Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine - Finals > Renal and Urology > Flashcards

Renal and Urology Flashcards

1
Q

Medications to avoid in AKI

A

ACEI (ARBs), NSAIDs, Gentamicin, Diuretics, Metformin,, Lithium, Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Medications that are safe in AKI

A

Paracetamol, Warfarin, Statins, Aspirin (at a cardioprotective dose of 75mg od), Clopidogrel, Beta-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which antibiotic used for pyelonephritis can lower seizure threshold?

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Daily maintenance fluid consists of …

A

20-30ml/kg of Water
1mmol/kg of Na/K/Cl
50-100g of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fluid of choice for resuscitation

A

Crystalloid - Hartmann’s unless risk of hyperkalaemia

Excess saline risks hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis - Saline should be used in Rhabdomyolysis (due to risk of hyperkalaemia

Colloid fluids are useful in sepsis to keep fluid in vessels e.g. human albumin 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Blood samples needed for a massive haemorrhage

A

FBC, Coag screen, Fibrinogen, Crossmatch, U&E, Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What will blood banks issue in a massive haemorrhage? What is given if further products are needed?

A

Initially:
4 units of RBCs
4 units of FFP
1 unit of platelets

Ongoing bleeding:
RBC and FFP at a ratio of 2:1 (or 1:1 in a trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If emergency resuscitation - which blood group is used?

A

O -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the risk of correcting sodium balance too quickly?

A

Osmotic pontine demyelination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which type of nephron produces concentrated urine?

A

Juxtamedullary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which type of cell produces renin?

A

Juxtaglomerular/Granular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which compound most accurately assesses GFR?

A

Inulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which compound can be used to calculate renal flow?

A

Para-amino Hippuric Acid (PHA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is most glucose reabsorbed in the nephron?

A

Proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does Atrial Natruretic Peptide do?

A

Released in response to atrial stretch. Increases Na excretion at kidney to reduce water reabsorption. Therefore, BP and fluid levels drop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nephrotoxic drugs (CANTDOG-M)

A 
Contrast 
ACEI
NSAIDs
Trimethoprim (decreases creatinine clearance)
Diuretics
Omeprazole (PPIs)
Gentamicin
-
Metformin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define AKI

A

Abrupt decline in kidney function characterised by decreased urine (<0.5ml/kg/hr) and increased creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define stages of AKI

A

1 - 1-1.9x baseline creatinine (urine <0.5ml/kg/hr for >6 hours)
2 - 2-2.9x baseline creatinine (urine <0.5ml/kg/hr for >12 hours)
3 - >3x baseline creatinine or requiring dialysis (urine <0.3ml/kg/hr for >24 hours or anuria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diagnosis of CKD

A

2 samples of GFR <20ml/min 90 days apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Staging of CKD

A 
Stages: 
1 - GFR >90 + kidney damage
2 - GFR 60-90 + kidney damage 
3A - GFR 45-60
3B - GFR 30-45
4 - GFR 15-30
5- GFR <15 or Renal replacement therapy

Albumin Creatinine Ratio (ACR
A1- <3 (Normal)
A2 - 3-30
A3 - >30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Management of CKD

A

ACEI, Sprinolactone, Atorvastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common cause of pyelonephritis

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Risk factors of Urothelial Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

Schistosomiasis
Long-term catheterisation
Smoking
Calculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common glomerulonephritis in children

