Exam One portion of exam Flashcards

1
Q

________________ are the gold standard of medications, must be proven to have the same therapeutic effect on the body no matter who makes it.

A

preferred agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_________ is the study of what the body does to the drug when administered

A

pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

is the study of what the body does to the drug when administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the extent of absorption

A

bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

bioavailability

A

the extent of absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

typically less than 100% bioavailability

A

oral medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

oral medications typically have ________ bioavailability

A

less than 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IV medications typically have _____ bioavailability

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

typically have 100% bioavailability

A

IV medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

______ – the extent of absorption ( is higher with an IV for example, is typically 100%)

A

bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

______ – time for drug to actually illicit therapeutic response from administration

A

time to onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

______ – time for drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response

A

time to peak effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ –the maximum concentration of the drug in the body after administration

A

peak level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

______ – length of time the concentration of the drug in the blood or tissues is sufficient to actually illicit a response

A

duration of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Movement of a drug from its site of administration into the bloodstream for distribution to the tissues

A

absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Refers to the transport of a drug by the bloodstream to its intended site of action

A

distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

if there is good blood supply there will be ______distribution

A

rapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most often occurs in the liver, but can happen in the skeletal muscle, kidneys, lungs, plasma and intestinal mucosa.

A

metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

______ – phenomenon where drug is metabolized in a certain part of the body and it is reduced by the time that it gets to the intended target site

A

first pass effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

________ is the fraction or %U of a drug that reaches systemic circulation, IV are 100 % ______

A

bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

primary organ of excretion?

A

kidney
(the bowels also excrete, but not as much)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Time required for one-half of a given drug to be removed from the body

A

half life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the interactions between the medicine and target cells, body systems, and organs to produce effects

A

pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

–through drug receptor interaction, so what happens is a drug molecule joins a reactive site on a cell to produce a response

A

receptor interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

– enzymes are substances that break down almost every biochemical reaction in a cell, drugs can produce effects by interreacting with these enzyme systems by either inhibiting or enhancing the enzyme.

A

enzyme interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

– actually interact with the cell membranes or cellular processes, drugs either physically or structurally interfere cellular processes. example is a cancer drug (pretty harsh)

A

nonselective interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

two solutions mixed together than are ______, when they are mixed they create a precipitate which can cause an embolism, as well as the drugs not working properly

A

incompatible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

–goes over the hospital to hold the standard of care where it needs to be.

A

the Joint commission (Medicare does this too)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

– develop standards for nurses, do policy statements and resolutions

A

ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

– promoting patients informed decision making, supporting their informed decision

A

autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

– doing or actively promoting good, whatever you do is to best help the patient

A

beneficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

– respecting privileged information, known when to include or not include family

A

confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

– being fair and ethical in your actions

A

justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

– avoiding doing deliberate harm

A

nonmaleficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

– duty to tell the truth, informed consent

A

veracity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Complete all forms including incident report according to facility policy and procedure
  2. Factual information only
  3. Avoid judgmental words
  4. Document changes in patient’s physical or mental status
  5. Document that physician was notified (who, time, follow-up actions/orders)
  6. Ongoing patient monitoring
A

reporting/documenting med error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Younger than 38 weeks of gestation is a ?

A

premature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Younger than 1 month?

A

neonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

1 month up to 1 year

A

infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

1 year up to 12 years

A

child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Immature Organs
Especially Liver and Kidneys  excretion impaired
Limited medication-metabolizing capacity
Sensitivity of receptor sites vary with age
Skin is thinner

A

neonatal and pediatric patients characteristics that affect dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Rapidly developing tissues may be more sensitive to drugs
Stomach acid (pH) is less acidic  decreased ability to kill bacteria
Lungs have weaker mucous barriers
Body temp is less well regulated and dehydration occurs easily
less stomach acid
peristalsis is slower

A

neonatal and pediatric patients characteristics that affect dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What trimester is the highest risk for adverse effects to happen to the fetus?

A

1st trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Functioning of Organ Systems Declines
Drug Sensitivity is Altered
General Decrease in Body Weight
Malnutrition
Changes in Drug Molecule Receptors
Important to Monitor Liver and Kidney Function Via Labs

A

age considerations for elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

1 gram

A

1000 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

1 mg

A

1000 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

1 L

A

1000 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

3 teaspoons (tsp)

A

1 Tablespoon (T)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

1 cc

A

1 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

1 teaspoon (tsp)

A

5 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

1 table spoon (T) = ____ mL

A

15 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

1 kg

A

2.2 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

1 oz

A

30 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

1 in

A

2.54 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

tachycardia
tinnitus
hearing loss
dimness of vision
headache
dizziness
n/v
diarrhea
sweating thirst
hyperventilation hypoglycemia

A

s/s chronic salicylate toxicity

most common in adults: tinnitus (first sign) and hearing loss

most common in children: drossiness, hyperventilation, hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Strong abuse potential
Sedation, dizziness, lightheadedness, drowsiness
Itching or pruritus, rash and hemodynamic changes
Respiratory depression – most severe adverse effect
GI tract adverse effects
Urinary retention
Severe hypersensitivity or anaphylactic reaction
Cough suppression
orthostatic hypotension
itching (histamine release)

A

adverse effects of opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Monitor vitals and auscultate lungs for congestion
For respiratory rates < 12, withhold drug and stimulate breathing
Administer an _____ antagonist (Narcan) to restore respiratory rate
Fall precautions (orthostatic hypotension)
Monitor bowel function, encourage fiber supplements, stool softeners
For vomiting, administration of antiemetic, ensure adequate hydration
Monitor I&O, watch for urinary retention, bladder distention
Encourage patients to urinate every 4 hours (perception of need decreases)
Prepare to insert catheter as needed to empty bladder
Encourage to cough frequently to prevent buildup of respiratory secretions (especially postop)
Recommend lowest possible dose and short term only

A

interventions for opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Measure baseline vitals and monitor throughout therapy
Administer orally, IM, IV, SC, rectally, epidurally
Swallow without crushing or chewing if sustained release
Administer IV opioids by diluting as recommended and slowly; have naloxone and resuscitation equipment available
Monitor PCA and pump setting carefully
Administer to cancer patients on a fixed around the clock schedule rather then PRN

A

opioids administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

don’t drive heavy machinery when first starting _____
sit down if you get light headed
drink lots of water,
move around (prevents constipation and pneumonia)
rise slowly from a reclining or sitting position
report any problems with urination
cough and breath deep regularly (pneumonia prevention)
nausea vomiting problems – take with food first, if it persists use an antiemetic
take the opioids as prescribed

A

opioids patient instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Known allergy
Severe Asthma
Pregnancy Risk Category D
Renal failure
Increased intracranial pressure
Biliary colic or biliary tract surgery
Preterm labor

A

contraindications for opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Can be used transdermally (for long term)
Strong opioid analgesic
Rapid onset/Short duration when injected
Caution! Disposal of Patches
Binds with opioid receptors in brain and spinal cord to inhibit pain transmission (acts like a closed gate to block pain transmission)

A

fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

For Severe Pain
Schedule II
Mainly used - oral and parenteral routes
“Non-ceiling” drug

A

morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

More effective than most opioids given orally
Larger doses for analgesia than antitussive
Metabolized to morphine
not as strong as morihine, but has fewer side effects

A

codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Similar to codeine in analgesic and antitussive effects
Schedule II
Metabolized to hydromorphone
metabolizes to hydromorophine, is given with Tylenol or ibuprophen

A

hydrocodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Schedule II
Synthetic
Action similar to morphine, more frequent administration
Normeperidine
Use has greatly declined
Drug Interactions
can cause less smooth muscle spasm, so less biliary and renal cholic with this drug

A

meperidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

normeperidine –is toxic and can accumulate with chronic use or large doses, or with someone in renal failure who is taking ______
this is nonreversable, there is not a reversal drug that you can give

contraindicated in anyone who is taking amphetamines or MAOI in the last three weeks because it can lead to serotonin syndrome
serotonin syndrome leads to high fever, seizures, and death

A

meperidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Can occur after only 2 weeks of opioid use
Gradual dosage reduction minimizes risk
S&S if someone is in withdrawal: they may be drug seeking, their eyes can be dilated (madriasis), piloerection (hair is standing up on body), very diaphoretic (really sweaty, cold, clammy), rhinorrhea (runny nose), lacrimation (overproduction of tears), vomiting and diarrhea, CO insomnia, elevated bp and pulse, CO muscle cramps, CO arthralgia (pain in joint), super anxious, physically painful to some people

A

opioid withdrawl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Schedule IV controlled substance
History of substance abuse
Head injury, increased intracranial pressure
Decreased respiratory reserve
Hepatic or renal disease

A

Agonist-Antagonists - Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Reversal of opioid effects, overdose
Reversal of neonatal respiratory depression due to maternal analgesia
Most reverse respiratory depression, some will reverse constipation and euphoria; overdose

A

Opioid Antagonist - Indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Blocks opioid receptors
Binds to a pain receptor but does not reduce pain signals.
Competes with and reverses the effects of agonist and agonist-antagonist drugs at the receptor sites

A

Opioid Antagonist – Pharmacologic Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

IV, IM, subQ, Intranasal
Remember the half-life of ______ is much shorter than that of opioids so may have to give more________; monitor!!!
Will produce withdrawal symptoms when given to opioid dependent people

can cause seizures, other withdrawal symptoms when given to opioid dependent people

expect upset person when narcaned if they just came out of surgery

KNOW THE DOSAGES FOR EMERGENT DRUGS, NARCAN IS AN EMERGENT DRUG

A

Opioid Antagonist Prototype = Narcan (naloxone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Increase respiratory rate, increase heart rate, increase blood pressure
Abstinence syndrome (withdrawal) – hypertension, vomiting, tremors

can cause abstinence syndrome or withdrawal, hypertension, bomiting, tremors. SEIZURES,

can bag, intubate, etc. if appropriate

A

Opioid Antagonist – Adverse Effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Monitor vital signs (watch for increase in blood pressure)
Monitor for tachycardia
Have oxygen and resuscitation equipment ready
Expect adverse effects in an opioid dependent patient

have oxygen and resuscitation equipment ready

A

Opioid Antagonists - Interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

IM, SC, IV, Intranasal
Titrate doses carefully
Monitor vital signs every 5-15 minutes for several hours
Effects last 60-90 minutes, can need another dose
Be aware that the drug may increase pain by reducing opioid effects and precipitate acute withdrawal for a dependent patient

A

Opioid Antagonists - Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

if theyre awake, tell them that you might have to administer it again (even if theyre not awake),

warm patients that they will have pain because it reverses

stimulate before you give ______, but don’t spend a lot of time doing it

A

Opioid Antagonists – Patient Instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Opioid dependence
Respiratory depression due to nonopioid drugs

A

Opioid Antagonists - Contraindications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Cardiac irritability
Head injury, increased intracranial pressure
Brain tumor
Seizure disorders

A

Opioid Antagonists - Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Coadministration of opioids

+

alcohol, antihistamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, phenothiazine, other CNS depressants

A

Respiratory Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Opioids
+
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

A

Respiratory Depression, Seizures, Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Abnormal increase in serum levels of amylase, alanine aminotransferase, alkaline phosphatase, bilirubin, lipase, creatinine kinase, and lactate dehydrogenase
Abnormal decrease in urinary 17-ketosteroid levels
Increase in urinary alkaloid and glucose concentrations

A

Lab Test Interactions [for opioids ?]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Stimulation
Ventilatory assistance
Opioid Antagonists

A

Treatment of Overdose? Or Respiratory Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Analgesic, Antiinflammatory and Antipyretic Activity
Also for headaches, myalgia, neuralgia, arthralgia, postoperative pain
Relief of pain with rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, osteoarthritis, gout, hyperuricemia

A

NSAIDS - Indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis in the CNS and the periphery

A

NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

_____ only inhibits in the CNS, NOT the PERIPHERY

A

ACETAMINOPHEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the NSAIDS?

A

Aspirin
Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin)
Naproxen (Naprosyn, Alleve)
Indomethacin (Indocin)
Ketorolac (Toradol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Inhibit cyclooxgenase (COX)
Two forms of this enzyme =
COX – 1 and COX - 2

A

NSAIDS – Expected Pharmocologic Actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

______ stimulate release of protective prostaglandins in order to maintain homeostasis in the body
protect gastric mucosa
enhance platelet aggregation
promotes kidney function

A

COX 1 enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

_______stimulates release of prostaglandins in response to injury
inflammation
pain
fever

A

COX 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

GI tract
Heartburn to GI Bleeding
Acute Renal Failure (especially if dehydrated)
Due to disruption of prostaglandin function
______ block protective effects of COX-1 on the kidneys
Reye’s Syndrome
Salicylism

A

NSAIDS - Adverse Effects

90
Q

Monitor for signs of bleeding
Test for and treat Helicobacter pylori infection
Recommend a proton pump inhibitor during NSAID therapy
Monitor I & O, BUN and Creatinine
Monitor for salicylism
With long term use of non-aspirin NSAIDS: Monitor for signs of embolic event
Recommend low dose aspirin to prevent embolic events

A

NSAIDS -Interventions

91
Q

Make sure patients swallow enteric coated or sustained release whole
Due to increased bleeding tendencies, discontinue aspirin one week before scheduled surgery
Monitor for initial and continued therapeutic effects
Prophylactic use of aspirin to inhibit platelet aggregation is usually 81mg/day

A

Administration of NSAIDS

92
Q

take with food

report gastric irritation

report unusual or prolonged bleeding

report changes in urine output or retention

report edema, bloating, weight gain

don’t give aspirin to kids under 18 who have viral symptoms

report chest pain, shortness of breath, stroke symptoms

report sign of overdose salicylism
first sign is tinnitus

A

NSAIDS – Patient Instructions

93
Q

Known drug allergy
Documented Aspirin Allergy should have NO NSAIDS
Risk for bleeding
Vitamin K deficiency
Peptic ulcer disease
Risk for epistaxis
Severe Renal or Hepatic Disease
Chronic Alcohol Abusers
Children and Adolescents with viral infections (Reye’s)
Pregnancy
1 week prior to surgery

A

NSAIDS - Contraindications

94
Q

Blocks pain centrally and peripherally
Decrease responsiveness to pyrogens
Anti-platelet activity (bleeding risk)
Toxicity above 300 mcg/mL
Pain that is low to moderate
Gastric upset

A

Aspirin

95
Q

______ is a salicylate, it blocks pain centrally and peripherally, decreases responsiveness to pyrogens (substances that cause fever) by acting on the hypothalamus, prevents prostaglandin from increasing inflammation, also have an antiplatelet activity (bleeding risk) cetyle portion of aspirin binds to COX1 and keeps platelets from sticking together

Fever
inflammation
antiplatelet activity

toxicity above 300 mcg/mL

acute ingestion can cause toxicity

low to moderate pain

take with food if gastric upset occurs

A

aspirin

96
Q

High risk of overdosing-
Avoid for 2 weeks before and after surgery
Reduce or avoid alcohol
Childproof container
Full glass of water with food
Report signs of bleeding
Don’t exceed recommended dose

A

Patient Teaching for Aspirin

97
Q

Removing salicylate from the GI tract
Preventing Further absorption
Correcting fluid, electrolyte and acid-base disturbances
Implementing measures to enhance _____ elimination = dialysis

GI tract: pump stomach

correct fluid and electrolyte and acid base disturbances

elimination can be done through dialysis

A

Management of Salicylate Overdose

98
Q

Very bound to plasma proteins
Tablets, chewables, suspension and drops
Maximum of 2400 mg/day
Used in osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis
Used to treat pain and fever

A

ibuprofen

99
Q

Symptoms: drowsiness, lethargy, mental confusion, paresthesias, numbness, aggressive behavior, disorientation, seizures and gastrointestinal toxicity

dialysis does not help, activated charcoal must be used and will bind with _______, it is done through an NG tube

A

ibuprophen,

Nonsalicylate NSAIDS Toxicity

Similar to Salicylate Overdose but usually not as extensive or dangerous

100
Q

Analgesia for mild to moderate pain
Inflammation suppression
Fever reduction
Dysmenorrhea

A

NSAIDS (COX-2) - Indications

101
Q

embolic event potential associated with _____

causes vasoconstriction and increased platelet aggregation

GI upset and renal failure as well as cardiac events are possible with this medication, as well as renal dysfunciton

A

COX 2 inhibitors
celecoxib

102
Q

Monitor for and report gastric upset, heartburn, nausea, diarrhea, GI bleeding
Test for and treat H. pylori infection prior to long term therapy
For patients at high risk for gastric bleeding, recommend a proton pump inhibitor
Monitor I&O, watch for decreased urine output and fluid retention
Monitor for rapid rises in BUN and creatinine (important)
Recommend drug for short periods and in low doses only to minimize side effects
Monitor for MI and CVA, give low dose aspirin to prevent events

A

NSAIDS (COX-2) - Interventions

103
Q

give aspirin a day if at risk for embolic event if they can tolerate it

give with food, water, milk if having GI issues

avoid alcohol

persistent GI irriation or problems, call their doctor

kidney: change in urine output, fluid retention, call the doctor

and S&S of MI or CVA, call doctor and ambulance

A

NSAIDS (COX-2) – Patient Instructions

104
Q

Pregnancy Risk Category D (3rd trimester) – can cause premature closure of ductus arteriosus
Severe hepatic or renal impairment
Children < 19 year
GI bleeding, anemia
Pain from coronary bypass grafting
Allergy to sulfa, sulfonamides, or ______

A

NSAIDS (COX-2) - Contraindications
celecoxib

105
Q

For mild to moderate pain
Great alternative to aspirin
Antipyretic drug of choice for adolescents and children with flu syndromes
Avoids risk of Reyes syndrome associated with aspirin use
doesn’t have antiplatelet effects

blocks peripheral pain by inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

has zero anti-inflammatory properties

fewer side effects with ______

doesn’t affect coagulation: does not have cardiovascular side effects

Does not cause GI isrritation

A

Acetaminophen - Indications

106
Q

Blocks peripheral pain by inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
Lowers febrile body temperatures by acting on the hypothalamus
No anti-inflammatory properties (Not NSAID)
Fewer side effects
No interference with coagulation

A

Acetaminophen – Expected Pharmacologic Actions

107
Q

Liver damage (overdose)
Hypertension (with daily use, particularly women)

A

Acetaminophen –Adverse Effects

108
Q

Monitor for early symptoms of overdose/poisoning
Prepare to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst, Acetadote) orally or IV to counteract overdose and reduce liver injury
Monitor blood pressure in patients, particularly in women who take acetaminophen regularly

A

Acetaminophen - Interventions

109
Q

Potentially lethal if overdosed
Results in hepatic toxicity
Acute hepatotoxicity can usually be reversed with acetylcysteine
Long term hepatotoxicity is likely to be permanent
Maximum daily dosage for healthy adults = 3g (some will still say 4g? FDA (2014))

A

Toxicity and Management of Acetaminophen Overdose

110
Q

Given orally, IV or rectally
Do not administer > 3g/day to adults and children over 12 years of age
Infants and children should be given the manufacturers recommended dose based on age
Caution patients about OTC
will not prevent a heart attack or stroke

A

Acetaminophen - Administration

111
Q

Doesn’t cause gastric irritation or bleeding
Won’t relieve inflammation
Won’t prevent heart attack or stroke
Watch OTC labels (do not exceed 3g/day)
Don’t exceed recommended dose or duration
Avoid alcoholic beverages
Report abdominal discomfort, N/V, sweating, diarrhea immediately
Check BP often (especially in women)
Watch dosages and measure carefully, especially for children

A

Patient Teaching: Acetaminophen

112
Q

Drug allergy
Severe liver disease
Genetic disease = glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Alcoholism

A

Acetaminophen Contraindications

113
Q

Moderate to moderately severe pain

A

Centrally Acting Nonopioid - Indications

114
Q

What are the uricosurics?

A

allopurinol
febuxostat
probenecid

115
Q

allopurinol

A

uricosurics

116
Q

febuxostat

A

uricosurics

117
Q

probenecid

A

uricosurics

118
Q

Inhibit Xanthine oxidase (XO) from converting hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid
Block formation of uric acid

A

Allopurinol and Febuxastat

119
Q

Inhibits tubular reabsorption of uric acid in kidneys
Promotes excretion of uric acid

A

Probenecid

120
Q

Hypersensitivity syndrome (fever, rash, eosinophilia, liver and kidney dysfunction)
GI disturbances (N/V, diarrhea)
Drowsiness, headache, vertigo
Agranulocytosis (decreased white blood cells), aplastic anemia, bone marrow depression
Metallic taste in mouth ( causes people to not want to eat)
Cataracts (with drugs therapy > 3 years)

A

Uricosurics – Adverse Effects

121
Q

Monitor for symptoms of hypersensitivity syndrome
If fever or rash develop stop medication immediately and check liver and kidney function
Monitor for worsening GI effects
For vomiting, ensure adequate hydration
Give drug after meals
Monitor patients for drowsiness or vertigo – fall risk
Monitor CBC, liver, kidney function tests and uric acid levels
Monitor for unusual taste sensations
Recommend regular eye exams

A

Uricosurics – Interventions

122
Q

Oral or IV
Monitor uric acid levels (initially, every 1-2 weeks to establish appropriate dosage)
Obtain baseline CBC and test liver and kidney function and monitor periodically
Allow crushing tablets, mixing them with food or liquid
Administer IV using recommended dilution and infuse over 30-60 minutes
Make sure patient drinks at least 3L per day

A

Uricosurics – Administration

123
Q

report : fever, rash, abdominal pain

3 liters of fluid or more per day

avoid driving or activities that require mental alertness until they know if med is going to cause drowsiness

if causes a headache, try OTC medicine

report bleeding, easy bruising, sore throat, aemias, bone marrow suppression

protect their eyes from sunlight bc theyre at higher risk for cataracts

need to report blurred vision and see eye doctor regularly

contraindication: hypersensitive to medicine itself

renal impairment

A

Uricosurics – Patient Instructions

124
Q

Hypersensitivity to Allopurinol
Avoid in patients with renal impairment

A

Uricosurics – Contraindications

125
Q

Symptomatic relief of pain and inflammation in both inflammatory and autoimmune disorders
Management of many skin disorders, allergic reactions
Delay of progression of some disorders like rheumatoid arthritis
Prevention of organ rejection
Adjunctive therapy for some cancers

A

Glucocorticoids - Indications

126
Q

______ Inhibit synthesis of prostaglandins which decreases pain
They decrease permeability of capillaries which decreases swelling
ihibit lysosomal activity which decreases inflammation
decrease production of lymphocytes which decreases immune response

A

Glucoccorticoids

127
Q

Suppression of adrenal function
Hyperglycemia
Myopathy
Peptic ulcer disease, GI discomfort
Infection
Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
Fat redistribution
Bone loss
Cataracts

A

glucocorticoids

128
Q

Increase doses during stress or illness
Monitor blood glucose especially in diabetic patients
Adjust dosages of insulin and oral hypoglycemics as needed
Observe for GI bleeding
Protect GI, give med with food and recommend not using an NSAID
Observe for signs of infection
Regular eye exams

A

Glucocorticoids - Interventions

129
Q

Orally, IV, IM, SC, topically, intranasally, inhalation
Short term – largest dose on first day and taper for 8 days
Long term – (10 or more days) take in the morning and use alternate dosing
Taper dose slowly when symptoms are controlled to establish lowest possible dose
Give supplemental doses as needed for times of stress

A

Glucocorticoids - Administration

130
Q

Systemic fungal infection
cataracts

A

Glucocorticoids - Contraindications

131
Q

Reduces nervousness, excitability, irritability
Does not cause sleep

A

sedative

132
Q

Causes sleep, drowsiness

A

hypnotic

133
Q

______ work by causing relaxation, know that it calms and relaxes the central nervous system.

A

Benzos

134
Q

______ can cause addiction, less likely to be given routinely because it causes people to become addicted to the med

A

Benzos

135
Q

Anxiety
Insomnia
Seizure disorders
Muscle spasm
Alcohol withdrawal (blood pressure/autonomic hyperactivity)
Preoperative relief of anxiety

A

benzodiazepines therapeutic uses

136
Q

CNS Depression
Respiratory depression
Abuse potential

Paradoxical effects: Rebound anxiety effects, insomnia, excitation

A

adverse effects associated with benzodiazepines

137
Q

Most of these meds are not good for elderly people because of high fall risk and the potential for the drug to build up in their system, psychosis, glaucoma, kidney dysfunction, alcohol intoxication (causes system to slow down, resp depression), pregnancy

_____ ARE NOT TO BE GIVEN LONG TERM, PRIMARILY SUPPOSE TO BE GIVEN SHORT TERM

if patient is taking a _____ and have to stop taking it, you have to taper off, you cant just stop cold turkey, they will have withdrawal

Avoid activities that require focus and attention, the meds make you groggy and less able to pay attention, they shouldn’t be driving

A

BENZOS

138
Q

Psychosis
Acute narrow angle glaucoma
Renal (kidney) or hepatic (liver) dysfunction
Acute alcohol intoxication
Pregnancy

A

contraindications with benzos

139
Q

Longer the use, higher the dose
the shorter acting, the more likely
occurs most often 4-5 days after discontinuation

A

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

140
Q

Early signs:
Lack of coordination, lightheaded
Slowed or slurred speech
Other cognitive impairments (drowsy, anterograde amnesia, confusion)
Late signs:
Poor judgment
Slowed breathing
Slowed heart rate
Confusion
Lethargy

A

CNS depression
Benzos cause CnS depression if you take too many

141
Q

if you give an IV infusion of a ______ it can cause cardiac arrest if you give it too fast, IV administration has to be given very slow

A

benzo

142
Q

Short‑term use: anxiety, insomnia, tremors and dizziness
Long‑term use: delirium, paranoia, panic, hypertension and seizures
Reduce dose by 10-25% every 1-2 weeks over 4-16 weeks
Monitor client carefully when tapering

A

benzodiazepine withdrawal

143
Q

Altered Mental Status
Bradycardia (Heart rate below 60)
Unable to walk or coordinate movements (ataxia)
Speech garbled or slurred
Experience hallucinations or memory loss
Decreased respirations

A

s/s of toxicity from benzos

144
Q

Oral overdose: Drowsiness, lethargy, excessive sedation/coma, respiratory depression, reduced muscle coordination and confusion
Intravenous overdose: Life-threatening reactions, profound hypotension, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest
General treatment measures
Oral: Gastric lavage, activated charcoal, saline cathartic, and dialysis

A

benzo acute toxicity/treatment

145
Q

_________competes with the same receptor as benzodiazepines
Approved for benzodiazepine overdose and for reversing the effects of benzodiazepines after general anesthesia
Quick acting: 1-2 minutes, Peak 6-10 minutes
Short duration: repeated dosing needed
Dose depends on the problem: suspected overdose? Reversal of conscious sedation or Anesthesia? Look at unbound

A

Flumazenil

146
Q

Flumazenil only works on _____

A

BENZOS

147
Q

Sedative-hypnotic
Most widely used hypnotic
Short-term management of insomnia
Side effects: Daytime drowsiness and dizziness
Administer just before bedtime
CR is approved long term

A

Zolpidem [Ambien], Zolpidem Tartrate [Ambien CR
Benzo like drugs

148
Q

Many take these at bedtime

Do some funky things to elderly, increased confusion (increased falls)

Most widely used hypnotic

for short term management of insomnia

CR is approved for long term

ADMIN JUST BEFORE BEDTIME, they can have daytime drowsiness or dizziness, may be groggy in the mornings, the Controlled release has two different drug reservoirs one has meds to have go to sleep and the other has stuff to help them stay asleep

