respiratory drugs Flashcards

1
Q

what medications are used for upper respiratory disorders?

A

antihistamines
medications to control bronchial secretions:
antitussives
expectorants
mucolytics
decongestants

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2
Q

what are the medication classes to control bronchial secretions?

A

antitussives
expectorants
mucolytics
decongestants

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3
Q

What is the method of action of antihistamines?

A

compete with histamine at receptor sites

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4
Q

What are the effects of antihistamines?

A

Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation
Prevent or alleviate pruritis (itching)
Reduce secretions (runny nose, scratchy throat, watery eyes…)

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5
Q

antihistamines work best when?

A

early in response cycle

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6
Q

What are the first generation antihistamines?

A

Diphenhydramine
Promethazine
Dimenhydrinate

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7
Q

what are the second generation antihistamines?

A

Loratadine
Cetirizine

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8
Q

are great at treating nasal allergies- hay fever and helping with the symptoms of a common cold

A

first and second generation antihistamines

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9
Q

Which drug class causes CNS depression?

A

1st generation antihistamines

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10
Q

which drugs have anticholinergic effects?

A

promethazine
dimenhydrinate

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11
Q

are antihistamines useful in extreme anaphylaxis?

A

no

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12
Q

are antihistamines useful as monotherapy in asthma attacks?

A

no

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13
Q

Blocking acetylcholine can cause?
which drugs do this?

A

temporary drowsiness, confusion, and memory loss
first generation antihistamines

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14
Q

this drug is used to prevent N/V and motion sickness

A

promethazine -bc of its anticholinergic effects

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15
Q

______ may be used for an allergic reaction causing itching, hives, but in a true anaphylactic emergency reaction, epinephrine (epi pen) needs to be used.

A

diphenhydramine

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16
Q

Airway: SOB, wheezing, chest pain or tightness, tightening of throat, difficulty swallowing

Skin: hives, swelling, itchiness, widespread redness, warmth

brain: anxiety, confusion, headache, feeling that something is about to happen

heart: faint, pale or blue color, dizziness, weak pulse, shock, loss of consciousness,

Stomach: N/V, diarrhea, stomach pain or cramps

A

S/S of anaphylaxis

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17
Q

What are the anticholinergic antihistamine drugs?
What are negative side effects of the drugs?

A

dimenhydrinate
promethazine

Cants: see, spit, piss, shit

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18
Q

Nasal allergies
hay fever
hives
mild blood transfusion reactions

A

What are the primary uses for antihistamines? (4)

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19
Q

What are the secondary uses for antihistamines? (5)

A

motion sickness
vertigo
Parkinson’s
anaphylactic reactions (with other drugs)
sleep aid

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20
Q

which drug is used to treat motion sickness and vertigo?

A

dimenhydrinate

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21
Q

_______ and _______ are often used before a blood transfusion to prevent possible reactions.

A

Benadryl and acetaminophen

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22
Q

_____ and _____ are first gen antihistamines that are not going to be used for nasal allergies.

A

promethazine and dimenhydrinate

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23
Q

When are maximal plasma concentrations reached for antihistamines?
epinephrine?

