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Pharmacology Final > GI drugs > Flashcards

GI drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the antidiarrheals?

A

Bismuth-subsalicylate
Diphenoxylate HCL
Loperamide hydroxychloride

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2
Q

What are the different categories of laxatives?

A

Bulk-forming laxatives
Hyperosmotic cathartics
stool softeners
lubricants
saline laxatives

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3
Q

What are the bulk forming laxatives?

A

Psyllium
Bisacodyl

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4
Q

What are the hyperosmotic cathartics?

A

polyethylene glycol

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5
Q

What are the stool softeners?

A

docusate sodium
docusate sodium and senna

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6
Q

what are the lubricants?

A

mineral oil

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7
Q

what are the saline laxatives?

A

Magnesium hydroxide
Magnesium citrate (Best for Bowel Prep!)
Sodium phosphate

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8
Q

What are the different antiemetics groups?

A

antihistamines
serotonin receptor antagonist
anticholinergic
phenothiazine

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9
Q

What are the antihistamine antiemetics?

A

hydroxyzine hydrochloride
mecllizine hydrochloride
dimenhydrinate

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10
Q

What are the serotonin receptor antagonist antiemetics?

A

ondansetron hydrochloride
metoclopramide

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11
Q

What are the anticholinergic antiemetics?

A

scoplamine

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12
Q

What are the phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

prochlorperazine
promethazine hydrochloride

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13
Q
  1. Slow and/or inhibit GI motility by acting on nerve endings of the intestinal wall, thereby reducing the volume of stools, increasing viscosity and decreasing fluid and electrolyte loss.
  2. Used for symptomatic relief of acute nonspecific ______ and _______of inflammatory disease.
A

action and use for antidiarrheals
diarrhea,

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14
Q
  1. Shake suspensions well; chew tablets thoroughly
  2. Stool may appear gray-black (may mask GI bleeding)
  3. Do not give concurrently with other medications
  4. Seek medical care if diarrhea persists for more than two days in an adult
  5. Do not use to treat _____ in children; seek medical attention
  6. Do not give to clients with C. difficile
A

administration considerations for antidiarrheals

diarrhea

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15
Q
  1. Presence of bloody diarrhea, diarrhea associate with pathogens such as E. coli, salmonella or psuedomembranous colitis, or other bacterial toxins
  2. Avoid use if obstructive bowel disease is suspected
  3. Avoid bismuth subsalicylate if allergic to aspirin
A

contraindications for antidiarrheals

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16
Q
  1. Allergies to aspirin or other salicylates since bismuth subsalicylate contains salicylate
  2. Avoid aspirin use as concomitant use with bismuth subsalicylate , which may cause aspirin toxicity
  3. Bismuth may also decrease tetracycline absorption in the GI tract
  4. Diphenoxylate/atropine sulfate may increase the sedative effects of barbiturates, narcotics and alcohol.
  5. Concomitant use with MAO inhibitors may increase the risk of hypertensive crisis
A

significant drug interactions with antidiarrheals

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17
Q

are there significant food interactions with antidiarrheals?

A

no

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18
Q

______ may increase serum amylase levels

A

Diphenoxylate

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19
Q
  1. Nausea and vomiting
  2. Dry mouth, dizziness, drowsiness and constipation
  3. Temporary darkening of stools and tongue may occur with bismuth salicylate
A

side effects of antidiarrheals

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20
Q
  1. Clinical signs and symptoms of overdose include drowsiness, decreased blood pressure (BP), seizures, apnea, blurred vision, dry mouth and psychosis
  2. Risk of aspirin toxicity with concurrent use of aspirin and bismuth subsalicylate
  3. Other adverse effects include central nervous system (CNS) depression, respiratory depression, hypotonic reflexes, angioedema, anaphylaxis and paralytic ileus
A

adverse effects/toxicity for antidiarrheals

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21
Q
  1. Note allergies
  2. Document onset, duration, and frequency of symptoms
  3. Document previous therapies used
  4. Note current medications
  5. Identify any causative factors; perform stool analysis if necessary and ordered
  6. Assess for evidence of dehydration or electrolyte imbalance
  7. Monitor vital signs and I&O
  8. Note presence of comorbid conditions
  9. Check abdomen for tenderness, distention, bowel sounds or masses
  10. Administer bismuth and tetracycline one hour apart
A

nursing considerations for antidiarrheals

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22
Q
  1. Withhold solid food and 24 hours with acute diarrhea
  2. Foods that aggravate diarrhea include milk products, fruit and fruit juices, coffee, tea with caffeine and chocolate
  3. Drink fluids to avoid dehydration and alleviate dry mouth
  4. Follow the BRAT diet-bananas, rice, applesauce, tea/toast-to avoid dehydration if recommended by health care provider (controversial)
  5. Do not exceed prescribed dose
  6. Consult health care provider if diarrhea persists over two days
  7. Use caution in activities requiring alertness if dizziness or drowsiness is present (possible side effects)
  8. Report fever, nausea, and vomiting, abdominal pain or distention
  9. Avoid OTC antacids, dairy products, and other foods that aggravate diarrhea
  10. Use good personal hygiene to avoid skin irritation or breakdown because of diarrhea
  11. Avoid alcohol ingestion while taking medication
  12. Notify health care provider if pregnant or breastfeeding
A

education with antidiarrheals

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23
Q

a. Include nonabsorbable polysaccharide and cellulose derivatives
b. __________ absorb water to increase bulk in fecal mass
c. Peristalsis is stimulated by the increased fecal mass, which decreases bowel transit time
d. They generally produce a laxative effect within 12-14 hours but may require 2-3 days for full effect
e. Are frequently are used to prevent straining with defecation in clients who are post-myocardial infarction or have other conditions in which straining at stool could be harmful