A

Zolpidem
Zolpidem tartrate

149
Q

Chronic anxiety
Gradual onset
Must be tapered
Take with food to increase drug effectiveness

______ can be used to manage chronic anxiety, is not a Benzo, don’t need to know specifically how it works

Benzos work very quickly, but ______ doesn’t work that way it takes weeks for it to start affecting your anxiety to the point that you would actually know it

______ is now for acute anxiety, the med works over a period of time

_______ needs to be tapered off

if they take it with food, it increases the effectiveness of med

A

Buspirone

150
Q

New class of hypnotics, pyrazolopyrimidines
Short-term management of insomnia
Prolonged use does not appear to cause tolerance
Most common side effects: Headache, nausea, drowsiness, dizziness, myalgia, and abdominal pain

A

zaleplon

151
Q

For treatment of insomnia
No limitation on how long it can be used
Most common adverse effect: Bitter aftertaste
Other common side effects: Headache, somnolence, dizziness, and dry mouth

A

eszopiclone

152
Q

Herbal product
Not subject to FDA regulation
Don’t combine with other CNS depressants
May increase bleeding risks with anticoagulants

A

melatonin

153
Q

Causes tolerance and dependence
High abuse potential
Multiple drug interactions
Powerful respiratory depressants that can be fatal with overdose
Rapid onset and brief duration
CNS depression
Cardiovascular effects

A

barbiturates

154
Q

not for home use, they’ll be given in the hospital,

______: cause tolerance and dependence, high abuse potential, many drugs interactions, powerful respiratory depressants, given rapidly and have short duration, CNS depression, not recommended for sleep aid, can cause heart attack, increased risk of fall, deprive people of REM sleep

A

Barbiturates

155
Q

Acute Toxicity Symptoms
Respiratory depression
Coma
Pinpoint pupils
Treatment
Removal of ______ from the body (activated charcoal)
Maintenance of an adequate oxygen supply to the brain
Maintain body heat
Support blood pressure
No specific antidote

A

barbiturate

156
Q

sedative hypnotic
onset 30 minutes
works for both difficulty falling asleep or difficulty staying asleep
may alter digoxin levels
grapefruit juice increases blood levels and sedation
may cause complex sleep behaviors –sleep walking, eating, or driving

A

suvorexant - sedative hypnotic (non Benzo)

157
Q

Multiple seizures occur with no recovery between them.
Result: hypotension, hypoxia, brain damage, and death
True medical emergency
Basic Nursing Care

A

status epilepticus

158
Q

what is the drug of choice for status epilepticus?

A

IV lorazepam

159
Q

if no IV access, what drug is used for status epilepticus?

A

rectal diazepam or nasal midazolam

160
Q

Slows down movement of electrolytes
Sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium
Decreases the speed of nerve impulses
Cell membranes become less excitable
Increases the seizure threshold
Limits the spread of seizures to different areas
Some types enhance GABA effects

A

antiepileptic/convulsant medications MOA

161
Q

Control or prevent seizures
Maintain a reasonable quality of life
70% are seizure free with just one medication
30% are more complex, may require several medications

A

goals of therapy for antiepileptics

162
Q

Highly individualized medication regimen
Life-long medication management
Serum drug concentrations must be monitored
Therapeutic drug range is flexible

A

nursing actions for antiepileptic drugs

163
Q

What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/ml

164
Q

Adverse effects: gingival hyperplasia, acne, hirsutism, Dilantin facies, and osteoporosis
CNS effects: Sedation, blurred vision, cognitive impairment
Decreases synthesis of Vitamin D
Skin and Cardiovascular problems
Administer at slow IV rate (no faster than 50 mg/min) and ONLY with normal saline

A

adverse effects of phenytoin

165
Q

Usually well tolerated, effective at treating seizures, and relatively inexpensive.
Half life allows for twice or even once a day dosing which encourage adherence.

A

advantages of phenytoin

166
Q

Intravenous (IV) administration
Very irritating to veins
Slow IV directly into a large vein through a large-gauge (20-gauge or larger) venous catheter
Diluted in normal saline (NS) for IV infusion
Filter must be used
Saline flush

A

phenytoin administration

167
Q

Inject IV form slowly
No more than 50mg/min
In older adults give 25mg/min
Therapeutic ______ level 10-20 mcg/mL
Lower if malnourished or renal failure
STRICT ADHERENCE to medication regimen
Do not abruptly d/c = withdrawal symptoms, may trigger seizures
Highly protein bound

A

Phenytoin nursing notes

168
Q

What is the therapeutic level for carbamazepine?

A

4-12 mcg/ml

169
Q

May need to increase dose after 2 months due to autoinduction
CNS effects (vision problems, vertigo)
Risk for fluid overload – a nursing diagnosis
Blood cell problems (leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia)
Skin disorders from mild to severe

A

carbamazepine

170
Q

What is the WBC normal range?

A

4500-1100

171
Q

What is the platelets normal range?

A

150000-450000

172
Q

What antiepileptic drug is associated with thrombocytopenia/blood disorders?

A

carbamazepine
(also valproic acid causes thrombocytopenia)

173
Q

White blood cells (WBC) – 4500-11000 WBC/microliter
Complete blood cell count
Platelets – 150000-450000 platelets/microliter
Do NOT mix with other oral drug suspensions
Avoid grapefruit with ______
Sore throat, fever, easy bruising (signs of bone marrow suppression

A

carbamazepine

174
Q

What is the therapeutic level of valproic acid?

A

50-100 mcg/ml

175
Q

General GI problems (N/V, indigestion)
Hepatotoxicity  Hepatitis
Decreased appetite, abdominal pain, jaundice, n/v, liver function labs
Pancreatitis
Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, changes in amylase levels
CNS effects from hyperammonemia
Thrombocytopenia
Bruising, bleeding, prolong the bleeding times, decrease the platelets

A

valproic acid

176
Q

Labs to monitor
Hepatotoxicity: Liver function labs (next slide)
Pancreatitis: Changes in amylase levels (Normal: 30 to 110 units per liter (U/L))
Hyperammonemia: Normal Ammonia range: 15 to 45 µ/dL (11 to 32 µmol/L)
Thrombocytopenia: Platelets normal range: 150,000 to 450,000

Administer slowly
Dilute the IV form in at least 50ml of NS 0.9%
Do not mix with other drugs in solution

A

nursing notes for valproic acid

177
Q

Contraindication:
Pregnancy*
Bone marrow suppression (Gabapentin)
Within 14 days of taking a MAOI (Gabapentin)

A

contraindications with newer antiepileptics

178
Q

CNS effects
Suicidal ideation – worse with Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
Skin disorders – mild to life threatening
Multiorgan hypersensitivity reaction with Oxcarbazepine

A

adverse effects of all newer AEDs

179
Q

Headache, dizziness, nausea
Rash  Multi-organ hypersensitivity
Fever with some or all of the following: lymphadenopathy, hepatorenal syndrome, hematologic abnormalities

A

oxcarbazepine specific adverse reactions

180
Q

Contraindications: drug allergy
Common side effects: relatively minor CNS and GI symptoms
Adverse effects:
Aseptic meningitis: headache, fever, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, rash, sensitivity to light
Steven-Johnson syndrome
Thrombocytopenia
Changes in seizure

A

side effect/adverse effects associated with lamotrigine

181
Q

Adverse effects: similar CNS and GI symptoms as previous meds, increased bleeding/bruising/nosebleeds (thrombocytopenia), changes in menstrual cycle, osteoporosis/rickets

A

topiramate adverse effects (similar to all of the newer AEDs I think)

182
Q

Loss of pleasure or interest (anhedonia)
Insomnia (or sometimes hypersomnia)
Anorexia (or sometimes hyperphagia)
Mental slowing and loss of concentration
Feelings of guilt, worthlessness, and helplessness
Thoughts of death and suicide/overt suicidal behavior
Symptoms must be present most of the day, nearly every day, for at least 2 weeks

A

clinical features of depression

183
Q

Symptoms resolve slowly
Initial responses develop after 1 to 3 weeks
Maximal responses may not be seen for 12 weeks
Failure when taken 1 month without success

A

considerations for all antidepressants

184
Q

May increase suicidal tendencies during early treatment
Patients should be observed closely for the following:
Suicidality
Worsening mood
Changes in behavior
Precautions
Prescriptions should be written for the smallest number of doses consistent with good patient management
Dosing of inpatients should be directly observed

A

considerations for all antidepressants

185
Q

Begins 2 to 72 hours after treatment
Altered mental status (agitation, confusion, disorientation, anxiety, hallucinations, and poor concentration)
Incoordination, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, excessive sweating, tremor, and fever
Deaths have occurred
resolves spontaneously after discontinuing the drug
Risk increased by concurrent use of MAOIs and other drugs

A

serotonin syndrome (associated with SSRIs)

186
Q

Early symptoms:
Nausea, diaphoresis, tremor, nervousness, *Suicidal ideation (SI)

Later symptoms:
Sexual dysfunction, weight fluctuation, *Serotonin Syndrome, GI bleed, hyponatremia, bruxism, orthostatichypotension

A

SSRI adverse effects

187
Q

monitor platelets
elderly or renal impaired may need lower dose
can take 1-3 weeks to work
sodium labs esp if taking diuretic
may need to d/c in pregnancy or 3rd trimester
do not d/c abruptly - withdrawal symptoms

A

nursing notes for SSRIs

188
Q

Caution:
Serotonin Syndrome* (SSRIs, TCAs)Hx of bipolar disorder, mania, seizure disorder, recent MI, or interstitial lung disease

Contraindication:
MAOIs within 14 days Renal OR Hepatic impairmentEspecially with substantial alcohol use/abuse

A

SNRI caution/contraindication

189
Q

Fatigue/drowsiness or paradoxical effects (insomnia, anxiety, HTN, tachycardia)
Decreased appetite or weight loss, nausea
Sexual dysfunction
Hyponatremia (duloxetine)
Respiratory Issues (venlafaxine)

A

SNRI adverse effects

190
Q

Serotonin Syndrome Hepatotoxicity
Seizures Suicidal ideation

A

life threatening SNRI adverse effects

191
Q

Do not abruptly d/c – withdrawal symptoms
Take in the morning if interrupts sleep
Take with food if it causes upset stomach
Avoid MAOIs
Obtain baseline sodium levels for older adult clients taking diuretics, monitor periodically- normal range is 135 and 145 milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L)

A

SNRIs

192
Q

MAOIs within 14 days Renal OR Hepatic impairmentEspecially with substantial alcohol use/abuse

A

contraindications for SNRIs

193
Q

Fatigue/drowsiness or paradoxical effects (insomnia, anxiety, HTN, tachycardia)
Decreased appetite or weight loss, nausea
Sexual dysfunction
Hyponatremia (duloxetine)
Respiratory Issues (venlafaxine)

A

SNRI adverse effects

194
Q
  • original first generation antidepressants
    How it Works:
    Blocks reuptake of norepinephrine & serotonin
    Corrects imbalance

Used For:
Treatment resistant Depression
Painful neuropathy

A

TCA antidepressants

195
Q

Contraindication
Use of MAOIs
Seizures
Recent MI

A

contraindications for TCAs

196
Q

Constipation
Urinary retention
Blurred vision, photophobia
Dry mouth
Tachycardia
Feel hot, dry
Confusion

Cardiovascular effects
Cardiac conduction problems (dysrhythmias)
Hypotension

S/S of Toxicity/Overdose
Cardiac dysrhythmias, mental confusion, agitation followed byseizures, coma, and possible death

A

Adverse effects with TCAs

197
Q

Therapeutic effects within 2-3 weeks
Full therapeutic effects can take 2-3 months
How to manage side effects (anticholinergic)
Assess for suicidal ideation, weight gain, and orthostatic hypotension

A

Nurse notes for TCAs

198
Q

How it Works:
Inhibits MAO enzyme
Enzyme no longer can metabolize (many) neurotransmitters

A

Method of action for MAOIs

199
Q

Caution
Large amounts of caffeine, cough/cold meds, diet pills (stimulants)
Diabetes and seizure disorders
Moderate levels of ______ foods: Yogurt, bouillon, non aged cheese (cottage cheese, mozzarella), bananas, red wine, fava beans

A

Tyramine
MAOIs interact with tyramine

200
Q

Contraindication
Heart failure, cardiovascular and cerebral vascular disease, and severe renal insufficiency
MANY medications and OTC (ex. Meperidine)
High levels of tyramine rich foods: Aged cheese (blue, swiss, cheddar), smoked/pickled/aged meats, yeasts, etc.

A

Contraindications with MAOIs, also tyramine

201
Q

CNS stimulation
Blood pressure changes
Orthostatic HYPOtension
Or HYPERtensive crisis

Hypertensive Crisis
Severe hypertension, severe headache, nausea, increased apical heart rate, chest pain
Most common in “Non-selective” ______

Serotonin Syndrome

A

MAOIs adverse effects

202
Q

Goal: Protect brain and heart
Game Plan: Eliminate the ______
How: Phentolamine (Regitine) or nifedipine SL (Procardia)
Monitor cardiac function
Continuous monitoring not just an EKG
Monitor and support respiratory function

A

MAOI

203
Q

d/c 14 days before anesthetics and other antidepressants

can take several weeks before therapeutic effects are seen
educate patient about tyramine rich foods andinteractions with many medicaitons

A

MAOI nursing notes

204
Q

Reduce pain sensation at level of peripheral nerves

A

local anesthetics

205
Q

Block sodium channels and conduction

A

local anesthetics

206
Q

Block sodium channels and conduction

A

local anesthetics

207
Q

Topical anesthetic
Indications: postherpetic neuralgia/before IV start
Left in place no longer than 12 hours
Minimal adverse effects

Local/Regional Anesthetic
Duration 60-75 minutes
Max dose 4 mg/kg or 7 mg/kg with epinephrine
Toxic IV dose: 250 mg

A

xylocaine

208
Q

Advantages
Effective alternative to GA
Avoids polypharmacy
Patient can remain awake
Early drink/feed

     Disadvantages Limited scope Higher failure rate Time constraints Anticoagulants Risk of neural injury
A

local anesthetics

209
Q

_____ is often administered with the local anesthetic (lidocaine with ______ for example)
_____ also decreases local blood loss

A

Epinephrine

210
Q

Damage to the nerve
Persistent numbness, weakness, or pain
Rare
Risk of systemic toxicity
Other complications: infection, swelling, or bruising (hematoma) at the injection site.
Spinal administration only: “spinal headache

A

Risks for regional anesthetics

211
Q
  • blocks a nerve or small bundle of nerves
A

Peripheral regional

212
Q

Blocks large area- causes loss of sensation of pain and paralysis to the area.
Not as risky as general- doesn’t cause loss of consciousness.

A

Regional Central

213
Q

Doesn’t cause complete loss of consciousness
Does normally cause respiratory arrest
Increasing due to more office/outpatient surgery centers
Allows patient to relax; reduces anxiety- airway intact; can follow commands, more rapid recovery than general anesthesis.
Most commonly used= short acting benzodiazepine- midazolam (versed) usually given with short acting opoid (fentanyl or morphine

A

moderate Sedation or procedural sedation

214
Q

doesn’t do anything for pain, just used for sedation

if a patient routinely dirnks alcohol, you might need a higher dose

have to be certified to monitor patient in conscious sedation

doesn’t do anything for pain, just used for sedation

if a patient routinely dirnks alcohol, you might need a higher dose

have to be certified to monitor patient in conscious sedation

A

Midazolam (Versed)

215
Q

Apnea, respiratory depression, post-op respiratory depression
Tends to reduce BP and peripheral vascular resistance more than Diazepam

A

Adverse reactions associated with midazolam

216
Q

 Aids intubation
 Surgery of long duration
 Reduces maintenance dose of anesthetics agents

A

Muscle relaxants

217
Q

Prevent nerve transmission in skeletal and smooth muscle leading to paralysis
In conjunction with general anesthesia- diaphragm paralysis & intercostal muscles
High alert drugs- sound alike drugs= restricted access to these drugs

A

Neuromuscular blocking drugs

218
Q

Reversible, unconscious state
Physical assessment findings: amnesia, analgesia, depression of reflexes, muscle relaxation, person is unconscious
_______ usually uses a combination of IV drugs and inhaled gasses

A

General anesthesia

219
Q

Given IV

Often inhaled anesthetics used as well
Adjunct drugs are used

A

Parenteral anesthetics

220
Q

Advantages
No absolute contra-indication
Quick to establish
Never fails to work

Disadvantages
Poly-pharmacy
Effects many systems
Post operative N/V

A

General Antethesia

221
Q

Extubate once awake
Check of gag reflex
Always have suctioning equipment available

A

Nursing notes for general anesthesia