A

1-3 hours for antihistamines
<10 minutes for epi

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24
Q

Has both CNS depressant and Anticholinergic properties

A

diphenhydramine

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25
does diphenhydramine cross the placenta and go into breast milk?
yes
26
Appears on BEERS list- geriatric more susceptible to drug reactions- dose should be decreased or other antihistamine recommended
diphenhydramine
27
what is diphenhydramine used for?
anaphylaxis allergic rhinitis parkinson's symptoms insomnia pruritis
28
Decreases skin response to allergy testing. Stop 4 days before testing. Can be given PO, IV, or topically. Avoid use of alcohol with ______
diphenhydramine
29
Avoid when breast feeding. CNS depressant- avoid driving or things that require alertness antiCholinergic- sugarless gum, frequent liquids, good oral hygiene
education for diphenhydramine
30
what can diphenhydramine cause in young children?
paradoxical excitation
31
how long should you avoid diphenhydramine before an allergy test?
four days
32
how is promethazine administered?
PO IM IV (caution) suppository ointment
33
Used for nausea, vomiting, often used as an adjuvant with pain med postop. In some cough syrups
promethazine
34
is promethazine a BEERS drug?
yes
35
because promethazine is a high alert drug, what can happen if it is given incorectly or in the wrong dose? what age should it not be administered to?
respiratory depression dont use under 2 years old
36
what happens if promethazine is not diluted or given too rapidly?
tissue damage and fall of BP must be given slowly
37
is promethazine given subcutaneously?
no, can cause tissue necrosis
38
IV- Assess for pain and burning at IV site. Avoid IV administration if possible. Risk of CNS depression/respiratory depression with other CNS depressants.
promethazine cautions and assessments
39
IV –if not properly diluted or given too fast it can actually be dangerous –resp depression, pain and burning at IV site. has to be diluted well and given slowly not usually given when pregnant
promethazine
40
can alcohol be taken with promethazine?
no
41
Life threatening reaction to some medications Altered Mental Status Muscle rigidity Fever (102-104) Irregular, rapid pulse May have high or low blood pressure
adverse effects of promethazine (6) (Promethazine & some antipsychotics)
42
Anticholinergic Antihistamine (antiemetic) PO/IM
dimenhydrinate
43
Used for nausea, vomiting, dizziness accompanying motion sickness Decreased vestibular (inner ear) stimulation, which may prevent motion sickness BEERS Drug Causes CNS depression: drowsiness, dizziness Can cause paradoxical excitation in children Increased CNS depression with other CNS depressants Pregnancy Risk B dry mouth (anticholinergic)
dimenhydrinate
44
CNS depression- teach to avoid driving or other activities requiring alertness. Avoid use of other CNS depressants- alcohol, sedative/hypnotics, other antihistamines, opoids. pregnancy risk B used for motion sickness, anticholinergic antihistamine
dimenhydrinate
45
do second generation antihistamines cause as much sedationas the first generation?
no, they do not
46
because second generation antihistamines do not cross the blood brain barrier, they do not cause which adverse effect as much?
respiratory depression
47
are the second generation antihistamines or the first generation histamines longer acting?
second generation are longer acting
48
these are often given more often daily because they can be taken during the day and don’t cause the drowsiness.
second generation antihistamines
49
which antihistamines typically have to be given every four hours?
promethazine diphenhydramine
50
taken once a day and decrease symptom of allergies
second generation antihistamines
51
Decreased symptoms of allergic symptoms (nasal stuffiness, red swollen eyes, itching) Daily dosing Cautious use in children under 2. Geri- Increased risk of adverse reactions Dry mouth.. Avoid CNS depressants
loratadine
52
can cause photosensitivity, pregnancy risk B, and available in rapidly disintegrating tablet
loratadine
53
what is the only contraindication to the OTC drug loratadine?
allergy to the drug
54
PO/IV- most PO Given for allergic/seasonal rhinitis and urticaria (hives) Children: Contraindicated in children under 6 with renal/hepatic impairment Geri: Lower dose Caution in renal/hepatic impairment Mouth dryness.. Pregnancy B; risk vs benefit (also breastfeeding) Avoid CNS depressants with medication Side effect of dizziness/drowsiness although not as significant as 1st generation
cetirizine
55
what do you need to assess for with first generation antihistamines?
drowsiness/dizziness symptom resolution toxicity
56
what do you need to increase you fluid intake to when taking a 1st generation antihistamine?
2-3 liters per day
57
t/f: you should administer an antihistamine prior to contact with allergens if possible?
true
58
t/f: antihistamines may cause a false negative on an allergy test?
true
59
what are the four drug classes used to control bronachial secretions?
anti-tussives expectorants mucolytics decongestants
60
these medication shrink swollen nasal mucosa
nasal decongestants
61
what are decongestants used to treat?
rhinitis common cold sinusitis hay fever allergies
62
these medications are used for visualization of membranes prior to procedures
nasal decongestants
63
what are the three primary nasal decongestants?
phenylephrine ephedrine pseudoephedrine
64
Decrease the swollen nasal mucosa and decrease stuffiness
nasal decongestant
65
this drug is used to make meth and is controlled by pharmacists
pseudoephedrine
66
how do adrenergics or (sympathomimetic) nasal decongestants work?
constrict small blood vessels in the nasal passage and sinuses
67
constrict small blood vessels in the nasal passage and sinuses
adrenergics
68
how do anticholinergic nasal decongestants work?
decrease secretions
69
these nasal decongestants decrease secretions
anticholinergics
70
how do corticosteroid nasal decongestants work?
reduce inflammatory response in nasal passage
71
reduce inflammatory response in nasal passage
corticosteroid nasal decongestants
72
oxymetazoline is an example
adrenergic decongestants
73
______ nasal decongestants are addictive and can cause ______ ______ if used over 3-5 days
adrenergic, rebound congestion
74
fluticasone propionate is a ?
corticosteroid nasal decongestant
75
takes longer to receive full benefit and can be used for longer periods of time without rebound congestion.
corticosteroid decongestant
76
is the only intranasal anticholinergic
ipatropium bromide
77
Most decongestants are OTC while many ______ are by prescription
corticosteroids
78
Causes dilated arterioles in the nose to constrict Reduces congestion
adrenergic decongestants (oxymetazoline)
79
Use these drugs no more than 3 days at a time to prevent?
adrenergic (oxymetazoline) rebound congestion
80
is an alpha adrenergic agonist
oxymetazoline
81
causes vasoconstriction of dilated arterioles and reduces blood flow.
oxymetazoline
82
Sympathomimetic drug (Increase heart rate/blood pressure)
oxymetazoline
83
During a cold, the blood vessels that surround the nasal sinus are dilated and engorged with plasma, white blood cells, mast cells, histamines, and many other blood components that are involved in fighting infections of the respiratory tract. This swelling, or dilation, blocks the nasal passages, which results in nasal congestion. When these drugs are administered intranasally, they cause dilated arterioles to constrict, which reduces nasal blood flow and congestion. ______ should be used for no more than 3 days at a time.
Oxymetazoline
84
can cause you to be nervous –high heart rate, high bp, (IMPORTANT)
oxymetazoline
85
this decongestant decreases secretions and must be primed y spraying before first use? what class is it in as well?
ipratropium, anticholinergic decongestant
86
good for treating runny nose in patients with both allergic and nonallergic rhinitis
ipratropium (anticholinergic decongestant)
87
These work by blocking acetylcholine which decreases secretions from the glands in the nasal passage. Common reactions include dry mouth and bad taste. It doesn’t have to be stopped after 3 days although there are differing opinions on length of time)
anticholinergics, ipratropium
88
what are the side effects of ipratropium ?
sore throat nasal dryness/irritation
89
does not have to be stopped after three days, does not cause rebound congestion
anticholinergic decongestants Corticosteroids
90
fluticasone propionate is a ?
corticosteroid nasal spray
91
treat allergic rhinitis caused by airborne allergens Children: Less than 4 years safety not established OB: Safety not established Lactation: Risks vs benefits
