Respiratory guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

Asthma investigation - what do all adults get - what do children get

A

FeNO and spirometry with reversibility children only get FeNO if spirometry inconclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Astham investigation - diagnostic cutoffs reversibility FEV1/FVC ratio FeNO

A

12% reversibility (AND 200ml in adults) ratio of <0.7 FeNO >40ppb (>35 in children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Asthma treatment escalation ADULTS

A

SABA + low dose ICS + LABA + LRTA or moderate dose ICS (stop LABA if not working) specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Asthma treatment escalation CHILDREN

A

SABA + very low dose ICS Step 2 (>5) = LABA or LTRA Step 2 (<5) = LTRA Step 3 = increase to low dose ICS. Add LABA/LRTA and stop LABA if not helpful specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acute asthma attack categories

A

Life threatening = PEFR<33, silent chest, <92%, normal CO2 Acute severe = >110bpm, cant complete sentences, PEFR33-50, RR>25 Moderate = 50-75% PEFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Acute asthma management standard escalated

A

standard - oxygen driven nebs (salbutamol and ipratropium) give ipra 4-6hourly, salbutamol back to back oral pred/ IV hydrocortisone for at least 5d escalated - 1st: IV magnesium - 2nd: IV aminophylline 3rd: IV salbutamol (rarely used), intubation etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

COPD Ix - if you suspect COPD what 3 things do you get

A

CXR (?mass), FBC (2’ polycythaemia), spirometry/reversibility testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Grading of COPD cutoffs

A

All based on FEV1 Mild= >80 WITH symptoms and FEV1/FVC <0.7 mod = 50-80 severe = 30-50 very severe = <30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

COPD treatment escalation

A

1) SABA or SAMA 2) asthmatic features = LABA+ICS; no asthmatic features = LABA/LAMA 3) oral theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis in COPD?

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Asthmatic features for COPD step 2???

A

1) previous history of asthma or atopy 2) eosinophilia 3) diurnal variation of PEFR >20% 4) FEV1 variation >400ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When do you assess someone for LTOT if has COPD

A

FEV1 <30% (i.e. very severe) cyanosis/polycthaemia oedema/raised JVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you assess someone for LTOT?

A

ABGs on two separate occasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Based on the ABGs, when do you offer LTOT for COPD

A

pO2 <7.3 pO2 7.3-8 + oedema, polycythaemia, pul HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

COPD exacerbation Mx

A

Nebulised bronchodilators and prednisolone 7-14d Abx if sign of infection –> amox + clari

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CURB65 score and meaning

A

Confusion <=8/10 AMTS urea >7 RR >=20 BP <=90/60 65+ 0-1 = home with amox 5d (depending on CRP test) 2-3 = hospital with amox+clari 7d 4-5 = ITU with coamox/tazocin 7d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CRP point of care test in GP for penumonia

A

Helps you decide if Abx are needed if they score CURB0 >100 = yes 20-100 = delayed <20 = no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Abx guideline: - CAP - atypical CAP - HAP

A

CAP = amox atypical CAP = clarithromycin HAP depends on when it has occurred after admission (remember HAP is defined as at least 48 hours after admission): - if within first 5d = coamox, cefurox - if after 5th day of admission = taz, cipro, ceftaz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2ww lung cancer referral for CXR

A

40+ and any of: - cough, fatigue, SOB, pain, weight loss, anorexia need 2 of them if never smoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2ww lung cancer referral for clinic straight away

A

40+ and haemoptysis or abnormal CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

best Ix for lung Ca

A

CT (hence why you do it if CXR negative and youre still suspicious)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Difference between SCLC and NSCLC

A

SCLC not usually amenable to surgery, need chemo NSCLC usually amenable to surgery, both have radio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Idiopathic lung fibrosis - gold standard Ix - TLCO and spirometry

A

gold standard- high res CT - ground glass appearance

+ spirometry

+ CXR

restrictive picture on spirometry:

  • FEV1 reduced
  • FVC reduced
  • FEV1/FVC ratio normal

TLCO is low

  • low uptake of O2 from lungs to blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

definitive Tx for idiopathic lung fibrosis

A

lung transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Sarcoidosis useful tests (no diagnostic one)
raised ACE and ESR restrictive spirometry non-caseating granuloma formation bilateral hilar lymphadenpatphy upper zone fibrosis
26
Management of sarcoid
Don't treat asymptomatic lymphadenopathy If Sx --\> prednisolone
27
Interpretation of Mantoux test
injection of tuberculin into skin - screening for TB If \<6mm = no reaction, immunise If 6-15mm = medium reaction, ?previous TB or previous vaccination, don't immunise If \>15mm = big reaction, active TB
28
when do you use interferon gamma quantiferon gold test?
if Mantoux equivocal or positive If Mantoux inaccurate (sarcoid, military TB, lymphoma HIV)
29
Drugs for TB and SEs
Active = 2m RIPE and 4m RI Latent = 3m RIP or 6m IP Meningeal = 12m RIPE + steroids rifampicin = red piss and hepatitis isoniazid = peripheral neuropathy and hepatitis pyranzinamide = gout and hepatits ethambutol = optic neuritis
30
Pneumothorax Mx
Primary \<2cm = clinic in 6/52!! \>2cm OR BREATHLESS = aspirate and observe Secondary 0-1 = admit O2 observe 1-2 = aspirate \>2 = chest drain
31
Wells score PE
0-4 is unlikely to be PE - D-dimer wihin 4 hrs if D-Dimer +ve -\> immediate CTPA if D-Dimer -ve -\> consider other diagnosis . 5+ = CTPA` immediately or interim therapeutic anticoag while awaiting CTPA do V/Q scan instead if contrast allergy or renal failure PE most likely = 3 DVT present = 3 Recent immobilisation = 1.5 Previous DVT/PE = 1.5 Tachycardia \>100 = 1.5 Haemoptysis = 1 Malignancy = 1
32
Well score DVT just the cutoff Mx based on that
0-1 is unlikely --\> D-dimer to exclude 2+ is likely ==\> USS leg within 4 hours. if cant get one within 4 hours, treat with LMWH assuming its there DVT Wells score: cancer: 1 calf swelling \>= 3cm (measured 10cm below tibial tuberosity): 1 collateral superficial veins: 1 pitting oedema (in symptomatic leg): 1 swelling of entire leg: 1 localised tenderness along deep venous system: 1 paralysis, paresis, or recent cast immobilisation of legs: 1 recently bedridden \>= 3 days, or major surgery in last 12 wks: 1 previous DVT : 1 alternative diagnosis at least as likely as DVT: -2
33
Do you start LMWH before the CTPA is back
yes because it usually takes a number of hours to get done
34
Tx of PE
haemodynamically unstable = thrombolysis (alteplase) stable = DOAC (apixaban or rivaroxaban) or warfarin if not suitable then: LMWH (e.g. enoxaparin) for 5d or until INR\>2 for 2days whichever is longer. start warfarin or NOAC witin 24 hours. if warfarin crossover with LMWH, if NOAC just give it 2 hours before dose and don't carryover. continue for at least 3 months in primary PE 3-6 months for active cancer
35
ARDS - how do you exclude thatit is cardiac in origin if unsure
pulmonary artery wedge pressure.
36
obstructive sleep apnoea Best Ix and other Ix
Sleep studies is best test Epworth sleepiness scale and multiple sleep latency test also used
37
Mx of obstructive sleep apnoea
If sleepiness in daytime --\> CPAP at night If no sleepiness or CPAP not tolerate --\> mandibular advancement device
38
pleural effusions and lights criteria
protein \>35 = exudate protein \<25 = transudate 25-35 use lights criteria exudate if: - pleural protein is \>50% the serum protein - pleural LDH \>60% serum LDH - pleural LDH \>2/3rds NORMAL serum LDH
39
if pleural fluid is exudate?
contrast CT and send off sample to lab
40
if pleural fluid is purulent or has pH \<7.2
chest tube
41
NG tube safety
pH \<5.5 is happy days Otherwise need to do a CXR
42
NIV indications in COPD
any respiratory acidosis despite maximal therapy
43
when is an aspirate exudate
\<25 protein = transudate \>35 protein = exudate in between use lights criteria. Exudate if pleural fluid: - protein \>50% serum protein - LDH \>60% serum LDH - LDH \>2/3rds normal serum LDH
