Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aa. Year 1 Questions > Respiratory > Flashcards

Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What cause a left shift of O2 Hb curve (increased affinity)?

A 
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Decreased Acid
Decreased 2,3-DPG
Decreased temp.
Foetal Haemoglobin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes a right shift of O2 Hb curve(decreased affinity)?

A 
Increased CADET
Increased CO2
Increased Acid
Increased 2,3-DPG
Increased Exercise
Increased Temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is pulmonary shunting?

A

Alveoli is poorly ventilated but is well perfused.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does hypoxaemia cause hyperventilation?

A

By direct effect on the carotid and aortic body chemoreceptors (Peripheral Chemoreceptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which cells produce surfactant?

A

Type II Pneumocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the Bohr effect refer to?

A

Loss of affinity of Hb for O2 when [H+] is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the somatic mesoderm give rise to?

A

Parietal Pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does visceral mesoderm give rise to?

A

Visceral Pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What respiratory group is involved in inspiration?

A

Dorsal Respiratory Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What respiratory group is involved in expiration?

A

Ventral Respiratory Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At which vertebral disc level does the oesophagus pass through the diagram?

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of surfactant?

A

Prevent fluid accumulation

Decrease surface tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many nasal conchae are there?

A

3, superior, middle and inferior conchae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the function of the nasal conchae?

A

To increase the surface area and increase the humidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the nasal conchae lined by?

A

Ciliated mucous-secreting respiratory mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What number cranial nerve is the olfactory nerve?

A

CN I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does the inferior constrictor muscle originate from?

A

Thyroid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At which vertebral level is the cricoid cartilage?

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where does the trachea bifurcate?

A

T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which bronchus is shorter?

A

The right bronchus is shorter and more vertical than the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At which vertebral level does the inferior vena cava pass through the diaphragm?

A

T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At what gestation does the foramen caecum regress?

A

Week 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the mechanism of action on Aminophylline?

A

Binds to adenosine receptors and blocks adenosine mediated bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is lung complience?

A

A measure of the ease of expansion of the lungs and the thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What determines lung compliance?

A

Pulmonary volume and elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is palpable on the anterior chest wall, just inferior to the acromioclavicular joint?

A

Coracoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where do we listen to auscultate the lung apex?

A

Sternal (medial) end of the clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What interleukin does TH2 produce to activate B cells?

A

IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are goblet cells?

A

Glandular, modified simple columnar epithelial cells that produce mucins, the main component of mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the inspiratory capacity?

A

The sum of the inspiratory reserve volume and the tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the inspiratory reserve volume?

A

The max volume that can be inhaled from the end-respiratory level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the total lung capacity?

A

Max volume of air present in the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the vital capacity?

A

Volume of air breathed out after the deepest inhalation of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Idiopathic inflammation of alveoli with thickening of alveolar walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is sarcoidosis?

A

Non-caseating granuloma formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What hormone can squamous carcinomas produce?

A

PTH resulting in increased Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common causative pathogen of bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory syncitial virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe small cell lung cancer…

A

Normally central location and metastasise early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe squamous cell lung cancer…

A

Most common in smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe lymphoma…

A

Lymph node involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe mesothelioma…

A

Has to have previous exposure to asbestos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe adenocarcinoma…

A

The mass is peripheral or in the mid zone and most common LC in non-smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the treatment for non-severe hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

PO Amoxicillin and Metronidazole (Co-trimoxazole if penicillin allergic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the treatment for severe hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

IV Amoxicillin, Metronidazole and Gentamicin (IV Co-trimoxazole if penicillin allergic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Tiotropium?

A

LAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are side effects of Rifampicin?

A

Red Secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are side effects of Isoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathy in a sock and glove distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are side effects of Pyrazinamide?

A

Arthralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are side effects of Ethambutol?

A

Optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What antibiotic should be used for Klebsiella Pneumonia?

A

Cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What antibiotic should be used to treat Staphlococcal Pneumonia?

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What antibiotic should be used to treat Pneumocystis Jiroveci?

A

Co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What antibiotic should be used to treat Legionella Pneumophilia?

A

Levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What antibiotic should be used to treat Chlamydophilia Pneumoniae?

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are signs of a severe asthma attack?

A 
Heart rate above 110bpm 
PEFR<50%
Cant complete sentences
Resp. Rate >25 bpm
Confusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are signs of a life threatening asthma attack?

A 
Heart rate below 40bpm
Exhaustion
PEFR <33%
Confusion
Cyanosis
Silent Chest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the most likely causes of community aquired pneumonia?

A

Step. Pneumoniae
H. Influenza
Moraxella cattarrhallis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What do we use to treat atypical pneumoniae?

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the most likely causes of hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Pseudomonas aerginosa
Staph aureus
Legionella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where is aspiration pneumonia most likely to occur?

A

Right middle lobe

Right lower lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are primary symptoms of pneumonia?