A

Minimal change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Management of minimal change glomerulonephritis
steroids | cyclophosphamide
26
EM changes seen in minimal change glomerulonephritis
fusion of podocyte feet processes
27
Important findings in membranous glomeulonephritis
anti-PLA2r Associated with malignancy Thickened basement membrane on silver stain Spike and dome appearance
28
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis
steroids
29
Which type of glomerulonephritis is associated with PWIDS and HIV
Focal Segmental
30
Glomerulonephritis and haematuria in the young
Post-streptococcal and IgA
31
Screening for diabetic nephropathy
Albumin:Creatinine ratio
32
Management of epididymitis
Ofloxacin 400mg daily for two weeks
33
How long does a AV fistual take to mature before beginning dialysis?
6 weeks Tunnelled venous catheter can be used immediately (but for short periods due to risk of infection)
34
Which malignant renal cancer is most common in children?
Nephroblastoma (Wilm's)
35
Which malignant renal cancer is most common in adults?
Renal Cell Carcinoma
36
Classical triad of renal cell carcinoma
Haematuria Loin Pain Renal Mass
37
Cannonball metastases
Renal Cell Carcinoma --> Lung
38
Management of BPH
a1 blockers e.g. Tamsulosin 5alpha reductase inhibitors e.g. Finastride TURP
39
Commonest germ cell tumour of the testes
Seminoma
40
What UTI is associated with catheters?
Pseudomanas auriginosa
41
Which UTI type predisposes triple phosphate stones?
Proteus
42
UTI with burnt chocolate smell
Proteus
43
Kass' criteria for UTI diagnosis
>10^5 organisms/ml - high possibility ~10^4 organisms/ml - repeat or contamination <10^3 organisms/ml - low possibility
44
Treatment of Pseudomonas UTI
Ciprofloxacin
45
UTI management in pregnancy
Urine culture done routinely at first antenatal visit First line: Nitrofurantoin Second-line: Amocicillin or Cefalexin Test for cure Trimethoprim - teratogenic in first trimester Nitrofurantoin - avoid in late pregnancy
46
Buzzword. CTKUB - Periureteric fat stranding
indicates recent stone passage, if a ureteric calculus is not present.
47
CKD 1 Diagnosis
Greater than 90 ml/min, with some sign of kidney damage on other tests (if all the kidney tests* are normal, there is no CKD)
48
CKD 2 Diagnosis
60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage (if kidney tests* are normal, there is no CKD)
49
CKD 3a Diagnosis
45-59 ml/min, a moderate reduction in kidney function
50
CKD 3b Diagnosis
30-44 ml/min, a moderate reduction in kidney function
51
CKD 4 Diagnosis
15-29 ml/min, a severe reduction in kidney function
52
CKD 5 Diagnosis
Less than 15 ml/min, established kidney failure - dialysis or a kidney transplant may be needed
53
Hyperkalaemia + Very high Urea + Slightly raised creatinine
Dehydration
54
Which haematological condition is associated with cranial diabetes insipidus?
Hereditary Haemchromatosis
55
Causes of cranial diabetes insipidus
``` idiopathic post head injury pituitary surgery craniopharyngiomas histiocytosis X DIDMOAD is the association of cranial Diabetes Insipidus, Diabetes Mellitus, Optic Atrophy and Deafness (also known as Wolfram's syndrome) haemochromatosis ```
56
Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
genetic: the more common form affects the vasopression (ADH) receptor, the less common form results from a mutation in the gene that encodes the aquaporin 2 channel electrolytes: hypercalcaemia, hypokalaemia lithium lithium desensitizes the kidney's ability to respond to ADH in the collecting ducts demeclocycline tubulo-interstitial disease: obstruction, sickle-cell, pyelonephritis
57
Pain relief in palliative care patients that have renal impairment
Buprenorphine or Fentanyl
58
Causes of hyponatraemia with urinary sodium >20nmol/L
Hypovolaemic: - diuretics e.g. thiazides or loops - renal failure - addison's Euvolaemic: - SIADH (urine osmolality >500mmol/kg) - hypothyroidism
59
Causes of hyponatraemia with urinary sodium <20nmol/L
Extra-Renal Sodium Depletion: - diarrhoea, vomiting, sweating - burns - adenoma of the rectum Water Excess - secondary hyperaldosteronism (heart failure and liver cirrhosis) - nephrotic syndrome - IV dextrose - psychogenic polydipsia
60
Management of hyponatraemia
Mild - fluid restrict (<800ml) + loop diuretics Mod - hypertonic saline over few hours + mild Severe - bolus of hypertonic saline until symptomatic relief ± convivaptan if no hypovolaemic)
61
Drug causes of SIADH
Remember: SS CC TV Sulfonylureas esp. Glipizide SSRIs Carbamazepine Cyclophosphamide TCAs Vincristine
62
Which drug used in SIADH reduces response to ADH in collecting tubule?
Demeclocycline
63
UTI symptoms
``` dysuria frequency urgency smelly/cloudy urine abdominal/back pain low-grade fever malaise confusion in the elderly ```
64
When should a urine culture be sent off in UTI?
``` Resistant Complicated >65 yo Haematuria Pregnant ```
65
Men with UTI
7 days immediate-start antibiotics First-line: Nitrofurantoin or Trimethoprim Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection (UTI)
66
Most common cause of UTI in children
E coli followed by proteus and pseudomonas
67
Risk factors to developing UTI in childhood
``` Vesicoureteric reflux - 35% Infrequent voiding Hurried micturition Obstruction due to constipation Neuropathic bladder Poor hygiene (especially females) ```
68
Which gender experience more UTI in <3 years old?
Males, from then it is females
69
Management of UTI in <3 months
Refer immediately to paediatrician
70
Features of Goodpastures/GBM disease
- Anti-GBM - Small vessel vasculitis - Pulmonary haemorrhage - Rapidly Progressive GN (haematuria and proteinuria) - Men (2:1) 20-30 or 60-70 - HLA-DR2
71
Management of Goodpastures/GBM disease
Plasma Exchange Steroids Cyclophosphamide

Medicine - Finals (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions