respiratory tract infection
  • Interstitial lung disease
  • Malignancy including lymphoma
  • Sarcoidosis
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18
Q

Describe the cough in primary TB [1]

A

Cough: over 2 to 3 weeks; initially dry, later productive.

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19
Q

Patients with TB can present with an abscess. Describe the nature of this abcsess [3]

A

A cold abscess:
- a firm, painless abscess
- usually in the neck.
- They do NOT have the inflammation, redness and pain you expect from an acutely infected abscess.

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20
Q

Describe 3 groups for risk factors for TB reactivation?

A

Immunocompromised states:
- infection with HIV
- Diabetes mellitus
- Silicosis
- Malnutririon
- Ageing
- Prolonged therapy with corticosteroids
- Other immunosuppressive therapy
- Organ transplant

Substance abuse
- IV
- Alchoholics

Others:
* Tumor necrosis factor- alpha [TNF-α] antagonists (used in RA)
* Haematological malignancy
* Severe kidney disease /haemodialysis

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21
Q

Treatment of which drug type is a risk factor for TB re-activation?

A

Prolonged therapy of corticosteroids

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22
Q

Explain the pathology of primary TB

A

Primary TB:

  • After exposure macrophages ingest the bacteria, they produce a protein that inhibits fusion of macrophage and lysosome, which allows the mycobacterium to survive
  • Proliferates, and creates a localized infection.
  • About 3 weeks after initial infection, cell-mediated immunity kicks in, and immune cells surround the site of TB infection, creating a granuloma, essentially an attempt to wall off the bacteria and prevent it from spreading.
  • The tissue inside the middle dies as a result, a process referred to as caseous necrosis, which means “cheese-like” necrosis, since the dead tissue is soft, white, and looks a bit like cheese. This area is known as a “Ghon focus.
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23
Q

Why would post-primary TB / reactivation of latent TB occur? [1]
Where is post primary TB most likely to be found ? [1]

A

Reactivation of latent TB causes: Post primary TB

  • If the host becomes immunocompromised the initial infection may become reactivated. Reactivation generally occurs in the apex of the lungs and may spread locally or to more distant sites.
  • In lungs characterized by cavitary lesions, typically in oxygen rich upper lobes. Relates to hosts previous exposure to MTB and immune response.
24
Q

Would would CXR of Ptx with TB present like? [3]

A

Apex of the lung often involved (more aerobic!)

Ill defined patchy consolidation

Cavitation usually develops within consolidation

Healing results in fibrosis

Hilar lymphadenopathy

25
Q

What is biggest risk factor for mTB reactivating? [1]

All suspected and confirmed cases of TB must have an WHAT test? [1]

A

HIV / AIDs (due to both infections impacting T helper cells)

All suspected and confirmed cases of TB must have an HIV test

26
Q

What would CXR look like in:

  • Primary TB
  • Reactivated TB
  • Millary TB
A

Primary TB may show patchy consolidation, pleural effusions and hilar lymphadenopathy

Reactivated TB may show patchy or nodular consolidation with cavitation (gas filled spaces in the lungs) typically in the upper zones

Disseminated Miliary TB give a picture of “millet seeds” uniformly distributed throughout the lung fields

27
Q

Which type of TB is depicted? [1]

A

Miliary TB

28
Q

Which type of TB is depicted? [1]

A

Tuberculosis, post-primary. There are large cavities in both apices and smaller cavities scattered throughout the lungs. The lungs are over-aerated and there is already scarring present. Dilated bronchi (tuberculous bronchiectasis) is present throughout the lungs.

29
Q

What vaccination do you give for TB? [1]
Which population do you give it to? [1]

A

BCG: Bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine

Given to children: little evidence protecting adults

30
Q

Describe the first line treatment active TB? [4]

A

The recommended regimen for drug-susceptible individuals is:
Intensive phase:

Intensive phase: two months of
- isoniazid
- rifampicin
- pyrazinamide
- ethambutol.

Continuation phase: four months of:
- isoniazid
- rifampin.

31
Q

Second line Treatment medications for TB?

A

Quinolones (Moxifloxacin)
Injectables
Capreomycin, kanamycin, amikacin
Ethionamide/Prothionamide
Cycloserine
PAS (Para-aminosalicylic acid)
Linezolid
Clofazamine

32
Q

How should you monitor treatment treatment of TB? [1]

A

Sputum samples (microscopy and culture) should be obtained for acid-fast bacilli smear and culture at monthly intervals until two consecutive cultures are negative.

33
Q

Which treatments do you provide for certain lenght of time for in TB? [1]

A

6 months total treatment duration

First two months: Rifampicin, Isoniazid (with pyridoxine), Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

Next 4 months – if MTB drug susceptibility conforms- isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin

34
Q

What is miliary TB?
When does it occur? [1]
Name 5 other areas is can effect

A

Miliary TB:
- systemic spread of bacilli through blood stream
- during: primary infection or reactivation
- lungs are always involved
- Often multiple organs involved:
i) Headaches suggest meningeal involvement
ii) Pericardialpleural effusions
iii) Ascites(involvement of peritoneum)
iv) Retinal involvement (choroid tubercles in the eye)
v) Adrenal glands – may causes adrenal insufficiency

35
Q

Name 5 places that extra-pulmonary TB likely spread to [3]

A

Lymphadenitis
Cervical LNs most commonly
Abscesses & sinuses

Gastrointestinal
Swallowing of tubercles in mucous coughed up – any part gut
Peritoneal
Ascitic or adhesive

Genitourinary
Slow progression to renal disease
Subsequent spreading to lower urinary tract

Bone & joint Haematogenous spread
Spinal TB most common- called Pott’s disease

Tuberculous meningitis
Chronic headache, fevers
CSF – markedly raised proteins, lymphocytosis

36
Q

Q2: Please list the four first line medications used to treat TB, and for each medication one described side effect

A

Rifampicin: Raised transaminases & induces cytochrome P450; Orange secretions / urine

Isoniazid: Peripheral neuropathy (prevent with pyridoxine 10mg od); Hepatotoxicity

Pyrazinamide:Hepatotoxicity

Ethambutol: Visual disturbance

37
Q

How do you manage interruption of treatment? [2]

A
  • Extending the duration of treatment
    or
  • Restarting the treatment from the beginning.
38
Q

What would classify TB as being mutli-drug resistant? [1]

A

TB resistant to at least both isoniazid and rifampin.

39
Q

What would classify TB as being extensively drug-resistant? [1]

A

Resistant to at least isoniazid, rifampin, and fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, delafloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin) as well as either aminoglycoside (amikacin, kanamycin) or capreomycin or both.

40
Q

Describe the treatment regime for extensively drug resistant TB [5]

A

The regimen consists of at least five drugs: comprised of susceptible first-line drugs if any. These are:
- fluoroquinolone,
- bedaquiline
- linezolid
- additional oral agents (clofazimine, cycloserine, or terizidone).

41
Q

How do you treat TB with CNS involvement? [2]

A

Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for two months
AND
Isoniazid and rifampicin for a further TEN months

42
Q

Describe how you treat latent TB [2]

A
  • three months of isoniazid and rifampicin
    OR
  • Six months of isoniazid only
43
Q

What do you give when treating TB to avoid peripheral neuropathy? [1]

A

To avoid peripheral neuropathy, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is always given with isoniazid

44
Q

How long is the duration of drug resistant? [1]

A

Different regimens of combination of second-line drugs are used for a duration of 9 to 18 months.

45
Q

Which of the following reduces the effect of the combined pill?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following reduces the effect of the combined pill?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

46
Q

Which of the following requires vitamin B6 to be prescribed alongside it?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following requires vitamin B6 to be prescribed alongside it?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

47
Q

Which of the following causes a risk of gout?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following causes a risk of gout?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

48
Q

Which of the following causes a risk of kidney stones?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following causes a risk of kidney stones?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

49
Q

Which of the following causes a risk of peripheral neuropathy?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following causes a risk of peripheral neuropathy?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

I’m-so-numb-azid

50
Q

Which of the following causes a risk of colour blindness and reduced visual acuity?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following causes a risk of colour blindness and reduced visual acuity?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

“eye-thambutol”

51
Q

Which of the following is not associated with a risk of hepatoxicity?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following is not associated with a risk of hepatoxicity?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

52
Q

Which of the following may cause orange/red tears?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following may cause orange/red tears?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

rifampicin (“red-I’m-pissin’”)

53
Q

A 26-year-old male presents to the General Practitioner with anorexia, loss of appetite, hot flushes, especially at night and weight loss for the past six months. He has had a cough with expectoration and intermittent fever for the past month. Chest X-ray shows a large (4.5 cm) left upper-lobe cavity.

Which of the following investigations leads to a definitive diagnosis?

Blood cultures

Computed tomography (CT) scanning of the chest

Mantoux test

Serum inflammatory markers

Sputum sample

A

Sputum sample

54
Q

A patient presenting with a history of taking which drugs might indicate investigating for TB? [1]

A

anti-TNF medication

Most tuberculosis cases have been seen with infliximab. The British Thoracic Society recommends clinical examination, chest X-ray and tuberculin test before starting treatment with anti-TNF antibody medications.

55
Q

Which of the following is associated with a risk of joint pain?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Which of the following is associated with a risk of joint pain?

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

56
Q
A