corticosteroid nasal sprays (fluticasone propionate)
92
side effect of these drugs are decreased growth in long term use by children
corticosteroid nasal spray
93
what are some of the side effects of cortiocosteroid nasal sprays?
nasal burning and irritation
94
) takes longer to receive full benefit and can be used for longer periods of time without rebound congestion
Corticosteriod- (fluticasone propionate)
95
It works in your nose to block the effects of substances that cause allergies (such as pollen, pet dander, dust mites, mold) and to reduce swelling
Corticosteriod- (fluticasone propionate)
96
Don’t use adrenergic nasal sprays longer than ___ days
3
97
Avoid with Hypertension; uncontrolled cardiovascular disease; dysrhythmias Narrow angle glaucoma Stroke
adrenergic
98
Increase fluids if not contraindicated Report fever over 100.4 F or any other symptoms (indicate infection) lasting longer than 3-4 days Caution with caffeine (adrenergic) Smoking = vasoconstriction Adrenergic: longer than 3 days, take oral preparation If rebound congestion, taper use Drops preferred for children (rather than nasal spray)
nursing notes for nasal decongestants
99
usually use a saline drop rather than a nasal decongestant in?
children
100
need to avoid caffeine with ___ meds (fast heart beat, restlessness or fidgeting)
adrenergic
101
what are the two types of anti tussives?
opioids, non-opioids
102
Suppress cough reflex Analgesic and drying effect
opioids
103
non-opoid medication that suppresses cough reflex?
dextromethorphan
104
non-opioid medication that numbs receptor cells that cause cough?
benzonatate
105
can you drive while taking an opioid cough medicine?
no
106
what opioid antitussive is used?
codeine
107
what are the nonopiod antitussives?
dextromethorphan benzonatate [diphenhydramine]
108
when is the ONLY time you want to use an antitussive to suppress a cough?
when it is NON productive that interferes with sleep health or healing
109
t/f: May give cough medicine after surgery if the patient has a major cough to prevent them from coughing and busting open those sutures.
true
110
what are antitussives contraindicated in?
individuals at high risk for respiratory depression/sedation trail elderly those on other CNS depressants opoid antitussives, concern with opioid dependency
111
Mild nausea, dizziness, and sedation Euphoria in high doses
nonopioid antitussive adverse effects
112
CNS effects (Sedation, dizzy, lightheaded, respiratory depression) GI effects (N/V, constipation) Abuse potential
opioid adverse effects
113
Avoid drinking liquids within half hour of taking _____ of this form of antitussive
lozenge
114
t/f: avoid smoking with antitissives?
true
115
take oral codeine with?
food
116
how much water should you drink in a day with antitussives?
2-3 liters (helps with dry mouth and nose)
117
how do expectorants work?
Stimulate glands in respiratory tract Breakdown and thin secretions in respiratory tract
118
are used for secretions in the bronchi and NOT in the nose
expectorants
119
what is the prototype expectorant?
guaifenesin
120
what are the adverse effects of expectorants?
GI upset drowsy/dizzy rash
121
used for thick secretions that need to be thinned
expectorant
122
what are drugs that interact with guaifenesin ?
none are known
123
Minimal adverse effects (Yay!) Fluid intake of 2-3 liters a day if not contraindicated Check OTC expectorants for ingredients and combinations Report fever or cough that lasts more than a week Short half life; repeat dosing
nursing notes for expectorants
124
Sometimes acetaminophen may be mixed in with ______ and we want to make sure they aren’t taking a mixed medication and separate acetaminophen. If they are coughing longer than a week then we need to check for a different dx.
expectorants
125
used for babies and little kids to help them absorb inhalant
spacer
126
s/s: inflammation bronchoconstriction mucosal edema viscous mucus
asthma
127
constriction of airway, mucus becomes thick, drying of the mucosa
symptoms of asthma
128
is destruction of the respiratory wall characterized by one or both: chronic bronchitis and emphysema
COPD -chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
129
what are the two indications that someone has COPD?
chronic bronchitis emphesema
130
what are three indications for acetylcstine?
Acute and/or chronic pulmonary disorders with large amounts of secretions (cystic fibrosis/COPD) Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is antidote for acetaminophen (Tylenol) poisoning Prevent renal dysfunction due to administration of radiocontrast
131
acetylcystine is a ?
mucolytic
132
what are the mucolytics?
acetylcystine hypertonic saline (3-7%)
133
How does it work? Thin and liquefy mucus Uses enzymes to break down mucus (some) Muscle relaxant properties for easier expectoration (some) Enhance flow of secretions in respiratory tract
how mucolytics work
134
crackles in the lungs- thins and liquifies the mucous so they are able to cough up the mucous.
mucolytics
135
this mucolytic smells like rotten eggs
acetylcysteine
136
Hx of hypothyroidism, CNS depression, renal or liver disease, seizure disorders, asthma
caution with mucolytics
137
Bronchospasm and possible aspiration of the liquid, sore throat, cough, dizziness, drowsiness, hypotension, tachycardia, hepatoxicity
adverse effects associated with acetylcysteine
138
Increased coughing, sore throat, chest tightness are adverse effects associated with?
hypertonic saline
139
If they already have severe asthma- acetylcysteine could cause a _______
bronchospasm (airway goes into spasm)
140
Fluid intake 2-3L per day unless contraindicated Mix with fruit juices, sodas, water Usual dosage: q 4 hours for 3 days Monitor Labs Liver function tests, PT, BUN, creatinine, glucose, electrolytes and acetaminophen levels
administration and education for mucolytics
141
prothrombin (PT) is an enzyme produced by?
the liver
142
what are the kidney function labs?
BUN, creatinine
143
What are the three different classes of bronchodilators?
beta adrenergic agonists anticholinergics xanthines
144
what are the beta2 adrenergic agonists?
albuterol levabuterol formoterol salmeterol terbutaline
145
these drugs work by relaxing smooth muscle in the airway
beta2 adrenergic agonists
146
these drugs imitate norepinephrine and quickly open airway
beta 2 adrenergic agonists
147
t/f: beta 2 adrenergic agonists can be short or long acting?
true
148
beta-adrenergic agonists work by ______ beta 2 adrenergic receptors in lungs
stimulating
149
which drug type and specific drug should a patient take when they immediately need help breathing?
short acting beta 2 agonist bronchodilators , albulterol
150
Contraindicated Client with tachydysrhythmia/severe artery disease High risk for stroke Using MAOIs Other sympathomimetics (epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine or cocaine and methamphetamines)
contraindications with beta 2 agonist bronchodilators
151
______ is the most commonly used short acting beta specific beta agonist
Albuterol
152
alternative for patient with tachycardia Less Beta 1 (cardiac) effects More expensive
levabuterol
153
Frequent, large doses Increase in cardiac side effects Palpitations, increased HR Anxiety, tremors, nausea
albuterol
154
Assess for chest, jaw, or arm pain or palpitations and notify the provider if they occur (cardiovascular problem?) Check pulse, report an increase of greater than 20-30 beats/min Teach patient how to use inhalers, spacers, etc. and which medication is “rescue” and which one is “prevention”
nursing notes for albuterol
155
Albuterol inhaler works in _______ minute(s). Inhale as they push the button. Hold breath and then slowly let it out slowly.
1 minute
156
acetycholine causes broncho______
chronchoconstriction
157
_________ block acetylcholine receptors = indirect bronchodilation
Anticholinergics
158
t/f: inhaled anticholinergics reduce secretions in respiratory tract
true
159
Prevents bronchospasm Not for acute symptom management
inhaled anticholinergics
160
Airway relaxation and dilation. Can indirectly reduce secretions.. Dry them up.
inhaled anticholinergics
161
what are the two inhaled anticholinergics?
ipratropium tiotropium
162
Used for the prevention of bronchospasm and not for management of acute symptoms
anticholinergic bronchodilators
163
Peanuts, soy allergy (this would only be because of an inactive ingredient- shouldn’t be in new formulations)
contraindications for anticholinergic bronchodilators
164
Narrow-angle glaucoma and benign prostatic hypertrophy Taking other _______
anticholinergic bronchodilators
165
Rinse mouth after administration due to unpleasant taste and to prevent oral yeast infection Manage ______ effects Wait____minutes between puffs for same inhaler Wait _____ minutes between different types of inhaler Not a rescue inhaler
anticholinergic 1-2 2-5
166
Increases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels Smooth muscle relaxation (bronchial dilation) Decreases allergic reaction Enhances respiratory drive
how xanthines work
167
Higher levels of ______ _____ _____ contribute to smooth muscle relaxation
cyclic adenosine monophosphate
168
relax smooth muscle and dilates bronchi, decreases allergic reaction, and enhances respiratory drive (opens up the airways)
xanthines
169
What are the two xanthine examples?
methylxanthines theophylline
170
Increases the ease of breathing. These decrease seizure threshold so they can cause seizures should not be used in someone who already has seizures
xanthines
171
May be used for asthma (often allergy related) or COPD. Slow onset medication.
xanthines
172
what are the indications for xanthines?
mild to moderate asthma COPD adjunct
173
are xanthines a rescue drug?
no, they are not
174
Contraindications History of uncontrolled cardiac dysrhythmias History of peptic ulcer disease or seizure disorders History of hyperthyroidism
contraindications with xanthines
175
what is the therapeutic blood level of theophylline?
5-15 mcg/mL
176
adverse effects associated with theophylline occur with drug levels of ?
20-25 mc/mL
177
adverse cardiac effects are more frequent with levels above ______ with theophylline
30mcg/mL
178
______ can be seen with theophylline levels above 40 mcg/mL
seizures
179
what do you do with an overdose of theophylline?
stop med administer activated charcoal monitor vitals seizure precautions
180
______ are now deemphasized because of their potential for drug interactions and the interpatient variability in therapeutic drug levels in the blood.
Xanthines
181
CNS - confusion, tremors, dizziness, hallucinations, restlessness, agitation, headache, insomnia GI - N/V, anorexia, stomach cramps, diarrhea, increased urination CV - palpitations, tachycardia, arrhythmias, chest pain, flushing
toxicity/overdose to theophylline
182
GI N/V, anorexia, gastroesophageal reflux during sleep Cardiovascular Tachycardia, palpitations, dysrhythmias Others Temporary hyperglycemia and increase in urination
side effects of theophylline
183
Dosages usually started low and titrated up to relieve symptoms Aminophylline IV occasionally used for Status Asthmaticus If used with oral contraceptives or some antibiotics can increase blood levels
xanthines
184
Aminophylline IV occasionally used for ______ _____
Status Asthmaticus
185
Drink 2-3 liters to decrease viscosity of secretions Minimize intake of xanthine containing foods (colas, coffee, chocolate). Notify prescriber of any signs/symptoms of toxicity
patient education for xanthines
186
what are the non broncho dilating respiratory medication classes?
leukotriene receptor antagonists mast cell stabilizers corticosteroids/glucocorticosteroids
187
are leukotriene modifiers bronchodilators?
no
188
what are the three leukotriene modifiers?
montelukast zafirlukast zileuton
189
Allergen -> _________ are released - >inflammation + bronchoconstriction + mucus production = ->Coughing, sneezing, wheezing, and shortness of breath! Inhibits an enzyme or blocks receptor sites Also prevents migration of neutrophils and lymphocytes (keep from going to lungs)
how leukotriene modifiers work
190
Prevent asthma attacks, NOT for current acute attacks Chronic treatment of asthma in adults and teens Drug effects primarily limited to lungs: Prevent smooth muscle contraction of bronchial airways Decrease mucus secretions Reduce vascular permeability = decreases edema improvement is usually seen in ~a week
leukotriene modifier indication
191
Allergy to povidone, lactose, titanium dioxide, cellulose derivatives (inactive ingredients in drug)
contraindications for leukotriene modifiers
192
Liver injury with use of zileuton (zyflo) and zafirlukast (accolate) Normal AST is 0-45 IU/liter, Normal ALT is 0-40 IU/liter Hold the medication if AST/ALT levels 3x higher Check PT/INR
contraindications for leukotriene modifiers
193
IT IS MAINLY _______ THAT CAUSES LIVER INJURY WHEN GIVEN WITH a leukotriene WATCH LIVER ENZYMES
ZILEUTON
194
PT/INR
measures how long it take your blood to clot
195
Liver Dysfunction is associated with which leukoriene modifier?
zafirlukast
196
this leukotriene modfier causes dizzines, insomnia, liver dysfunction
zileuton
197
this leukotriene modfier causes heartburn
montelukast
198
what are adverse side effects of all leukotriene modifiers?
headache, nausea, eiarrhea, sucicdal ideation, depression
199
Zileuton 1 hr before or after a meal Avoid taking Zafirlukast with food Take Montelukast once daily at bedtime For exercise‑induced bronchospasm, take 2 hr before exercise Monitor liver function tests, PT, and INR DARK URINE, ITCHING, JAUNDICE, ABDOMINAL PAIN & SWELLING, CLOTTING ISSUES, Monitor for signs of liver damage How would you know?
leukotriene modifier nursingg notes
200
what are s/s of liver damage?
Yellow skin and eyes Itching Dark urine Abdominal pain and swelling Elevated liver enzymes (AST and ALT) Prolonged PT and increased INR (time required to form a clot)
201
Yellow skin and eyes Itching Dark urine Abdominal pain and swelling Elevated liver enzymes (AST and ALT) Prolonged PT and increased INR (time required to form a clot)
signs of liver damage
202
do inhaled corticosteroids bronchodilate?
no, they do not
203
Anti-inflammatory effects Stabilizes cell membranes that release bronchoconstricting substances Less inflammatory mediators released from Leukocytes Restores responsiveness of bronchial smooth muscle to beta adrenergic receptor stimulation Better stimulation of Beta 2 receptors by Beta agonist drugs
how inhaled corticosteroids work
204
what are the inhaled glucocorticoid steroids?
fluticaseone and salmeterol methyl prednisone IV
205
what are oral glucocorticoid steroids?
prednisone prednisolone
206
what are IV glucocorticoid drugs?
hydrocortisone methylprednisolone
207
how is methylprednisolone usually administered?
it is usually given IV
208
what are the indications for inhaled corticosteroids?
status asthmaticus long term prophylaxis of asthma bronchitis COPD Cystic fibrosis severe asthma
209
It may take several ______ of inhaled corticosteroid for real effects to be seen.
weeks
210
contraindicated in client with infections or suppressed immune systems: Systemic fungal infections, AIDS, tuberculosis (TB) Positive sputum test for Candida organisms Those who have received a live virus vaccine
contraindications for corticosteroids
211
Common Inhaled Effects: Pharyngeal irritation/sore throat Coughing Dry mouth Oral fungal infections such as thrush (candidiasis)
common INHALED corticosteroid effects
212
Suppression of adrenal gland function Bone loss FOR CHILDREN Hyperglycemia and glycosuria Infection
adverse effects associated with corticosteroids
213
Oral doses may need to be increased during times of stress (long term treatment) Oral ________ are used short‑term, 3 to 10 days Rinse mouth after using inhaled ________ Take bronchodilator inhaler 2-5 minutes before ________ inhaler Use as a maintenance drug, not a rescue drug
corticosteroid
214
stabilize ______ cell membranes to prevent release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine
mast
215
are mast cell stabilizers rescue ihalers or for long term control?
for long term control
216
3-5 minutes after rescue inhaler OB/breastfeeding: Safety not established Pedi- Children under 2: safety not established More often used for mild persistent asthma medication is not used a lot anymore do not work as well as inhaled corticosteroids
mast cell stabilizers
217
Desired effect is Improved airflow in the air passages Increased oxygen supply Perform a thorough assessment of respiratory status- Skin color, temperature Respiratory rate, depth, rhythm Breath sounds Blood pressure, pulse Signs and symptoms of respiratory distress Pulse ox
assessment with any respiratory drugs
218
______ REACTS WITH MANY MEDS AND CAN CAUSE VASO CONSTRICTION AND EXASERBATES RESPIRATORY ISSUES
NICOTINE
219
May take longer to deliver than MDI May be more effective in some patients
nebulizer
220
Less portable Can be easier to get doses for small children (under 8) who are unable to use inhaler correctly. More expensive (DME) They require more cleaning.
nebulizer
221
Used to monitor a patient’s ability to breathe out air
peak flow meter
222
red zone for peak flow meter
50% or less
223
yellow zone for peak flow meter
50-80%
224
green zone for peak flow meter
>80%