A

Bulk-forming laxatives action and use

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24
Q

a. Since these agents rely on water to increase their bulk, it is essential that adequate fluids be given for bowel absorption
b. These agents may also cause intestinal and esophageal obstruction when insufficient liquid is administered with the dose
c. Each dose should be given with a full glass of liquid (240 mL)
d. Use sugar-free preparations in clients with phenylketonuria

A

bulk forming laxatives administration considerations

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25
Q

a. Not recommended for clients with intestinal stenosis, ulceration, or adhesions
b. Use cautiously in clients swallowing difficulties to ensure aspiration does not occur
c. Do not use if fecal impaction is present

A

contraindications for bulk forming laxatives

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26
Q

: decreased GI absorption may occur with digitalis, anticoagulants, nitrofurantoin and salicylates

A

significant drug interactions with bulk forming laxatives

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27
Q

a. Dietary management of constipation can be aided by encouraging the intake of fluid and fiber
b. Fiber increases stool bulk and water retention in the bowel
c. A dietary bulk forming nutrient such as bran is an appropriate adjunctive therapy for constipation
d. Bran is only partially fermented by bacteria, resulting in increased stool bulk, accelerated transit time, and promotion of normal defecation
e. Rapid increases in dietary roughage may cause abdominal bloating and flatulence
f. Adequate fluid intake is also necessary in order to prevent fecal impactions
g. Generally 240 to 360 mL of fluid with each tablespoon of bran is sufficient
h. Avoid foods that reduce stool, such as bananas, rice, breads, and cheeses

A

significant food interactions with bulk forming laxatives

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28
Q

Are there significant laboratory studies reported with bulk forming laxatives?

A

no

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29
Q

a. abdominal discomfort and/or bloating flatulence
b. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

A

side effects of bulk forming laxatives

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30
Q

a. Rare reports of allergic reactions karaya such as urticaria, rhinitis, dermatitis and bronchospasm
b. Esophageal obstruction, swelling, or blockage may occur when insufficient fluid is used in mixing a bulk-forming laxative

A

adverse effects/toxicity with bulk forming laxatives

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31
Q

a. Assess degree of abdominal distention, bowel sounds, and bowel elimination patterns
b. Assess swallowing ability, adequately mix agents in liquid and encourage additional fluid intake
c. Monitor for aspiration
d. If administered via feeding tube, it must be a large bore tube, and medication must be adequately dissolved in liquid and given rapidly with adequate flushing
e. Add at least 8 oz (240 mL) of water or juice to drug
f. Separate psyllium administration from digoxin, salicylates and anticoagulants by 2 hours
g. Use sugar free preparations in diabetic clients

A

nursing considerations with bulk forming laxatives

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32
Q

a. These agents require adequate hydration to be effective
b. Additional fluids and exercise are helpful in aiding bowel elimination
c. Mix powder preparation with at least 8 oz fluid and drink immediately and follow with another 8 oz of fluid
d. Bulk-forming laxatives may decrease appetite if taken before meals
e. Take bulk-forming laxatives 2 hours after meals and any oral medications
f. Use sodium and sugar-free preparations if they are appropriate to individual diet restrictions
g. Full effect of medication not occur for 2-3 days

A

client education for bulk forming laxatives

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33
Q

a. called _____ because they ______ peristalsis via mucosal irritation or intramural nerve plexus activity, which results in increased motility
b. _____ are agents with purgative actions
c. It is proposed that _________ modify the permeability of the colonic mucosal cells, which result in intraluminal fluid and electrolyte secretion
d. Defecation occurs between 6-12 hours after oral administration of these agents
e. Rectal administration of bisacodyl and senna produces catharsis within 15 minutes to 2 hours

A

stimulants
stimulate
Cathartics
stimulant laxatives

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34
Q

a. Bedtime administration of dose promotes a morning bowel movement
b. Swallow tablet whole; do not crush
c. Do not take within 1 hour of antacids or milk
d. Mix castor oil with 8 oz of water or juice; this drug is usually limited to use for rapid bowel evacuation, such as before radiological procedures

A

administration considerations for stimulant cathartics

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35
Q

a. Contraindicated with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, symptoms of appendicitis, rectal bleeding, gastroenteritis, intestinal obstruction, fecal impaction
b. Castor oil may induce premature labor
c. Use senna cautiously nursing mothers as senna is excreted in breast milk

A

contraindications for stimulant cathartics

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36
Q

Significant Drug interactions
Significant Food interactions
Significant laboratory studies: NONE REPORTED

A

stimulant cathartics

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37
Q

a. Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, laxative dependence
b. Muscle weakness, fluid and electrolyte imbalance
c. Rectal burning or irritation with suppository use

A

side effects for stimulant cathartics

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38
Q

a. Hypolkalemia, hypocalcemia
b. Metabolic acidosis or alkalosis

A

adverse effects for stimulant cathartics

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39
Q

a. Evaluate for nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain or diarrhea
b. Evaluate for medication effectiveness
c. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalances
d. Administer medication 1 hour before or after ingestion of milk or an antacid
e. Encourage increased fluids and diet alterations to include increased amounts of high-fiber foods
f. Evaluate for laxative dependence and offer counseling