44
should CO2 be normal in ABG in asthma
no it should be low - need referral to ITU if normal or high on ABG
45
safety triangle for pleural tap - pleural fluid aspirate, thoracocentesis
not below 5th intercostal space top is base of axilla posterior border of pectorals major anterior border of latissimus dorsi go on superior border of rib to avoid NV bundle
46
layers that you go through to do a pleural tap
1. skin 2. epidermis 3. intercostal muscles 4. endothoracic fascia 5. parietal pleura
47
65yr M progressive SOB unilateral pleural effusion pleural aspirate - what type of pleural effusion?
transudate - low protein - low LDH
48
causes of transudate
HF liver cirrhosis renal - nephrotic syndrome ovarian - Meigs syndrome sarcoidosis thyroid myxoedema
49
causes of exudate pleural effusion
malignancy infection trauma pulmonary embolus/ infarct
50
51
78 3 wk hx dry cough weight loss breathlessness at rest unilateral pleural effusion - type?
exudative most likely due to cancer
52
monitoring of chest drain
bubbling - normal in pneumothorax abnormal in effusion - check for air leaks swinging - should occur with inspiration and expiration - if its not- blockage?
53
58yr M routine abdo paracentesis tender abdo jaundice confusion fever polymorphic neucleocyte count: 0.3 SA-AG = 15
SBP - Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
54
indications for ascitic tap
diagnosis of new onset ascites suspected SBP therapeutic ( usually drainage/ paracentesis)
55
surface anatomy of ascitic tap
15cm lateral to umbilicus - left or right lower quadrant avoid enlarged liver/ spleen and epigastric arteries
56
ascitic tap analysis
PMNs/neurophil \> 250 = diagnostic of SBP
57
presentation of TB
suspected in anyone with cough for \>3 wks especially if accompanied by: - haemoptysis - SOB - loss of appetite - weight loss - fever and sweating, especially night sweats - fatigue and tiredness - swollen glands
58
indication for CXR or referral to specialist for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
\>45yrs persisent breathlessness on exertion persistent cough bilateral inspiratory crackles clubbing of fingers normal spirometry or restrictive pattern
59
investigations if TB suspected
for active: CXR/ CT + deep cough sputum sample (for micro, culture and histology) for latent TB: - Mantoux test - for close contacts with TB patients - if Mantoux positive --\> interferon-gamma release assay (quantaferon gold) - if +ve: assess for active TB - if -ve: treat for latent TB
60
radiological features of TB
primary TB: - less than half of patients show radiological abnormalities - there may be hilar lymph node enlargement post-primary TB: - patchy solid lesions - cavitated solid lesions - streaky fibrosis - flecks of calcification - solitary tuberculoma presenting as a coin lesion - hilar node enlargement Miliary TB: - millet-sized nodules present throughout the lung fields
61
diagnosis
miliary TB
62
cough fatigue recently moved from developing country diagnosis?
primary TB upper zone consolidation + ipsilateral hilar enlargement
63
what is this showing in TB
healed primary TB Ghon focus - TB has gone!
64
cough HIV diagnosis
TB - post primary Tb (secondary or reactivation TB) apical consolidation hilar distortion more common in immunocompromised (HIV)
65
Ix for pneumothorax
CXR for pneumothorax tension pneumothorax should not be seen on CXR - clinical diagnosis (deviated trachea) and chest drain
66
clinical features of ARDS
stages: respiratory distress - but with normal CXR increasing cyanosis - CXR diffuse bilateral shadowing hypoxaemia, respiratory acidosis may be death from hypoxic cardiac arrest
67
Mx of ARDS
mechanical ventilation - using high inspired O2 blood gases checked regularly fluids Finer assessment using Swan Ganz catheter to measure pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (left atrial pressure) mortality 50% usually residual pulmonary disability due to developing pulmonary fibrosis
68
medical management of idiopathic lung fibrosis
**pirfenidone** - antifibrotic and anti-inflammatory **nintedanib** - monoclonal antibody targeting tyrosine kinase
69
causes of pulmonary fibrosis (drug induced and secondary)
drug induced: - amiodarone - cyclophosphamide - methotrexate - nitrofurantoin secondary: - alpha-1 antitripsin deficiency - RA - SLE - systemic sclerosis
70
what does asbestos cause
lung cancer - most common Mesothelioma – rare but if you see it think asbestos
71
what type of hypersensitivity reaction is hypersensitivity pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis)
type 3 hypersensitivity reaction to environmental allergen that causes parenchymal inflammtation can lead to pulmonary fibrosis in later stages
72
Ix for Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
Bronchoalveolar lavage (during bronchoscopy) - raised lymphocytes - raised mast cells
73
Mx for Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
remove allergen from patients environment O2 steroids
74
4 causes of Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
bird- fanciers lung - reaction to bird droppings - avian proteins farmers lung - reaction to mouldy spores in hay - micropolyspora faeni mushroom workers' lung - reaction to specific mushroom antigens malt workers lung - reaction to mould on barley - aspergillus clavatus
75
cause of mesothelioma
asbestos (especially blue asbestos) can even get it from other peoples clothes
76
diagnostic test for mesothelioma
**pleural biopsy**: diagnostic test CXR/CT shows pleural thickening and associated pleural effusion
77
Mx for mesothelioma
mostly symptomatic treatment surgery may be possible for stage 1: extrapleural pneumonectomy chemo - malignany pleural mesothelioma where surgical resection is inappropriate
78
70yr man used to work on construction sites diagnosis?
mesothelioma - cancer of pleura - due to asbestos
79
patient is woken by airway obstruction - choking/ gasping during sleep snoring excessive daytime sleepiness
80
clinical presentation of bronchiectasis
bronchial wall thickening and dilatation chronic cough mucopurulent sputum production recurrent infections
81
diagnostic test for bronchiectasis:
high resolution CT: diagnostic investigation - if CXR is unhelpful features: - bronchial wall dilation (internal diameter of lumen bigger than accompanying bronchial artery - signet ring sign) - lack of bronchial tapering
82
chronic productive cough previous frequent infections cystic fibrosis diagnosis
bronchiectasis on high res CT signet ring sign - bronchi bigger than accompanying artery
83
Mx of bronchiectasis
physio - airway sputum clearance abx - if infection surgical resection if localised
84
aspergillosis Mx
caused by aspergillus mould - hypersensitivity reaction Mx: oral steroids + oral antifungal
85
causes of pleuritic chest pain
pain on inspiration - PE - malignancy - infection: TB, pneumonia - injury: rib fracture - autoimmune: RA and SLE
86
diagnosis
pulmonary fibrosis 'honeycombing'
87
causes of upper zone pulmonary fibrosis
88
causes of lower zone pulmonary fibrosis
asbestosis idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) drug induced (amiodarone, methotrexate)
89
pneumonia high fever rapid onset herpes labialis which bacteria?
strep pneumoniae
90
small cell lung cancer paraneoplastic features
ADH --\> hyponatraemia
91
squamous cell lung cancer paraneoplastic features
parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp) secretion causing hypercalcaemia
92
adenocarcinoma paraneoplastic features
gynaecomastia hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (shown in pic)
93
vital capacity
vital capacity = inspiratory capacity + expriatory reserve volume
94
opiate overdose ABG
respiratory acidosis
95
PE ABG
respiratory alkalosis
96
life threatening asthma O2 sats
\<92%
97
pneumonia with a PMH of COPD which bacteria
H. influenza
98
new diagnosis of COPD Mx
add SABA or SAMA
99
anxiety leading to hyperventilation ABG
respiratory alkalosis
100
tiring asthma attack abg
respiratory acidosis as tiring they start retaining CO2 if CO2 normal or high - WORRY -\> severe asthma attack
101
102
negative result on spirometry for asthma but symptoms of asthma next step
refer for fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) testing negative spirometry does not exclude asthma - further investigated
103
most common cause of SVC obstruction
lung cancer due to extrinsic pressure lung cancer can cause superior vena cava syndrome: - visibly distended veins chest and neck increased breathlessness particulary on exertion
104
SOB and bibasal atelectasis 72hrs postoperatively Mx
Atelectasis: alveolar collapse Mx: positioning patient upright chest physiotherapy: breathing exercises
105
cough fever
left lingula consolidation - leads to loss of left heart border
106
diagnostic investigation for mesothelioma
thoracoscopic biopsy - histology
107
which tyoe of lung cancer is not related to smoking
alveolar cell carcinoma increased sputum production
108
respiratory acidosis, agitated, low O2, high bicarb after pneumonia patient put on O2 15L most likely diagnosis
over administration of O2 in COPD patient background of chronic respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic acidosis retain CO and therefore hypoventilate --\> respiratory arrest if the bicarb was normal it would be acute respiratory acidosis 2ndry to pneumonia
109
facial rash + lymphadenopathy
sarcoidosis features: - erythema nodosum - bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy - skin: lupus pernio = sarcoidosis - hypercalcaemia
110
most likely lung cancer in non-smokers
lung adenocarcinoma: - most common in non-smokers - peripheral lesion (not seen on bronchoscopy)
111
what can false negatives of mantoux test be caused by
miliary TB sarcoidosis HIV lymphoma very young age (e.g. \< 6 months)
112
chest drain swinging
rises in inspiration, falls in expiration
113
test for suspected carbon monoxide poisoning
ABG shows hypoxia
114
mx carbon monoxide poisoning
100% high flow O2 through non-rebeath target O2 sats 100%
115
normal/ raised total gas transfer with raised transfer coefficient
asthma pulmonary haemorrhage (Wegener's, Goodpasture's)
116
what test should be offered to all patients with TB
HIV test
117
trachea pulled toward white-out on cxr
pneumonectomy complete lung collapse pulmonary hypoplasia
118
trachea central with white out
consolidation pulmonary oedema (usually bilateral) mesothelioma
119
trachea pushed away from white out
pleural effusion diaphragmatic hernia large thoracic mass
120
O2 for critically ill COPD patient
given 15L/min O2 through non-rebreath then titrated down (hypoxia kills) aim to raise sats to 94% and over titrate down: prior to availability of blood gases, use a 28% Venturi mask at 4 l/min and aim for an oxygen saturation of 88-92% for patients with risk factors for hypercapnia but no prior history of respiratory acidosis adjust target range to 94-98% if the pCO2 is normal
121
paraneoplastic features of small cell lung cancer
ADH - hyponatraemia ACTH - cushings syndrome lambert-eaton syndrome (weakness of proximal arms and legs - normally worse in legs, slightly better with muscle use)
122
paraneoplastic features of squamous cell lung cancer
PTH - secretion causing hypercalcaemia clubbing hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH
123
paraneoplastic features of adenocarcinoma lung cancer
gynaecomastia hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
124
acute asthma levels by PEFR
75-50% of best: moderate 50-33% of best: severe \<33%: life threatening
125
COPD symptoms in young person
alpha -1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency
126
127
features of heart failure on cxr
ABCDE A - alveolar oedema (bat's wings) B - Kerley B lines C- Cardiomegaly D- dilated prominent upper lobe vessels E- effusion (pleural)
128
intervention most likely to increase survival in patients with COPD
smoking cessation in hypoxic patients - long term O2 therapy
129
what type of O2 do you give to COPD patient with respiratory acidosis
COPD with respiratory acidosis 7.25-7.35: NIV
130
main treatment for small cell lung cancer
chemotherapy adjuvant radiotherapy is also given in patients with limited disease surgery can be used for T1, N0,M0
131
respiratory complication of methotrexate
methotrexate pneumonitis - bilateral interstitial shadowing on CXR
132
diagnosis
cannon ball mets - from renal cell carcinoma less common primaries: choriocarcinoma endometrial carcinoma
133
benign ovarian tumour + ascites + pleural effusion
Meig's syndrome
134
Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency features
alpha1 -antitrypsin made in liver lungs: panacinar emphysema - lower lobes can also cause liver disease: cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma spirometry: obstructive picture can be diagnosed prenataly commonly 20-50yrs chromosome 14
135
latent TB cxr
calcified Ghon focus may be seen (lateral calcified nodule) + bilateral lymphadenopathy = Ghon complex
136
latent TB mx
either: - 3 months isoniazid (with pyridoxine) + rifampicin or - 6 months isoniazid (with pyridoxine)
137
when should asthma attacks be admitted to hospital
life threatening asthma should be admitted severe asthma attack should be admitted if fail to respond to treatment any level asthma attack should be admitted when theyve had a previous near-fatal attack
138
side effect of bupropion - for smoking cessation
small risk of seizures - contraindicated in epilepsy also CI in pregnancy and breast feeing
139
bronchiectasis + dextrocardia
Kartagener's syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia)
140
features of kartagener's syndrome
primary ciliary dyskinesia - immotile cilia features: - dextrocardia - bronchiectasis - infertility (low sperm motility and defective ciliary action in fallopian tubes) - recurrent sinusitis
141
what is 1 pack yr
20 cigarettes per day for 1 yr
142
varenicline - smoking cessation
nicotinic receptor partial agonist risk of suicidal behaviour contraindicated with pregnancy and breast feeding
143
most common causes of anterior mediastinum mass
4 T's: - teratoma - terrible lymphadenopathy - thymic mass - thyroid mass
144
what should you look for in the chest with myasthenia gravis
thymoma do CT scan
145
pharmaological treatment of choice for smoking cessation in pregnancy
nicotine replacement patch first line: CBT, motivational interviewing
146
mx for obstructive sleep apnoea
weight loss CPAP = first line for mod/severe OSA
147
ABG picture for opiod toxicity
metabolic acidosis type 2 respiratory failure (O2 low, CO2 high)
148
klebsiella pneumonia
commonly due to aspiration - e.g. recent stoke causing dysphagia also common in history of alcoholics and diabetes red-current jelly sputum
149
coal workers pneumoconiosis
coal worker + restrictive picture on spirometry + apical lung fibrosis
150
indications for steroid treatment in sarcoidosis
- cxr stage 2 or 3 + symptoms (parenchymal lung disease) - hypercalcaemia - eye (uveitis) , heart or neuro involvement
151
what should be done to this NG tube
nothing, it is in the correct position
152
what stage is confusion in an asthma attack
life-threatening (even if dont have other features)
153
mx pneumonia (CAP)
first line for low severity (CURB65 0-1): amoxicillin 5days moderate and high severity (2 or more): dual abx therapy: amoxicillin + macrolide (e.g erithyromycin, clarithromycin) 7-10 days
154
what should be offered to COPD to start early on as soon as patients start feeling SOB with regular activity
pulmonary rehabilitation - to all people who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD
155
rusty coloured sputum
strep pneumoniae
156
respiratory disease and their bacteria/ virus cause
157
legionella pneumophila pneumonia features
flu-like symptoms dry cough relative bradycardia confusion hyponatraemia pleural effusion diagnosis: urinary antigen mx: eryth/clarith
158
legionella pneumonia vs mycoplasma pneumonia