Respiratory Pathology ( 10% ) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. All of the following cause compressive atelectasis EXCEPT:
  • a. Pneumothorax
  • b. Asthma
  • c. CCF
  • d. Peritonitis
  • e. Pleural effusion
A

Nick says b. Asthma

I think c. CCF

  • Others all reduce volume of breathing (peritonitis) or can lead to collapse.*
  • CCF would fill alveoli with fluid, so they could not collapse. Asthma can cause mucous plugging and obstruction.*
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2
Q
  1. With respect to atelectasis
  • a. The mediastinum may shift away from the affected lung.
  • b. Obstructive atelectasis is commonest after trauma.
  • c. Compressive atelectasis is commonly encountered in patients with chronic obstructive airways disease.
  • d. It is an irreversible disorder
  • e. It can develop when there is loss of pulmonary surfactant.
A

a. The mediastinum may shift away from the affected lung.

This is listed as wrong, however this occurs in compression atelectasis

e. It can develop when there is loss of pulmonary surfactant.

Technically can refer to neonatal RDS (this was listed as right)

  • b. Obstructive atelectasis is commonest after Mucus or exudate plugging
  • c. Obstructive atelectasis is commonly encountered in patients with chronic obstructive airways disease.
  • d. It is a reversible disorder.
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3
Q
  1. obstructive atelectasis
  • a. the mediastinum moves away from lesion
  • b. involves the reabsorption of air
  • c. is caused by pleural fluid
A

b. involves the reabsorption of air

  • a. the mediastinum moves towards the lesion
  • c. is caused by mucous or exudative plugging
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4
Q
  1. Restrictive lung disease is characterized by
  • a. Acute inflammation of alveolar interstitium
  • b. Increased compliance
  • c. Ground glass appearance on chest X-ray film
  • d. Long term complication of mesothelioma
  • e. Increased lung volume
A

c. Ground glass appearance on chest X-ray film

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5
Q
  1. squamous cell lung carcinoma
  • a. has a 5 year survival rate of 60%
  • b. is most commonly associated with smokers
  • c. is commonest peripherally.
  • d. is commonest in females.
A

b. is most commonly associated with smokers

  • a. has a 5 year survival rate of 60%
  • c. is commonest Hilum / central
  • d. is commonest in Males
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6
Q
  1. Which is not true of bronchogenic cysts
  • a. They may become dysplastic.
  • b. They occasionally cause pneumothorax
  • c. They have an epithelial layer
  • d. They may contain mucous
  • e. They are often associated with bronchioles
A

e. They are often associated with bronchioles

Bronchogenic cysts are congenital malformations of the bronchial tree (a type of bronchopulmonary foregut malformation). They can present as a mediastinal mass that may enlarge and cause local compression. It is also considered the commonest of foregut duplication cysts.

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7
Q
  1. Regarding bronchogenic carcinoma
  • a. It most often arises around the hilum of the lung
  • b. Distant spread occurs solely by lymphatic spread
  • c. Metastasis are most common to the liver
  • d. Small cell carcinoma is the most common type
  • e. Surgical resection is often effective for small cell carcinoma
A

a. It most often arises around the hilum of the lung

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8
Q
  1. All of the following are neoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer EXCEPT:
  • a. Cushings syndrome
  • b. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
  • c. Hypocalcaemia.
  • d. Carcinoid syndrome
  • e. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
A

c. Hypercalcaemia.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma?
  • a. Ectopic ADH secretion
  • b. Dermatomyositis
  • c. Migratory thrombophlebitis
  • d. Eaton-Lambert (myasthenic) syndrome
  • e. Thrombocytosis
A

e. Thrombocytosis

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10
Q
  1. The features of bronchogenic carcinoma include
  • a. The classification of “oat cell” tumour within the large cell type
  • b. High initial response to chemotherapy for small cell type
  • c. The strongest correlation with cigarette smoking in the adenocarcinoma type
  • d. That 50% of small cell type occur in non-smokers
  • e. Histological features identical in small cell carcinomas and squamous cell types
A

b. High initial response to chemotherapy for small cell type

  • Small cell has a strong association with smoking*
    c. The strongest correlation with cigarette smoking in the squamous cell type
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11
Q
  1. Regarding malignant mesothelioma
  • a. It is asbestos related in more than 90% of cases.
  • b. It has been found to contain adenovirus DNA sequence
  • c. Smoking increases the risk of developing mesothelioma.
  • d. 50% of patients die within 6 months of diagnosis
  • e. can contain epithelioid and sarcomatoid cells
A

e. can contain epithelioid and sarcomatoid cells

  • a. It is asbestos related in 90% of cases.
  • b. It has been found to contain adenovirus DNA sequence
  • c. asbestos increases the risk of developing mesothelioma.
  • d. 50% of patients die within 6 months of diagnosis
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12
Q
  1. Comparing the pulmonary oedema of CCF with ARDS, a defining characteristic of ARDS is:
  • a. Spontaneous resolution within 48 hours
  • b. Formation of hyaline membranes
  • c. A deficiency of surfactant
  • d. A distinct lobar pattern of consolidation
  • e. High pulmonary wedge pressures
A

b. Formation of hyaline membranes

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13
Q
  1. ARDS is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
  • a. Interstitial fibrosis
  • b. Pulmonary vein obstruction
  • c. Hypoxaemia responsive to oxygen therapy
  • d. Radiation injury
  • e. DKA
A

c. Hypoxaemia responsive to oxygen therapy

Is associated with oxygen toxicity

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14
Q
  1. Pulmonary oedema
  • a. Contains a protein rich fluid in the alveolar spaces
  • b. Fluid accumulates especially in the dependent apical regions of the lower lobe
  • c. In a chronic state, can result in interstitial fibrosis
  • d. Is not associated with ARDS
  • e. Can result from increased hydrostatic pressure such as in the nephritic syndrome
A

c. In a chronic state, can result in interstitial fibrosis

  • a. Contains a protein poor fluid in the alveolar spaces (a transudate)
  • b. Fluid accumulates especially in the dependent basal regions of the lower lobe
  • d. IS associated with ARDS (I assume they mean that ARDS is similar to pulmonary oedema)
  • e. Can result from increased hydrostatic pressure such as in volume overload, CHF, LV failure
    • ​Nephritic syndrome causes a low oncotic pressure
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15
Q
  1. The type of emphysema associated with smoking is
  • a. Panacinar
  • b. Centriacinar
  • c. Distal acinar
  • d. Irregular
  • e. None of the above
A

b. Centriacinar

  • Aka the more proximal regions are destroyed*
  • Panacinar is seen in a1 antitrypsin deficiency*
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16
Q
  1. Chronic bronchitis is characterized by
  • a. Smooth muscle hypertrophy
  • b. Leukocyte infiltration
  • c. Mucous gland hypertrophy
  • d. Increased size of goblet cells
A

c. Mucous gland hypertrophy

  • Pathogenesis
    • Chronic irritation of airways by inhaled substances (usually tobacco smoke)
    • Bronchial epithelial metaplasia from columnar to squamous
    • Mucus gland hypertrophy and goblet cell metaplasia allow for hypersecretion
      • Stimulated by histamine
    • Chronic infl -> fibrosis (cf emphysema which has minimal or no fibrosis)
    • Inhaled irritants impair ciliary function and therefore mucus clearance
    • Infections play a significant role in maintaining the disease state
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17
Q
  1. Chronic bronchitis major morphological change involves
  • a. Leukocyte infiltration
  • b. Decreased goblet cell number
  • c. Smooth muscle hypertrophy
  • d. Increased mucosal gland depth (REID index)
  • e. Monocyte infiltration
A

d. Increased mucosal gland depth (REID index)

Mucosal gland hypertrophy and goblet cell metaplasia

Emphysema is characterised by a neutrophil infiltrate

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18
Q
  1. In emphysema
  • a. A deficiency of alpha 1 antitryptin is protective
  • b. Centriacinar destruction leads to obstructive overinflation
  • c. The protease-antiprotease mechanism is the most plausible explanation of the disease
  • d. Smokers have an increased number of macrophages in the bronchi
  • e. Elastase activity is unaffected by oxygen free radicals
A

c. The protease-antiprotease mechanism is the most plausible explanation of the disease

  • emphysema is characterised by a neutrophil infiltrate*
  • Oxygen free radicals degrade elastin*
  • Centriacinar destruction leads to overinflation due to loss of usual elastic tissues*
19
Q
  1. In chronic bronchitis
  • a. The hallmark is hypersecretion of mucous in the large airways
  • b. There is a marked increase in goblet cells in the main bronchi
  • c. Infection is a primary cause
  • d. Cigarette smoke stimulates alveolar leukocytes
  • e. Dysplasia of the epithelium leads to emphysema
A

a. The hallmark is hypersecretion of mucous in the large airways

  • b. There is metaplasia in goblet cells in the main bronchi -> mucous hypersecretion
  • c. Infection is a complication and secondary cause of further damage
  • d. Cigarette smoke stimulates alveolar leukocytes (this occurs in emphysema)
  • e. Dysplasia of the epithelium leads to emphysema - seperate but often connected disease processes
20
Q
  1. In bronchial asthma
  • a. Extrinsic asthma is initiated by diverse non-immune mechanisms
  • b. Sub-epithelial vagal receptors in respiratory mucosa are insensitive to irritants
  • c. IgG plays a role
  • d. Bronchial wall smooth muscle is atrophic
  • e. Primary mediators include eosinophilic and neutrophilic chemotactic factors
A

e. Primary mediators include eosinophilic and neutrophilic chemotactic factors

21
Q
  1. Regarding anatomical types of emphysema:
  • a. Panacinar is more common than centriacinar
  • b. Centriacinar is not common in smokers
  • c. Paraseptal emphysema is associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
  • d. Spontaneous penumothorax is common in panacinar type
  • e. Distal portion of acinus is predominantly involved in paraseptal emphysema
A

e. Distal portion of acinus is predominantly involved in paraseptal emphysema

  • Centriacinar is common in smokers, and more common than panacinar*
  • Panacinar is associated with a1AT deficiency*
  • PTX common in paraseptal / distal acinar*
22
Q
  1. Regarding emphysema
  • a. The usual age of onset is 40-50 years.
  • b. Copious sputum production is common.
  • c. Cor pulmonale is a common feature.
  • d. Airways resistance may be normal
  • e. CXR usually shows a large heart.
A

d. Airways resistance may be normal

  • a. The usual age of onset is 40-50 years in Chronic bronchitis.
    • ​Emphysema is later (50-70)
  • b. Copious sputum production is Uncommon
  • c. Cor pulmonale is an Uncommon feature
  • e. CXR usually shows a large heart in Chronic bronchitis due to cor pulmonale
23
Q
  1. The following is not an obstructive airways disease
  • a. Emphysema
  • b. Pneumonia
  • c. Asthma
  • d. Bronchitis
  • e. Bronchiectasis
A

b. Pneumonia

24
Q
  1. Characteristic histologic findings of asthma include:
  • a. Thinning of the basement membrane of the bronchial epithelium
  • b. Oedema and an inflammatory infiltrate in the bronchial walls with a prominence of plasma cells
  • c. An increase in size of the submucosal glands
  • d. Atrophy of the bronchial wall muscle
  • e. Undistended lungs because of occlusion of bronchioles
A

c. An increase in size of the submucosal glands

Morphology of asthma

  • Bronchial smooth muscle and submucosal gland hypertrophy
  • Thickening of the basement membrane of bronchial epithelium
  • Subepithelial fibrosis
  • Oedema and an infiltrate of eosinophils and mast cells in the bronchial walls
  • Curshmann spirals
25
Q
  1. Regarding the pathogenesis of COPD:
  • a. Macrophage elastase function is inhibited by alpha1-antitrypsin
  • b. Cigarette smoking activates the classic complement pathway
  • c. Microbiologic infections initiate the changes.
  • d. Smokers have decreased numbers of neutrophils in their alveoli
  • e. Chronic bronchitis is up to 10 times more common in heavy smokers
A

a. Macrophage elastase function is inhibited by alpha1-antitrypsin
e. Chronic bronchitis is up to 10 times more common in heavy smokers
* Probably one of these two - a) fits with the protease/antiprotease theory. e) - I wouldnt be surpirsed if the ratio was higher.*

  • b. Cigarette smoking activates the alternative complement pathway
  • c. Microbiologic infections initiate the changes.
    • Thought to be due to protease-antiprotease imbalance
    • Infection -> bronchiectasis
  • d. Smokers have decreased numbers of ?macrophages in their alveoli
26
Q
  1. emphysema
  • a. is defined clinically as persistent cough with sputum production for at least three months in at least two consecutive years.
  • b. is defined morphologically as the abnormal enlargement of air spaces proximal to the terminal bronchioles.
  • c. is a restrictive lung disease.
  • d. has airway dilation and scarring as its major pathological change.
  • e. develops earlier in smokers with an alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
A

e. develops earlier in smokers with an alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

  • Chronic brochitis is defined clinically as persistent cough with sputum production for at least three months in at least two consecutive years.
  • b. is defined morphologically as the abnormal enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles.
  • c. is a obstructive lung disease
  • Bronchiectasis has airway dilation and scarring as its major pathological change.
27
Q
  1. Regarding asthma
  • a. The inflammatory infiltrate of bronchial walls is predominantly neutrophils
  • b. Hypertrophy of bronchial wall muscle reflects prolonged bronchoconstriction
  • c. It is triggered by IgG response
  • d. Sympathetic stimulation provokes bronchoconstriction
  • e. Bacteria are the most common provokers of an acute attack
A

b. Hypertrophy of bronchial wall muscle reflects prolonged bronchoconstriction

  • a. The inflammatory infiltrate of bronchial walls is predominantly eosinophils
  • c. It is triggered by IgE response
  • d. Parasympathetic (vagal) stimulation provokes bronchoconstriction
  • e. Allergens are the most common provokers of an acute attack
28
Q
  1. Intrinsic asthma:
  • a. Decreases vagal afferent responsiveness.
  • b. Is associated with atopy.
  • c. is commonly triggered by viral infections
  • d. IgE levels are often elevated.
  • e. The airway is not hyperreactive.
A

Intrinsic = non-atopic

c. is commonly triggered by viral infections

  • a. increased vagal afferent responsiveness.
  • b. Is not associated with atopy.
  • d. IgE levels are often elevated in Atopic
  • e. The airway is hyperreactive.
29
Q
  1. Asthma shows all EXCEPT
  • a. Thinning of basement membrane.
  • b. Submucosal gland hypertrophy
  • c. Hypertrophy of smooth muscle
  • d. Charcot Leyden crystals
  • e. Cushmann’s spirals
A

a. Thickening of basement membrane.

30
Q
  1. Regarding the use of steroids in Asthma
  • a. They inhibit cytokines
  • b. Cause bronchodilation
  • c. Given nocte because of diurnal variation
A

a. They inhibit cytokines

Do not have a direct action on smooth muscle - hence the time taken for them to work acutely, and often just used prophylactically

31
Q
  1. The most common type of emphysema associated with cigarette smoking is
  • a. Centrilobular
  • b. Panacinar
  • c. Paraseptal
  • d. Irregular
  • e. Compensatory
A

a. Centrilobular

32
Q
  1. Chronic bronchitis
  • a. Is twenty times more common in heavy smokers
  • b. Is present in any patient with persistent cough with sputum production for at least two months in three consecutive years
  • c. Is characterized by early functional respiratory impairment
  • d. Can progress to cor pulmonale and cardiac failure
  • e. Is a disease of the large airways
A

d. Can progress to cor pulmonale and cardiac failure

Can be diagnosed by 3 months of cough in 2 consective years

33
Q
  1. Regarding emphysema
  • a. The commonest type is panacinar form
  • b. In centrilobular form, the distal alveoli are spared
  • c. In panacinar form, the upper lobes of the lungs are mainly affected
  • d. In centrilobular form, the lower lobes of the lungs are mainly affected
  • e. There is no association between cigarette smoking and emphysema
A

b. In centrilobular form, the distal alveoli are spared

  • Centrlobular is more common, mainly affects the upper lobes, and associated with smoking*
  • Panacinar is associated wtih a1AT deficiency, and is less common*
34
Q
  1. Features of atopic asthma include all of the following EXCEPT:
  • a. IgE production by beta-cells
  • b. Induction of TH1 cells.
  • c. Release of IL-4 and IL-5
  • d. Growth of mast cells
  • e. Activation of eosinophils
A

b. Induction of TH2 cells.

35
Q
  1. Lobar pneumonia
  • a. Is more common in the young and the elderly
  • b. Involves morphological changes of red to grey hepatisation
  • c. Not usually associated with a productive cough
  • d. Is associated with immunosuppression
  • e. Rarely caused by streptococcus
A

b. Involves morphological changes of red to grey hepatisation

36
Q
  1. In bacterial pneumonia
  • a. Patchy consolidation of the lung is the dominant feature of bronchopneumonia
  • b. A lobar distribution is a function of anatomical variations
  • c. Klebsiella pneumonia is a common virulent agent
  • d. Alveolar clearance of bacteria is achieved by lymphocytes
  • e. The nasopharynx is inconsequential in defending the lung against infection
A

a. Patchy consolidation of the lung is the dominant feature of bronchopneumonia

  • b. A lobar distribution is a function of anatomical variations
    • ?it just happens that it involves a lobe - can occur in anyone, does not need anatomical variation
  • c. Klebsiella pneumonia is a uncommon virulent agent
  • d. Alveolar clearance of bacteria is achieved by macrophages
  • e. The nasopharynx is important in defending the lung against infection
37
Q
  1. Bacterial pneumonia:
  • a. May be predisposed to by immotile cilia syndromes (eg. Kartageners)
  • b. Is characterized by an acute (neutrophilic) suppurative exudates within alveolar spaces and airways
  • c. Is a frequent cause of death in hospitalized patients
  • d. May be complicated by organisation
  • e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

38
Q
  1. Regarding pulmonary infections:
  • a. Respiratory tract infections are more frequent than infection of any other organ
  • b. Patchy consolidation is uncommon with bronchopneumonia.
  • c. Lobar pneumonia is more frequent than bronchopneumonia.
  • d. Haematogenous secondary seeding of lungs does not occur.
  • e. Commonest infectious agents are H. influenzae and K. pneumoniae.
A

a. Respiratory tract infections are more frequent than infection of any other organ

  • b. Patchy consolidation is the defining feature of bronchopneumonia.
  • c. Lobar pneumonia is less frequent than bronchopneumonia.
  • d. Haematogenous secondary seeding of lungs can rarely occur.
  • e. Commonest infectious agents are H. influenzae and S. pneuoniae
39
Q
  1. Regarding lung abscesses:
  • a. Aspiration most commonly results in abscesses in the left lung.
  • b. Anaerobic organisms are the exclusive isolates in 60% of cases.
  • c. A central area of liquefactive necrosis develops
  • d. Infected emboli from bacterial endocarditis typically affect the right lung
  • e. Secondary empyema occurs in 50% of cases
A

b. Anaerobic organisms are the exclusive isolates in 60% of cases.

????Commonly mixed

  • a. Aspiration most commonly results in abscesses in the right lung.
  • c. A central area of liquefactive necrosis develops
    • ????
40
Q
  1. In lobar pneumonia:
  • a. It is more common in the young and elderly
  • b. Get a change from red to grey hepatisation
  • c. Not usually associated with a productive cough
  • d. Rarely caused by streptococcus
  • e. Associated with immunosuppression
A

b. Get a change from red to grey hepatisation

41
Q
  1. In regards to bacterial pneumonia
  • a. A predominantly interstitial pattern of inflammation is seen in some paediatric patients
  • b. Most lobar pneumonias are caused by pneumococci which enter the lung haematogenously.
  • c. Congestion predominates in the first 72 hours.
  • d. Complications are more common with bronchopneumonias
  • e. Organization of exudates into a fibrotic scar tissue is not a complication.
A

a. A predominantly interstitial pattern of inflammation is seen in some paediatric patients

  • b. Most lobar pneumonias are caused by pneumococci which enter the lung Via airways
  • c. Congestion predominates in the first (less than 72 hours)
  • d. Complications are less common with bronchopneumonias
  • e. Organization of exudates into a fibrotic scar tissue is a complication.
42
Q
  1. In the lungs
  • a. Bacterial invasion evokes exudative liquification
  • b. Bronchopneumonia is commonly caused by Chlamydia organisms.
  • c. 90-95% of lobar pneumonias are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
  • d. grey hepatisation is the first stage of the inflammatory response.
  • e. bronchopneumonia shows characteristic radiological appearance of radio-opaque well circumscribed lobe.
A

c. 90-95% of lobar pneumonias are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

This is the answer given, but as per Nick: Doubtful af

  • a. Bacterial invasion evokes exudative liquification
    • ??abscesses
  • b. Bronchopneumonia is not commonly caused by Chlamydia organisms.
  • d. grey hepatisation is the third stage of the inflammatory response.
    • First is congestion
    • Second Red hepatisation
    • Fourth is resolution by repair or scar
  • e. lobar pneumonia shows characteristic radiological appearance of radio-opaque well circumscribed lobe.
43
Q
  1. Regarding bacterial pneumonia
  • a. Lobar pneumonia is most often caused by staphylococci
  • b. Coliform bacteria are unlikely to cause bronchopneumonia
  • c. Particles larger than 10mm are deposited in terminal airways of alveoli
  • d. Lobar distribution is an indication of the virulence of the organism
  • e. During resolution, the transudate is digested by enzymes
A

d. Lobar distribution is an indication of the virulence of the organism