MSK ( 5% ) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Osteoporosis
  • a. Always involves the entire skeleton
  • b. Is associated with decreased IL-1 level
  • c. Can be reliably detected on radiographs with 20% bone loss. Not detected until 40%
  • d. Is associated with anticoagulant use
  • e. May be caused by vitamin A deficiency
A

d. Is associated with anticoagulant use

  • c. Can be reliably detected on radiographs only with >40% bone loss
  • Can involve isolated portions of skeleton
  • Associated with increased IL-1 and IL-6 levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following is true concerning rhabdomyolysis?
  • a. It is caused by injury to smooth muscle
  • b. Its diagnosis depends on the presence of characteristic physical findings
  • c. The final common pathway of injury involves damage to the sarcolemma
  • d. Renal failure is due to acute glomerular nephritis
  • e. Occurs only in trauma
A

c. The final common pathway of injury involves damage to the sarcolemma

  • Injury to skeletal muscle, diagnosis depends on characteristic biochemical findings.*
  • Renal failure occurs due to accumulation of myoglobin in the nephons -> ATN*
  • Occurs in trauma, some drug overdoses, metabolic conditions, exercise, ischaemia (eg compartment syndrome)*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following tumours is benign?
  • a. Chondrosarcoma
  • b. Osteochondroma
  • c. Chondroblastoma
  • d. Ewing’s tumour
  • e. None of the above
A

c. Chondroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. A 50 year old woman presents with back pain. Xrays suggest a malignant deposit in the 10th thoracic vertebra. The least likely primary site is
  • a. Breast
  • b. Ovary
  • c. Thyroid
  • d. Kidney
  • e. Colon
A

b. Ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a disturbance of mineralisation homeostasis?
  • a. Ricketts
  • b. Osteoporosis
  • c. Pagets disease
  • d. HPOA
A

a. Ricketts

  • Occurs due to Vit D deficiency*
  • Pagets is excess unorganised and structurally unsound bone*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Osteomalacia
  • a. Decreased osteoid matrix deposition
  • b. Increased bone production
  • c. Vitamin D deficiency
  • d. Increased Ca absorption from the gut
  • e. Decreased PTH
A

c. Vitamin D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Bone metastases originate least often from carcinoma of
  • a. breast
  • b. prostate
  • c. testis
  • d. thyroid
  • e. kidney
A

c. testis

And ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Fracture healing
  • a. Involves formation of an osseous callus in the second stage.
  • b. Occurs at the same speed for all types of fractures
  • c. Is not affected by alignment
  • d. Is better in comminuted fractures
  • e. Involves organisation of haematoma in the first stage
A

e. Involves organisation of haematoma in the first stage

  1. Haematoma formation (hours)
  2. Procallus formation (days)
    1. Organisation of callus and fibrocartilagenous callus formation (1 week)
  3. Callus ossification (2-3 weeks)
  4. Bone remodelling
  • a. Involves formation of a cartilagenous callus in the second stage.
  • b. Occurs at different speed for all types of fractures
  • c. Is affected by alignment
  • d. Is worse in comminuted fractures - more pieces to move and fuck out I assume, with more interuppted blood supply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Regarding fracture healing
  • a. Bone callus offers no structural rigidity for weightbearing
  • b. Cytokines stimulate production of osteoclasts and osteoblasts
  • c. Complete fracture healing can be expected regardless of age
  • d. Cartilage formation is not a feature
  • e. Bony fracture fragments enhance healing
A

b. Cytokines stimulate production of osteoclasts and osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Stress facture of bone
  • a. Occurs when the bone is subjected to large axial loads
  • b. Is common in Paget’s disease
  • c. Is caused by secondary hypoparathyroidism
  • d. Is rapidly developed in athletes due to repetitive training.
  • e. Develops slowly and is repaired without cartilage in the callus
A

e. Develops slowly and is repaired without cartilage in the callus​

  • Develops gradually in athletes and other people*
  • Pagets = pathological fractures*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Stress fractures
  • a. Do not incite a paracortical reaction
  • e. result from repetitive stresses or abnormal axial loading
A

e. result from repetitive stresses or abnormal axial loading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. In bone healing
  • a. Woven bone forms in the periosteum of the medullary cavity.
  • b. Osteoblasts lay down woven bone over the procallus to repair the fracture line
  • c. PTH acts directly on osteoclasts to increase absorption
  • d. Haematoma at the fracture site plays little role in the development of procallus.
  • e. Inadequate immobilization aids the formation of normal callus.
A

b. Osteoblasts lay down woven bone over the procallus to repair the fracture line

  • a. Woven bone forms in the endosteum of the medullary cavity.
  • c. PTH acts indirectly on osteoclasts to increase absorption
  • d. Haematoma at the fracture site plays an important role in the development of procallus.
  • e. adequate immobilization aids the formation of normal callus.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which occurs first in fracture healing?
  • a. Neutrophil invasion
  • b. Procallus formation
  • c. Woven bone ossification
  • d. Lamellar bone ossification
  • e. Collagen deposition
A
  1. a. Fibroblast and inflammatory cell invasion
  2. b. Procallus formation
  3. e. Collagen deposition
  4. c. Woven bone ossification
  5. d. Lamellar bone ossification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Regarding fracture healing

  • Conversion of the procallus to a fibrocartilaginous callus precedes haematoma organization
  • Osseous callus precedes the fibrocartilaginous callus
  • Almost perfect repair can be accomplished if the original weightbearing strains are restored
  • Speed and perfection of healing does not depend on the type of fracture
  • Comminuted fractures heal quicker than greenstick fractures
A

Almost perfect repair can be accomplished if the original weightbearing strains are restored

  • Conversion of the procallus to a fibrocartilaginous callus follows haematoma organization
  • Osseous callus follows the fibrocartilaginous callus
  • Speed and perfection of healing does depend on the type of fracture
    • Presumably a massively comminuted, open fracture will hesal slower and less well
  • Comminuted fractures heal slower than greenstick fractures - more bone needs to remodel and develop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Subchondral necrosis
  • a. Is rarely idiopathic
  • b. Associated with diving injuries
  • c. Rarely involves ischaemia.
  • d. Caused by embolus
  • e. Precursor to OA.
A

Apparently noted as b. Associated with diving injuries

However

e. Precursor to OA.

R&C states subchondral infarcts may lead to severe OA, and no mention is made of diving injuries

And a case could be made for d) too, so who knows.

  • a. Is ?often idiopathic
  • c. Often/always involves ischaemia.
  • d. Caused by embolus - noted as a cause of osteonecrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Avascular necrosis
  • a. Occurs infrequently in those with sickle cell anaemia.
  • b. Affects only cancellous bone and marrow.
  • c. Is never painful
  • d. May undergo malignant transformation
  • e. Is improved by administration of corticosteroids.
A

b. Affects only cancellous bone and marrow.

Given as answer but R&C clearly states cortex can be involved

  • a. Occurs frequently in those with sickle cell anaemia (about 50% of patients by age 35)
  • c. Is often painful
  • d. May undergo malignant transformation - Not mentioned in R&C or up to date
  • e. Can be caused by administration of corticosteroids.
17
Q

The most common cause of avascular necrosis of bones is

  • Radiation therapy
  • Caisson disease
  • Vasculitis
  • Steroid induced necrosis
  • Venous hypertension
A

Steroid induced necrosis

18
Q
  1. In osteoarthritis
  • a. There is a marked synovial reaction
  • b. Chondrocytes play a role in cartilage destruction
  • c. Osteophytes develop on top of the articular surface.
  • d. Subchondral cysts are caused by collagenases
  • e. Chondrocytes excrete digestive enzymes into the matrix in active forms
A

b. Chondrocytes play a role in cartilage destruction

  • a. There is minimal/no synovial reaction
  • c. Osteophytes develop on the edges of the articular surface (as you can see on x-rays)
  • d. Subchondral cysts are caused by ???
19
Q
  1. With regard to rheumatoid arthritis
  • a. In the joint it is confined to the synovium and does not involve the articular cartilage
  • b. Xrays of joints reveal marginal erosions
  • c. Caseous necrosis is typical of rheumatoid nodules
  • d. There is decreased vascularity in the pannus.
  • e. It is confined to joints and skin.
A

b. Xrays of joints reveal marginal erosions

  • a. In the joint it is involves destruction of hyaline cartilage, as well as synovial reaction
  • c. ??if any necrosis is actually invovled, vs bony destruction
  • d. There is increased vascularity in the pannus.
  • e. It is not confined to joints and skin - there are Extra-articular manifestations like vasculitis
20
Q
  1. Rheumatoid arthritis
  • a. Is thought to be initiated by a microbial agent
  • b. Is associated with IgE in 80% of patients
  • c. Is an inflammatory synovitis triggered by an endogenous agent
  • d. May lead to destructive proliferative synovitis initiated by eosinphils and/or neutrophils
  • e. Is not shown to have genetic susceptibility
A

a. Is thought to be initiated by a microbial agent

This is the answer given, but I’m pretty sure this has been disproved and is no longer a theory.

  • b. Is associated with rheumatoid factor in 80% of patients
  • c. Is an inflammatory synovitis triggered by an arthritogenic/exogenous agent
    • ??if this is even still believed
  • d. May lead to destructive proliferative synovitis initiated by CD4 cells and involving neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages
  • e. Does have genetic susceptibility
21
Q

regarding osteoarthritis

  • incidence increases linearly with advancing age
  • hips are characteristically involved in women
  • characteristic pathological features include subchondral microcysts and subcutaneous nodules
  • synovial inflammation is a predominant feature
  • chondrocytes elaborate mediators such as TNFα and IL – 1
A

chondrocytes elaborate mediators such as TNFα and IL – 1

  • incidence increases non-linearly with advancing age - likely has a large spike in the 50s/60s
  • ?knees are characteristically involved in women
  • characteristic pathological features include subchondral microcysts joint space narrowing, osteocytes
  • synovial inflammation is not a feature