A

nursing considerations for stimulant cathartics

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40
Q

a. Discourage client from chronic use of laxatives; use beyond 1 week should be avoided
b. These agents may produce a cathartic colon if used for several years; the colon develops abnormal motor function, and on x-ray resembles ulcerative colitis; usually discontinuation of laxative use restores normal bowel function
c. Increase fluid intake and diet high in fiber
d. Report signs and symptoms of side effects immediately

A

client education for stimulant cathartics

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41
Q

a. They increase osmotic pressure within the intestinal lumen, which results in luminal retention of water, softening the stool
b. Lactulose is an unabsorbed disaccharide metabolized by colonic bacteria primarily to lactic acid, formic and acetic acids
c. It has been proposed that these organic acids may contribute to the osmotic effect
d. Used for treatment of occasional constipation
e. Used to reduce ammonia levels (Lactulose)

A

action and use for hyperosmotic cathartics

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42
Q

a. Glycerin is available only for rectal administration (suppository or enema) for treatment of acute constipation; its laxative effect occurs within 15-30 minutes

b. Lactulose may require 24 to 48 hours for effect; it is also more costly and should be reserved for acute constipation

c. Dissolve 17 grams Miralax in 8 oz water and use once daily for up to 2 weeks; it may take 2 to 4 days for results to occur

A

administration considerations for hyperosmotic cathartics

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43
Q

Contraindicated in bowel obstruction
b. Use lactulose cautiously in clients with diabetes mellitus

A

contraindications for hyperosmotic cathartics

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44
Q
  1. Significant drug interactions: antibiotics may decrease laxative effect by elimination of bacteria needed to digest active form
  2. Significant food interactions: none reported
  3. Significant laboratory studies: serum electrolyte levels
A

interactions and lab studies for hyperosmotic

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45
Q

Glycerin: rectal irritation and burning, hyperemia of the rectal mucosa
b. Lactulose and Miralax: flatulence, abdominal cramps and bloating, diarrhea
9. Adverse effects/toxicity: fluid and electrolyte imbalances

A

side effects and adverse effects/toxicity for hyperosmotics

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46
Q

a. Miralax should always be dissolved in 8 oz of water
b. Dilute lactulose in water or juice to decrease sweet taste
c. Monitor frequency and consistency of stools
d. Monitor for electrolyte imbalances, especially in older adults

A

nursing considerations for hyperosmotics

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47
Q

a. Miralax should be dissolved in 8 oz of water
b. Medication may take 2 to 4 days for effect
c. Contact prescriber if unusual bloating, cramping, or diarrhea occurs
d. Prolonged use may result in electrolyte imbalance and laxative dependence
e. Take medication with juice to improve taste

A

client education for hyperosmotics

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48
Q

a. Used on a scheduled basis for clients who are likely to become constipated, such as with hospitalization, bed rest, postsurgical status, and for those receiving opioid analgesic medications
b. ______ are often referred to as emollient laxatives
c. They are anionic surfactants that lower the fecal surface tension in vitro by allowing water and lipid penetration
d. Softening of the feces generally occurs after 1 to 3 days
e. Some preparations combine a _________such as docusate sodium with a stimulant, such as casanthranol to make a single combination product (e.g. Pericolace)
f. Used for constipation associated with dry, hard stools and to decrease strain of defecation

A

Stool softeners action and use

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49
Q

a. Do NOT give with mineral oil
b. Offer fluids after each PO dose

A

administration considerations for stool softeners or emollient laxatives

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50
Q

a. Contraindicated with any hypersensitivity to the drug
b. Contraindicated with intestinal obstruction undiagnosed abdominal pain, vomiting or other signs of appendicitis, fecal impaction or acute abdomen
c. Docusate sodium should not be used by clients with congestive heart failure (CHF) because of sodium content

A

contraindications for stool softeners or emollient laxatives

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51
Q
  1. Significant drug interactions: may increase absorption of mineral oil
  2. Significant food interactions: none reported
  3. Significant laboratory studies: none reported
A

interactions associated with stool softeners or emollient laxatives

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52
Q

Side effects
a. Mild abdominal cramping, diarrhea
b. Dependence with long-term use or excessive use
c. Bitter taste
Adverse effects/toxicity (all rare)
a. Throat irritation has occurred with docusate sodium solution
b. Docusate potassium has been associated with hyperkalemia when used in clients who have renal insufficiency or renal failure

A

side and adverse effects associated with stool softeners or emollient laxatives

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53
Q

a. Monitor frequency and consistency of stools
b. Monitor for electrolyte imbalances especially in older adults

A

nursing considerations with stool softeners

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54
Q

a. Take medication with milk or juice to decrease bitter taste
b. Increase fluid intake if not contraindicated by another condition such as CHF or renal failure
c. It may require 1 to 3 days to soften fecal matter
d. Consult with dietician regarding dietary changes to increase fiber foods
e. Avoid prolonged use

A

client education for stool softeners

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55
Q

a. Provide lubrication of feces and hinder water reabsorption into the colon
b. Used to treat constipation and prepare client for bowel studies or surgery

A

action and use for lubricants

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56
Q

Mineral oil is indigestible, and its absorption is limited considerably in the non-emulsified formulation

Onset of action when taken orally is 6 to 8 hours

A

administration and considerations for stool lubricants

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57
Q

Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting

Signs and symptoms of appendicitis or acute abdomen, and fecal impaction or bowel obstruction

A

contraindications for stool lubricants

58
Q

Stool softeners increase mineral oil absorption

May impair absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K), anticoagulants, birth control pills, cardiac glycosides, and sulfonamides

A

contraindications for stool lubricants

59
Q
  1. Significant food interactions: do not give with food as it may delay gastric emptying, separate by 2 hours
  2. Significant laboratory studies: none reported
A

interactions with stool lubricants

60
Q

Side effects:
a. Nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps
b. Decreased absorption of nutrients
c. Laxative dependence may occur with excessive or long term use
d. Anal pruritis, irritation, and hemorrhoids

Adverse effects/toxicity: aspiration of product may cause lipoid pneumonia

A

side and adverse effects associated with stool lubricants

61
Q

a. Because of possible aspiration and diminished vitamin absorption, do not administer to young children (younger then 6 years of age), pregnant women, older adults and debilitated clients
b. Do not administer the medication at bedtime
c. Avoid administration of drug to clients lying flat in bed because of risk of aspiration
d. Do not give within 2 hours of food because of possible decrease in gastric emptying
e. Cautionary use in older adults because of increased risk of aspiration
f. Monitor medications and alter administration time to avoid decreased absorption caused by mineral oil

A

nursing considerations with stool lubricants

62
Q

a. Avoid chronic use; fat soluble vitamin absorption could be impaired
b. Do not take mineral oil with stool softeners because of risk of toxic levels
c. Mineral oil may leak through the anal sphincter; report side effects to health care provider
d. Do not take medication when lying flat or at bedtime to reduce risk of aspiration of oil droplets

A

client education with stool lubricants

63
Q

Magnesium, sulfate, phosphate, and citrate salts are used when rapid bowel evacuation is required, as in bowel evacuation in preparation for procedures or surgery

b. The mechanism of action of these poorly absorbed ions is unclear, but it is believed that they produce an osmotic effect that increases intraluminal volume and stimulates peristalsis

c. Magnesium may cause cholecystokinin release from the duodenal mucosa promoting increased fluid secretion and motility of the small intestine and colon

d. Orally administered magnesium and sodium phosphate salts are effective within 30 minutes to 6 hours

e. Phosphate containing rectal enemas evacuate the bowel within 2 to 15 minutes

A

action and use for saline laxatives

64
Q

a. Use magnesium salts cautiously for clients with renal impairment because absorption of magnesium salts may cause hypermagnesemia
b. Use sodium phosphate salts cautiously for clients with CHF when sodium restriction is necessary

A

administration considerations for saline laxatives

65
Q

a. ______ agents are not recommended for children under 2 years of age because of the potential for hypocalcemia in this population
b. Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, or other signs and symptoms of appendicitis or acute abdomen
c. Intestinal obstruction, edema, CHF, megacolon or impaired renal function

A

contraindications for saline laxatives

66
Q
  1. Significant drug interactions: concomitant use with antacids may inactivate both
  2. Significant food interactions: none reported
  3. Significant laboratory studies: none reported
A

interactions associated with saline laxatives

67
Q
  1. Side effects: cramping and urgency to defecate
  2. Adverse effects/toxicity
    a. Safe when administered for short-term management
    b. They may cause significant fluid and electrolyte imbalances when used for prolonged periods or in certain clients
A

interactions associated with saline laxatives

68
Q

a. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalances may occur from repeated administration without appropriate fluid replacement
b. Encourage increased fluid intake
c. Monitor drug effectiveness

A

nursing considerations for saline laxatives

69
Q

a. Use appropriate dose and avoid frequent or prolonged use due to risk of laxative dependence
b. Report side effects or lack of effectiveness to health care provider
c. Increase fluid intake as allowed or tolerated

A

saline laxative client education

70
Q
  1. Emesis is a complex reflex brought about by activation of the vomiting center (a nucleus of neurons located in the medulla oblongata)
  2. Certain stimuli activate the vomiting center directly (e.g. gastrointestinal irritation) while other stimuli (e.g. drugs, toxins, radiation) act within the medulla to stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ); presumably, it is by altering the function of these neuroreceptors that emetogenic compounds and antiemetic drugs produce their effects
  3. Receptors involved are influenced by acetylcholine, histamine, serotonin, dopamine, benzodiazepines and cannabinoids
A

emesis education

71
Q
  1. _____: suppress emesis by blockade of dopamine receptors in the CTZ
  2. ______: suppress emesis by blocking dopamine receptors in the CTZ
  3. ______: inhibits dopamine receptors in the CTZ
A

Phenothiazines
Butyrophenones
Metoclopramide

72
Q

_____ are approved to treat nausea and vomiting associated with cancer chemotherapy; mechanism of action is unknown

A

Cannabinoids

73
Q

_____ is also approved as an appetite stimulant stimulant for clients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

A

Dronabinol

74
Q

_____: primary effect is suppression of anxiety; most effective for management of cancer chemotherapy-associated nausea and vomiting when combined with metoclopramide and dexamethasone

A

Benzodiazepines

75
Q

_______: mechanism for suppression of emesis is unknown, they are effective alone and in combination with other antiemetics in the treatment of emesis associated with cancer chemotherapy