A

Chest pain
Dyspnoea - acute
Cough - haempotysis? Productivity?
Systemic symptoms - fever, night sweats, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What do we prescribe for mild pneumonia?

A

Oral amoxicillin/macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What do we prescribe for moderate pneumonia?

A

Dual antibiotic therapy - amoxicillin and clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What do we prescribe for sever pneumonia?

A

IV co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is polycytheamia?

A

Increased number of RBC

66
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is asthma?

A

Type 1 Hypersensitivity

67
Q

What does FeNO measure?

A

Inflammation cells show airway inflammation

68
Q

Where is adenocarcinoma located?

A

Periphery

69
Q

Where is squamous cell carcinoma located?

A

Located centrally, close to the hilum

70
Q

What are the paraneoplastic effects of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Ectopic Parathyroid hormone

causing hypercalcaemia

71
Q

Where are large cell cancers located?

A

Periphery

72
Q

What are the paraneoplastic effects of large cell carcinoma?

A

Increased B-HCG hormone

73
Q

Where are small cell LC located?

A

Centrally around the hilum

74
Q

What causes hoarseness in lung cancer?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

75
Q

What is horners syndrome?

A

Pancoast tumour pressing on sympathetic ganglion - miosis, anhidrosis, ptosis

76
Q

What type of lung cancer produces the most paraneoplastic effects?

A

Small cell lung cancer

77
Q

What is pleurodhesis?

A

Talc is put in the pleural space to keep the pleura stuck together

78
Q

What is a normal ABG for a pregnant woman?

A

Compensated respiratory alkalosis due to increased tidal volume causing decreased carbon dioxide.

79
Q

What is the most anterior structure in the lung root?

A

Phrenic nerve

80
Q

What is the most posterior structure in the lung root?

A

Vagus nerve

81
Q

What is the function of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator?

A

Cyclic AMP regulated chlorine channel

82
Q

What is the name of the space between the vocal cords?

A

Rima Glottidis

83
Q

What is a common sign of COPD on CXR?

A

Flattened diaphragm

84
Q

What pathogen id the main cause of bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

85
Q

What is the vertebral location of the trachea?

A

C6 - T5

86
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is commonly associated with asthma?

A

Type 1 Hypersensitivity

87
Q

What type of cells does adenocarcinoma affect?

A

Mucus-Secreting Cells

88
Q

What type of cells does small cell lung cancer affect?

A

APUD cells

89
Q

What are APUD cells?

A

A type of neuroendocrine cell found in the lung

90
Q

What is a pancoast tumour?

A

This is a tumour of the pulmonary apex

91
Q

What are paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancers?

A 
Hypercalcaemia
SIADH
Cushing's Syndrome
Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy
92
Q

What vertebral level is the larynx located?

A

C3-C6

93
Q

What vertebral level is the thyroid cartilage located?

A

C5

94
Q

What vertebral level is the pulmomary hilum located?

A

T5-T7

95
Q

What are the three paired cartilaginous segments of the larynx?

A

Artenoid, Corniculate and Cuniform

96
Q

What are the three single cartilaginous segments of the larynx?

A

Thyroid, Cricoid and Epiglottic

97
Q

What protein can a patient have a deficiency in that would normally protect that lungs from neutrophil elastase?

A

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin

98
Q

What is emphysema?

A

A form of chronic obstructive airways disease in which damage to the alveolar walls causes many alveoli to fuse forming large air sacs called bullae.

99
Q

What is the piriform recess?

A

A recess on either side of the laryngeal oriface

100
Q

What is the most common causative organism of aspiration pneumonia?

A

Klebsiella pneumonia - red currant jelly like sputum

101
Q

What is the causitive organism for meliodosis?

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

102
Q

What is an opportunistic fungus that can infect immunocompromised patients?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

103
Q

What is the oxygen cascade (high to low pressure)?

A 
Atmospheric air
Humidification in upper airways
Mixing with dead space gas
Alveolar gas mixing
Right to left shunting
Capillary diffusion
Mitochondria
(slight increase again) Venous blood
104
Q

Why is the O2 Hb curve sigmoid shape?

A

There is co-operativity between the four subunits of the Hb molecule. as O2 is bound, this leads to an increased affinity hence creating the sigmoid curve

105
Q

What is the equation for tissue oxygen delivery?

A

Arterial oxygen content ((1.34 x Hb x SpO2) + (PaO2 x 0.23)) x cardiac output

106
Q

How is the majority of CO2 in the blood carried?

A

In bicarbonate

107
Q

What is the haldane effect?

A

The increased affinity of deoxygenated haemoglobin for carbon dioxide

108
Q

What is the bohr effect?

A

The reduced affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen in high carbon dioxide environments

109
Q

What do the peripheral chemoreceptors detect?

A

pO2
pH
CO2

110
Q

What do the central chemoreceptors detect?

A

pH

CO2

111
Q

What cannot be measured by spirometry?

A

Residual volume
Functional residual capacity
Total lung capacity

112
Q

What is the equation for lung compliance?

A

Change in volume/change in pressure

113
Q

What is la place’s law?

A

The pressure inside an inflated alveoli is inversely proportional to the radius as long as the surface tension is presumed to change little.

114
Q

How is the pressure within the alveoli kept the same no matter the size?

A

Smaller alveoli have more surfactant to reduce the surface tension

115
Q

What lobes are most commonly affected by aspiration pneumonia?

A

Right middle and lower lobes

116
Q

Why may males with cystic fibrosis be infertile?

A

Absence of a Vas Deferens

117
Q

What are the three centre that control different aspects of respiration?

A

Upper pons
Lower pons
Medulla oblongata

118
Q

What is normal intracranial pressure?

A

<15mm Hg

119
Q

Which nerve supplies the percardium?

A

Phrenic Nerve

120
Q

What chromosome is the CFTR gene on?

A

Chromosome 7

121
Q

What are the common sites of lung tumour metastases?

A

Mediastinum
Hilar Lymph Nodes
Lung Pleura
Heart etc.

122
Q

What type of cell does SCLC arise from?

A

Small, immature neuroendocrine cells

123
Q

What is the condition when SCLC secretes inappropriate hormones?

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome

124
Q

What type of cancer causes cushings syndrome?

A

SCLC

125
Q

What do mesothelial plaques express?

A

Calretinin that regulates calcium in the cell

126
Q

What is a pleural effusion?

A

This is the presence of excess fluid in the pleural space

127
Q

What medications could be given to patients with pleural effusion as a result of heart failure?

A

Diuretics and sodium restriction.

128
Q

At what level does the aorta pass through the diaphragm?

A

T12

129
Q

What passes through aortic opening of the diaphragm?

A

Aorta
Azygous vein
Thoracic duct

130
Q

What level does the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm?

A

T10

131
Q

What passes through the oseophageal opening of the diaphragm?

A

Left Gastric Veins
Vagal Trunk
Oesophagus

132
Q

What nerve lies anterior to the root of the lung?

A

Phrenic Nerve

133
Q

What is the most common pathogen causing bronchiectasis exacerbation?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae

134
Q

What is the most common pathogen causing bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Viras

135
Q

What is the most common pathogen causing croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

136
Q

What is a ghon focus?

A

This is a granuloma formation in TB with caseous necrosis in the centre

137
Q

What is the treatment of active TB?

A 
RIPE
Rifampicin
Isoniazide
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
138
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is tuberculosis?

A

Type 4

139
Q

What type of epithelium lines the trachea?

A

Pseudo-stratified ciliated columnar cells and goblet cells

140
Q

What is the muscle between the oesophagus and the trachea?

A

Trachealis muscle

141
Q

What is the most common cystic fibrosis mutation?

A

Delta F508 mutation of the CFTR gene

142
Q

What is the newborn screening test for cystic fibrosis?

A

Pancreatic Enzyme IRT

143
Q

What is used for the diagnosis of PE?

A

CT Pulmonary Angiogram

144
Q

What is stridor?

A

Predominantly inspiratory wheeze due to obstruction of the large airways

145
Q

What is the transmural pressure gradient?

A

The difference between intrathoracic pressure and alveolar pressure

146
Q

What two factors allow the lungs to adhere to the chest wall?

A

Transmural Pressure Gradient

Intrapleural Fluid Cohesiveness

147
Q

Why is alveolar ventilation lower than pulmonary ventilation?

A

Due to anatomical dead space

148
Q

What is alveolar dead space?

A

The sum total of all the alveoli that have little or no blood flowing through their adjacent pulmonary capillaries

149
Q

What are the paraneoplastic features associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

ADH
ACTH
Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

150
Q

What are the paraneoplastic features of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Parathyroid Hormone Relates Protein Release
Clubbing
Hypertrophic Pulmonary Osteoarthropathy
Hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH

151
Q

What are the paraneoplastic features of adenocarcinoma?

A

Gynaecomastia

Hypertrophic Pulmonary Osteoarthropathy

152
Q

What organism is associated with red-currant jelly sputum?

A

Klebsiella Pneumoniae

153
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in immunocomporomised individuals?

A

Pneumoncyctis jiroveci

154
Q

Invasion into which nerve causes hoarseness?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

155
Q

What is the test for tuberculosis?

A

Interferon gamma release assay

156
Q

What occurs in the embryonic phase of lung development?

A

Respiratory diverticulum forms, initial-branching to give lungs, lobes and segments

157
Q

What happens in the pseudoglandular phase?

A

Branching of terminal bronchioles

158
Q

What happens in the canalicular phase?

A

Terminal bronchioles → respiratory bronchioles → alveolar ducts

159
Q

What happens in the saccular phase?

A

Terminal sacs form and capillaries establish close contact

160
Q

What happens in the alveolar phase?

A

Alveoli mature.

161
Q

What is closed when the vocal cords addict?

A

Glottis

Aa. Year 1 Questions (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions