Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

How should primary PTX be managed?

A

if the rim of air is < 2cm and the patient is not short of breath then discharge should be considered
otherwise, aspiration should be attempted
if this fails (defined as > 2 cm or still short of breath) then a chest drain should be inserted
patients should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes - the lifetime risk of developing a pneumothorax in healthy smoking men is around 10% compared with around 0.1% in non-smoking men

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2
Q

How should secondary PTX be managed?

A

Recommendations include:
if the patient is > 50 years old and the rim of air is > 2cm and/or the patient is short of breath then a chest drain should be inserted.
otherwise aspiration should be attempted if the rim of air is between 1-2cm. If aspiration fails (i.e. pneumothorax is still greater then 1cm) a chest drain should be inserted. All patients should be admitted for at least 24 hours
if the pneumothorax is less the 1cm then the BTS guidelines suggest giving oxygen and admitting for 24 hours
regarding scuba diving, the BTS guidelines state: ‘Diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.’

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3
Q

Normal PaCO2 in an asthma attack is…

A

Life-threatening. A normal PaCO2 in an acute asthma attack indicates exhaustion and should, therefore, be classified as life-threatening

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4
Q

What is the Centor Criteria? What is it used for?

A

The Centor criteria* are as follows:

  • presence of tonsillar exudate
  • tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis
  • history of fever
  • absence of cough

If 3 or more of the 4 Centor criteria are present there is a 40-60% chance the sore throat is caused by Group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus

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5
Q

What is a major feature of aspergillosis?

A

Eosinophilia is a feature of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

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6
Q

Define mild, moderate and severe asthma in terms of PEF

A

Mild - 50-75%
Moderate - 33-50%
Severe - <33%

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7
Q

Up to how many salbutamol puffs can you take in an asthma exacerbation (and how often)

A

10 puffs (every 30-60 seconds)

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8
Q

Which questionnaire can be used to assess the severity of a patient’s asthma?

A

Asthma Control Test (ACT)

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9
Q

Definition of COPD

A

FEV1/FVC <0.7 post-bronchodilator - non reversible

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10
Q

Oxygen saturations in a CO2 retainer

A

88-92%

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11
Q

Class. Tiotropium

A

LAMA

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12
Q

Class. Ipratropium

A

SAMA

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13
Q

Class. Salmeterol

A

LABA

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14
Q

Which questionnaire can be used to assess the severity of a patient’s COPD?

A

COPD Assessment Test (CAT)

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15
Q

Diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Initial: Epworth Sleepiness Scale
11-12 mild
13-15 moderate
16-24 severe

> 10 refer for polysomnography

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16
Q

Definition of pneumonia

A

signs and symptoms of respiratory infection with CXR confirmation

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17
Q

Definition of Hospital Acquired Pneumonia

A

hospital in the last 10 days or in-patient for >5 days plus signs and symptoms of respiratory infection with CXR confirmation

18
Q

Severe CAP treatment

A

IV Co-amoxiclav and PO Doxycycline (or IV Levofloxacin as monotherapy for penicillin allergic)

19
Q

Severe HAP treatment

A

IV Amoxicillin and Gentamicin (or Co-trimoxazole and Gentamicin if penicillin allergic) –> step down to PO Co-trimoxazole

20
Q

Non Severe Aspiration Pneumonia

A

PO Amoxicillin and Metronidazole (or PO Doxycycline and Metronidazole for penicillin allergic)

21
Q

Severe Aspiration Pneumonia

A

IV Amoxicillin + Metronidazole + Gentamicin (If penicillin allergic swap amox with PO Doxycycline or IV Clarithromycin) –> Step down to PO Amoxicillin and metronidazole (swap amoxicillin with doxycycline if penicillin allergic)

22
Q

Causes of bronchiolitis

A

RSV, metapneumovirus (2001)

23
Q

Causes of croup

A

parainfluenza type 1 or 3

24
Q

pH of infective pleural tap

25
Cause of epiglottitis
HiB
26
"thumbprint" sign of lateral neck XR
Epiglottitis
27
Management of epiglottitis
Ceftriaxone
28
Which influenza causes pandemics ?
A
29
Which influenza is associated with annual outbreaks?
B
30
What is the cut-off for a normal FEV1/FVC?
70%
31
Which ectopic hormone production is associated with Squamous NSCLC?
PTH
32
Which ectopic hormone production is associated with SCLC?
ACTH -> Cushings | ADH -> SIADH
33
Diagnosis of PE?
Clinical suspicion -> Wells Score ≥4 -> positive D-dimer -> CTPA
34
Acute management of Tension PTX
Large bore needle in 2nd ICS MCL
35
Causes of upper zone lung fibrosis
``` CHARTS C - Coal worker's pneumoconiosis H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis A - Ankylosing spondylitis R - Radiation T - Tuberculosis S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis ```
36
High anion gap metabolic acidosis
Organic acid formed ``` Lactic acidosis (Salicyclates, Shock) Ketoacidosis (DKA) Formic acidosis (Methanol poisoning) Oxalic acid (Ethylene glycol poisoning) ```
37
Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Loss of bicarbonates; hyperchloraemic acidosis (Chloride reabsorbed in kidneys to compensate the loss of bicarbonate) - Diarrhoea - Renal Tubular Acidosis
38
COPD severity categorised by FEV1
Stage 1: >80% with mild symptoms Stage 2: 50-79% (mod) Stage 3: 30-49% (sev) Stage 4: <30% (v.sev)
39
Features of Kaposi's Sarcoma
Associated with HIV + HHV-8 Purple-black papules on skin or GI mucosa or respiratory tracy (causing haemoptysis) Radiotherapy and resection
40
Acute exacerbation of COPD
Oral Prednisolone 5 days | + Oral Amoxicillin 7 days if has purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia
41
Features of mycoplasma pneumonia
Worsening flu-like illness Dry cough Erythema Multiforme
42
Which do you treat first? | Hypomagnesiumia or Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesemia may exacerbate hypokalemia, by increasing distal tubule potassium secretion. Treating low magnesium first can then make low potassium easier to handle