A

Glucocorticoids

76
Q

______, anticholinergic effect reducing motion sickness and vomiting

A

Antihistamines

77
Q

_____: Blocks serotonin receptors to reduce nausea

A

Ondansetron

78
Q

______: a substance P and neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist that does not affect serotonin

A

Aprepitant

79
Q
  1. Frequently, ______ combinations are more beneficial than single-drug treatment, particularly for cancer chemotherapy management of emesis; this may suggest that there is more than one mechanism triggering the emesis
  2. As a rule, prophylactic drugs are generally given by mouth; however, management of active emesis is usually through parenteral or rectal administration of medication
  3. Anticipatory nausea and vomiting should be treated 1 hour before meals or treatment
  4. Parenteral preparations should be given deep IM to avoid leakage of the drug into subcutaneous tissues
A

antiemetic administration considerations
antiemetic

80
Q
  1. Generally contraindicated with CNS depression and coma
  2. Use cautiously in clients with glaucoma, seizures, intestinal obstruction, prostatic hyperplasia, asthma, and cardiac, pulmonary, or hepatic disease
A

contraindications for antiemetics

81
Q

_____ is contraindicated with hypersensitivity, lactation, or concurrent use of pimozide
Use _____ cautiously with warfarin, vinblastine, vincristine, docetaxel ironotecen, imatinib, and paclitaxel

A

Aprepitant, Aprepitant

82
Q

_______ is contraindicated with prolonged QT interval or second – or third-degree AV block

A

Dolasetron mesylate

83
Q

______is contraindicated with allergy to sesame oil, or with use of ritanavir, alcohol, sedatives or hypnotics, psychotomimetics, or tricyclic antidepressants

A

Dronabinol

84
Q
  1. Epinephrine including ephedrine, may increase hypertension
  2. Avoid use with MAO inhibitors
  3. Antihistamines and CNS depressants may increase CNS depressions
  4. Levodopa may have decreased action
  5. Phenytoin may increase toxicity
  6. Meclizine may mask signs of ototoxicity with such medications aminoglycosides salicyates and loop diuretics
  7. Glucocorticords cause hyperglycemia
  8. Rifampin decreases dolasetron levels
A

significant drug interactions with antiemetics

85
Q

F. Significant food interactions: none reported

G. Significant laboratory studies
1. Monitor BUN and creatinine (kidney function)
2. May mask response of skin testing; discontinue 4 days prior to testing
3. May cause hyperglycemia, false-positive or false-negative pregnancy test, may increase liver enzyme levels
4. Dexamethasone may increase glucose and cholesterol levels, decrease potassium, calcium and thyroxine levels

A

significant laboratory studies for antiemetics

86
Q

H. Side effects
1. Phenothiazines can produce extrapyramidal reactions, anticholinergic effects, hypotension, and sedation; be alert for aspiration
2. Butyrophenones can also produce extrapyramidal reactions, sedation, and hypotension
3. Cannabinoids may cause temporal disintegration, dissociation , depersonalization, and dysphoria

I. Adverse effects/toxicity
1. Cannabinoids are contraindicated for clients with psychiatric disorders
2. Phenothiazines: agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia

A

side effects/ adverse effects for antiemetics

87
Q
  1. Dronabinol and nabilone have a high potential for misuse
  2. Check vital signs regularly for risk of hypotension or tachycardia
  3. Observe for side effects and adverse reactions
  4. Monitor I & O for urine retention
  5. Obtain baseline electrocardiogram with dolasetron
  6. Observe for mood changes or involuntary movements
  7. Monitor lab values; liver function tests, electrolytes, and renal function (blood urea nitrogen and creatine)
  8. Store dronabinol in reigerator
  9. Ensure client safety
  10. Monitor for anticholinergic effects; dry mouth, constipation, or visual changes
A

nursing considerations for antiemetics

88
Q
  1. Avoid activities that require alertness
  2. Report adverse effects to health care provider
  3. Avoid alcohol and CNS depressant drugs
  4. Diabetic clients need to monitor blood glucose
  5. Take medications as prescribed
  6. Avoid excessive sunlight and ultraviolet light because of risk of photosensitivity
  7. Use sugarless hard candy or ice chips to avoid dry mouth
  8. Increase fluids and dietary fiber to decrease risk of constipation
  9. Take medication 30 to 60 minutes before any activity that causes nausea for best effect
A

client education for antiemetics

89
Q
  1. Work by correcting the pH in the stomach by buffering the gastric acid with their basic qualities
  2. Use relieve symptoms caused by hyperacidity caused by GI disorders
  3. Used to alleviate symptoms of gas and bloating
  4. Aluminum hydroxide (Amphogel): relief of gastric acidity, esophageal reflux, hiatal hernia, duodenal ulcer
  5. Magnesium hydroxide and aluminum hydroxide (Maalox): Peptic ulcer, hyperacidity, gastritis, peptic esophagitis, hiatal hernia
  6. Magnesium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide, simethicone (Mylanta): Peptic ulcer, hyperacidity, gastritis, peptic esophagitis, hiatal hernia
A

action and use for antacids

90
Q

______should be taken at least 2 hours apart from other drugs where interaction could occur

A

Antacids

91
Q
  1. Safety not guaranteed in lactating women
  2. Magnesium hydroxide contraindicated in presence of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, severe renal dysfunction, fecal impaction, rectal bleeding, colostomy and ileostomy
  3. Aluminum carbonate antacids: Prolonged use in high dosages will cause low serum phosphate
  4. Calcium carbonate antacids: hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria, severe renal disease, renal calculi, GI hemorrhage or obstruction, dehydration
A

contraindications for antacids

92
Q
  1. ______ increase gastric pH which interferes with absorption of others medications
  2. ______ may bind with other drugs decreasing their absorption and effectiveness
A

Antacids
Antacids
significant drug interactions

93
Q

E. Significant Food Interactions: None
F. Significant Laboratory Studies:
Prolonged use of ______ may alter aluminum, calcium, sodium and phosphate levels

A

antacids

94
Q

G. Side Effects
1. Belching, constipation, flatulence, diarrhea
2. Gastric distention
3. Acid rebound if antacids are frequently given

Adverse effects/toxicity
1. Hypophosphatemia (anorexia, malaise, tremors, muscle weakness)
2. Aluminum toxicity (dementia) with repeated dosing
3. Hypercalcemia and metabolic alkalosis may occur with antacids containing calcium carbonate
4. May worsen hypertension and heart failure from increased sodium intake with use of antacids containing sodium carbonate

A

side effects and adverse effects associated with antacids

95
Q
  1. Shake suspension well
  2. Flush NG tube with water after administration
  3. Observe for signs and symptoms of altered phosphate levels: anorexia, muscle weakness and malaise
A

nursing considerations associated with antacids

96
Q
  1. Increase fluid, fiber and exercise to avoid constipation
  2. Take as directed
  3. Keep out of reach of children
  4. Drink sufficient fluids (8-10 glasses/day)
  5. ______ may interact with certain medications; notify health care provider of any prescribed medications; do not take ______ within 45 minutes to 2 hours of other medications or absorption of other drug may be decreased
  6. Do not use unless prescribed if diagnosed with kidney disease
A

Antacids, education
antacids

97
Q
  1. Reduce gastric acid secretion by blocking Histamine H2 in the gastric parietal cells
  2. Reduce total pepsin output
  3. Histamine H2 antagonists are used to treat duodenal ulcer, gastric ulcer, hypersecretory conditions such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, reflux esophagitis
  4. Used to prevent stress ulcers in critically ill clients, and as combination therapy to treat Helicobacter pylori infection
A

action and use for histamine-2 receptor antagonists

98
Q
  1. Intravenous administered drugs should not be mixed with other medications
  2. Avoid antacid use within 1 hour of administration
  3. May be given as single dose, twice daily, or with meals at bedtime
A

administration considerations for histamine-2 receptor antagonist antacids

99
Q
  1. Hypersensitivity to drug
  2. Use caution in clients with impaired renal or hepatic function
A

contraindications for histamine-2 receptor antagonist antacids

100
Q

E. Significant Drug Interactions
1. Decreased ketoconazole absorption with famotidine
2. Cimetidine: decreased metabolism of beta-adrenergic blockers, phenytoin, lidocaine, procainamide, quinidine, benzodiazepines, metronidazole, tricyclic antidepressants, oral contraceptives, and warfarin causing increased risk of toxicity
3. Cimetidine alters absorption of ketoconazole, ferrous salts, indomethacine and tetracyclines, and may decrease concentration of digoxin
4. Nizatidine may increase salicylate levels with high doses of aspirin
5. Ranitidine may increase diazepam absorption, increase hypoglycemic effects of glipizide, increase procainamide levels and increase warfarin effect
F. Significant Food Interactions: None

A

interactions associated with histamine-2 receptor antagonists

101
Q

G. Significant laboratory studies:
1. Ranitidine – false positive urine prolactin
2. Cimetidine: false negative allergen skin test, increased prolactin, alkaline phosphatase and creatinine levels and may alter gastroccult testing caused by blue dye used in tablets
3. Famotidine may cause false negative allergen results and may increase liver enzyme levels
4. Nizatidine may cause false positive urobilinogen

A

lab studies associated with histamine-2 antagonist antacids

102
Q

H. Side effects
1. Somnolence, diaphoresis, rash, headache, hypotension
2. Taste disorder, diarrhea, constipation, dry mouth
3. Cardiac dysrhythmias
4. Impotence with cimetidine
I. Adverse Effects/Toxicity
1. Rare but may include agranulocytosis, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, aplastic anemia, and pancytopenia
2. Anaphylaxis

A

side effects and adverse effects associated with histamine-2 antagonist antacids

103
Q
  1. Reduced dosages usually required for clients with hepatic or renal impairment
  2. Assess medications for possible interactions
  3. Evaluate nutritional status and dietary interventions
  4. Evaluate need for smoking cessation and alcoholic abuse programs
  5. Give cimetidine with meals and at bedtime
A

nursing considerations for histamine-2 antagonist antacids

104
Q
  1. Block acid production by inhibiting the H+ 2K + ATPase at the secretory surface of the gastric parietal cells, thereby blocking the formation of gastric acid
  2. Used for treatment of erosive or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or duodenal ulcers, active benign gastric ulcers, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) – associated gastric ulcers (short term)
  3. Used for healing and reduction in relapse rates of heartburn symptoms in erosive or ulcerative GERD (maintenance)
  4. Used for treatment of pathological hypersecretory conditions such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (long term)
A

action and use of proton pump inhibitors

105
Q
  1. May give with antacids
  2. If unable to swallow capsules, lansoprazole and esomeprazole capsules may be opened and sprinkled on applesauce before taking
  3. To give per nasogastric (NG) tube, dilute capsule contents in 40 mL juice
  4. Omeprazole, pantoprazole, and rabeprazole must be swallowed whole
  5. Pantoprazole IV: should be administered over a period of 15 minutes at a rate not greater than 3mg/min (7mL/min)
  6. Pantoprazole IV should be administered using the in-line filter provided
A

administration considerations associated with proton pump inhibitors

106
Q

D. Contraindications: not recommended in children or nursing mothers
E. Significant Drug Interactions
1. Rabeprazole and pantoprazole may alter absorption of gastric pH dependent drugs such as ketoconazole, digoxin, iron preparations, and ampicillin
2. Esomeprazole may affect drugs metabolized by CYP2C19
3. Lansoprazole may alter theophylline levels; give at least 30 minutes before sucralfate
4. Omeprazole may potentiate diazepam, phenytoin, and warfarin
5. Omeprazole should be taken 30 minutes before sucralfate; it may alter absorption of pH dependent medications
6. Hypoglycemia could occur if rabeprazole is combined with itraconazole or gemfibrozil
7. Esomeprazole increases serum levels and increases risk of toxicity of benzodiazepines
8. Esomeprazole interferes with absorption of ketoconazole, iron salts, and digoxin
F. Significant Food Interactions: None reported but administer before meals

A

contraindications and interactions associated with proton pump inhibitors

107
Q

G. Significant laboratory studies:
1. May increase liver enzymes
2. Monitor theophylline levels with lansoprazole (Prevacid)
3. May need to monitor diazepam and phenytoin levels and prothrombin times more frequently with omeprazole (Prilosec)

A

significant laboratory studies associated with proton pump inhibitors

108
Q

H. Side Effects
1. Headache, diarrhea, constipation, abdominal pain, nausea, flatulence
2. Rash, hyperglycemia, dizziness, pruritis, dry mouth
3. Injection site reaction with pantoprazole
I. Adverse effects/toxicity
1. Pancreatitis, liver necrosis, hepatic failure, toxic epidermal necrolysis
2. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
3. Agranulocytosis, myocardial infarction (MI), shock, cerebral vascular accident (CVA)
4. GI hemorrhage

A

side effects and adverse effects associated with proton pump inhibitors

109
Q
  1. Dosage should be reduced in severe liver disease
  2. Document reason for therapy, duration of symptoms, and drug efficacy
  3. Monitor for side effects
  4. Monitor laboratory tests results including liver function tests, CBC, and measures of renal function (BUN, Creatinine)
  5. Review any diagnostic finkings
  6. Assess for pregnancy or lactation
  7. Increase water intake to 8 to 10 glasses per day to prevent constipation
A

nursing considerations for proton pump inhibitors

110
Q
  1. Be aware of side effects; report diarrhea
  2. Take medications as prescribed; do not increase dose
  3. Follow prescribed diet and activities to decrease symptoms
  4. Medication is generally for short term therapy; keep health care appointments for treatment of continued signs and symptoms
  5. Esomeprazole and omeprazole should be taken before meals
  6. Notify health care provider of any difficulty swallowing since omeprazole, pantoprazole, and rabeprazole must be swallowed whole
  7. Lansoprazole and esomeprazole capsules may be opened and sprinkled
A

client education for proton pump inhibitors

111
Q

Primarily controlled by the vomiting center of the medulla of the brain, which receives sensory signals from the digestive tract, the inner ear, and the ________ in the cerebral cortex

A

chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

112
Q

What are the causes of nausea

A

Vestibular
Obstruction (Opioids)
Mind (DysMotility)
Infection (Irritation)
Toxins (Tastes and other senses)

113
Q

Motion and body position are sensed through the _____.
Motion sickness is brought about by the _____
So are, inner-ear diseases, such as Meniere’s disease.
Stimulus of the ______ is mediated largely through histamine and acetylcholine receptors.
Patient will complain of being nauseated with movement of head

A

vestibular apparatus

114
Q

What are the preferred meds for vestibular induced nausea?

A

Promethazine (Suppository)
Scopolamine (Patch or Injection)
Cyclizine (Oral or Injection)
Focus on Anticholinergic/Antihistamine Drugs

115
Q

Is most common cause of nausea

A

constipation

116
Q

Can be caused internally or externally
Internally, could be due to constipation
Externally, an example would be a tumor pushing on outer bowel
May be mediated by both mechano- and chemoreceptors

A

obstruction

117
Q

For constipation – use anti-constipation meds like laxatives
For other ______, medication use is controversial
Need to treat cause

A

obstruction

118
Q

Caused by something emotional such as anxiety or memories, bad news, nervousness
Very real and often difficult to control
Can manipulate
senses
Can use Lorazepam
Or appetite
stimulants (Megestrol,
Steroids, Cannibinoids)

A

mind issue nausea

119
Q

Can be caused by meds that “slow”______:
Opioids
Anticholinergics
Can have upper intestinal dys_____

A

motility

120
Q

Treat with Prokinetics
Metoclopramide (Reglan)- upper only
Senna – lower only

A

dysMotility

121
Q

Mediated through chemoreceptors: acetylcholine, histamine, serotonin
Gut and/or adjacent organ inflammation can trigger vomiting

A

infection and irritation

122
Q

what are used to great GI disorders as a result of infection and irritation?

A

To treat: anticholinergic and antihistamine like promethazine

123
Q

Can be due to the DRUGS WE GIVE
“If ingested, a toxic substance may irritate the stomach or intestine, stimulate special chemoreceptors, and cause vomiting, thus limiting absorption of the poison” (Hellenbeck, 2003)
Treatment depends on what has been injected

A

toxins

124
Q

A zone in the medulla that is sensitive to certain chemical stimuli. Stimulation of this zone may produce nausea.

A

chemoreceptor trigger zone

125
Q

Nausea can be caused via the ______ by:
Biochemical Abnormalities
Hypercalcemia, Hyponatremia, Hepatic Failure, Renal Failure
Sepsis
Drugs
Chemotherapy
Opioids

A

CTZ

126
Q

Helps with some Chemotherapy induced vomiting
Example: Ondansetron hydrochloride (Zofran)
Sometimes in
CTZ related nausea where dopamine blockade is contraindicated (Parkinson’s)
Certain GI cases such as Bowel Obstruction or Radiation Enteritis

A

5HT3 antagonists

127
Q

Increase in volume of stool and frequency of defecation
Can be due to gastrointestinal disease or a disorder of the bowel

A

diarrhea

128
Q

Absorption of water into the intestines is dependent on adequate absorption of solutes. If excessive amounts of solutes are retained in the intestinal lumen, water will not be absorbed and diarrhea will result
A distinguishing feature of ______ is that it stops after the patient stops consuming the poorly absorbed solute
Example: Lactose Intolerance

A

osmotic diarrhea

129
Q

Large volumes of water are normally secreted into the small intestinal lumen, but a large majority of this water is efficiently absorbed before reaching the large intestine. Diarrhea occurs when secretion of water into the intestinal lumen exceeds absorption.

A

secretory diarrhea

130
Q

Destruction of the epithelium results not only in exudation of serum and blood into the lumen but often is associated with widespread destruction of absorptive epithelium. In such cases, absorption of water occurs very inefficiently and diarrhea results. Examples of pathogens frequently associated with infectious diarrhea include:
Bacteria: Salmonella, E. coli, Campylobacter
Viruses: rotaviruses, coronaviruses, parvoviruses (canine and feline), norovirus
Protozoa: coccidia species, Cryptosporium, Giardia

A

inflammatory or infectious diarrhea

131
Q

In order for nutrients and water to be efficiently absorbed, the intestinal contents must be adequately exposed to the mucosal epithelium and retained long enough to allow absorption. Disorders in motility than accelerate transit time could decrease absorption, resulting in diarrhea even if the absorptive process per se was proceeding properly.

A

diarrhea associated with deranged motility

132
Q

Normally, waste material travels through the large intestine and water is reabsorbed. If the waste material remains in the colon for too long and too much water is reabsorbed then the stool becomes hard leading to _____.
______ is not a disease, but a symptom of some other underlying cause

A

constipation

133
Q

Lack of exercise
Insufficient food intake (fiber)
Insufficient water intake
Diseases that cause constipation:
Hypothyroidism, diabetes, irritable bowel disease
Foods that cause constipation:
Alcoholic beverages, products with high content of refined white flour, dairy products, chocolate
Drugs that reduce intestinal motility:
Opioids, anticholinergics, antihistamines, some antacids, iron supplements are examples

A

underlying causes of constipation

134
Q

Dietary changes
Increased water intake
Laxatives
Cathartics

A

treatment for constipation

135
Q

Inhibit action of histamines at the H1 Receptor, which results in limited stimulation of the vomiting center
Side Effects: confusion, sedation, dizziness, tinnitus, insomnia, incoordination, fatigue, tremors
Anticholinergic Side Effects of Antihistamine: dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision, exacerbation of narrow angled glaucoma

A

antihistamines

136
Q

Inhibit action of serotonin at the 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor in the small bowel, vagus nerve, and chemoreceptor trigger zone so, decreases afferent visceral and chemoreceptor trigger stimulation of medullary vomiting center
Choice medication for chemotherapy induced vomiting
Can cause QRS widening and QT prolongation – watch EKGs and what meds are given in conjunction to prevent problems
May see serotonin antagonist used with dexamethasone to treat and prevent postop N/V

A

serotonin antagonist

137
Q

Can be used with Compazine to treat nausea and migraine, BUT MOSTLY, used for GERD
Helps strengthen the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). If the LES is weak, stomach contents can pass back out of the stomach into the esophagus
Potential side effects are significantly more serious than other GERD medications – only prescribed for serious cases
Neurological symptoms such as muscle spasms, slurred speech, uncontrolled movements of tongue and lips, as well as diarrhea, nervousness, anxiousness, agitation and cardiac arrhythmias
Also, helps empty stomach’s contents faster; the longer food is in your stomach the more likely it is to cause reflux
Short half life so taken 2-4 times daily before meals and at bedtime
To maximize effectiveness, take with H2 antagonists or proton pump inhibitors (also GERD meds)
Not for occasional heartburn and will not work immediately like TUMS

A

prokinetics

138
Q

Inhibit action of acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptor which results in limited stimulation of the vomiting center
Scopolamine can have effects on the CNS like antihistamines do, but primarily have anticholinergic effects: dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision, exacerbation of narrow angled glaucoma

A

anticholinergics

139
Q

Actually antipsychotic medication used to treat dizziness and problems with balance, nausea, vomiting, agitation, severe restlessness, schizophrenia
Acts by blocking the action of dopamine on the nervous system of the brain
When given for nausea, give short term
Makes skin more sensitive to sunlight, need sunscreen!
Side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, blurred vision, dry mouth, headache, shakiness, difficulty with temperature regulation, changes in weight, difficulty sleeping, mood changes

A

prochlorperazine

140
Q

Can be used for a number of things but used as an antiemetic in postop patients, active prophylactic treatment of motion sickness
DO NOT use in pediatric patients less than 2 years old – can cause respiratory depression
Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight
Can cause marked drowsiness and impaired mental abilities
No longer recommended IV unless in a central line

A

promethazine HCl

Pharmacology Final (12 decks)

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