Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aa. Year 1 Questions > Gastrointestinal Pathology > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary tumours of the small bowel?

A

Lymphomas
Neuroendocrine tumours
Carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does coeliac disease do to the epithelia of the small intestine?

A

It results in a loss of villi due to attack from intraepithelial lymphocytes. This reduces the absorptive capacity of the small intestine and makes it non-functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What can be injected into an area of upper GI haemorrhage?

A

Adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the causes of diarrhoea?

A 
Infectious Agents - viruses, bacteria etc.
Chronic disease
Toxins
Drugs
Psychological factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the complications of diarrhoea?

A

Dehydration - Na+ and H2O loss
Metabolic Acidosis - HCO3- loss
Hypokalaemia - K+ loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment of severe acute diarrhoea?

A

Rehydration therapy
Anti-infective agents, if appropriate
Non-antimicrobial antidiarrhoeal agents, symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pathophysiology of diarrhoea?

A

Impaired NaCl absorption
Presence of non or poorly absorbable solutes in the lumen
Hypermolility of the GI tract
Excessive secretion e.g. cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are oesophageal varicies?

A

Abnormal dilated veins in the oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is portal hypertension?

A

Increased blood pressure within the portal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Crohn’s Disease?

A

A chronic inflammatory and ulcerating condition of the GI tract That can affect any part of the alimentary canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the causes of crohns disease?

A

Genetic susceptibility
Luminal microbial antigens and adjuvants
Immune response
Environmental triggers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is sepsis?

A

The systemic inflammatory response to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is perotinits?

A

Leakage of bowel contents into the perotineal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the progression of sepsis?

A

SIRS - Sepsis - Septic Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

This is inflammation of the lining of the stomach, small and large intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What amount of diarrhoea suggests infection of the small bowel?

A

Large amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What amount of bacteria suggests infection of the large bowel?

A

Small amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most important virulent factor of shigella?

A

Shiga toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four types of shigella sp.?

A

S. dysenteriae
S. flexneri
S. boydii
S. sonnei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the action of the shiga toxin?

A

Binds to receptors on renal cells, RBC and other
Inhibit protein synthesis
Cause cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common pathogen causing diarrhoea?

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

It the development of out-pouches in the wall of the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

It is inflammation due to diverticular disease?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a true diverticula?

A

This is where the diverticula involves all the layers of the intestinal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a false diverticula?

A

This is a herniation of the mucosal and submucosal layers through the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an epithelial cell abnormality associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Paneth cell metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the cause of achalasia?

A

A failure of the myenteric plexus to allow for the relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are mallory bodies?

A

These are bundles of damaged intermediate filaments seen in alcoholic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is gastroparesis?

A

This is a partial paralysis of the stomach that prevents it from opening and releasing food into the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

This is an adverse clinical and biochemical response to feeding in severely malnourished patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the cause of refeeding syndrome?

A

Potentially fatal shifts in electrolytes and disturbances in organ function and metabolic regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is haemocromatosis?

A

This is where the body absorbs excessive amounts of iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where in the body does iron accumulate?

A 
Parenchymal organs
Liver
Pancreas
Heart
Pituitary Gland
Joints
Skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does conjugated bilirubin levels increase in the blood of patients with cholestasis?

A

The accumulation of bilirubin leads to an increase in pressure in the liver. This causes the bilirubin to diffuse across the tight junctions of the hepatocytes and into the blood. This hence causes jaundice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is puruitis?

A

Sever itchy and irritated skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What causes pruitis in patients with cholangitis?

A

Increased bile salts and bile acids diffuses through the tight junctions of the liver hepatocytes. This causes the levels to increase in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why is unconjugated bilirubin not exreted from the body?

A

It is lipid soluble therefore cannot dissolve in water to be excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is alpha-1-antitrysin deficiency?

A

This is an autosomal recessive condition where there is limited or no alpha-1-antitrypsin produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is alpha-1-antitrypsin?

A

This is an enzyme that is responsible for the inhibition of elastase. Elastase is a protease that breaks down protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

This is an autosomal recessive condition causing a disorder of copper metabolism. This leads to the accumulation of copper in the brain and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What protozoa is responsible for amoebiasis?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are leukoplakia?

A

Flat, raised white plaques in the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What mediates the response in eosinophilic oesophagi’s?

A

Th2 Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What cytokines are released in eosinophilic oesophagi’s?

A

Il-5 and Il-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What do the epithelial cells of the oesophagus release in eosinophilic oesophagitis?

A

Eotaxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is eotaxin?

A

This is a chemokine that can recruit eosinophils from the blood to the oesophageal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the two types of gallstones?

A

Cholesterol and pigment stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How are cholesterol stones formed?

A

An imbalance in the ratio of cholesterol to bile salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How are pigment stones formed?

A

Excess bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are complications of c.diff infection?

A

Toxic megacolon
Bowel perforation
Renal failure
Sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does the hepatitis B surface antigen suggest?

A

The patient is infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does the hepatitis B surface antibody suggest?

A

The patient has immunity either from previous infection or via vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does the hepatitis B core IgM antibody suggest?

A

They have acute infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does the hepatitis B e antigen suggest?

A

They have acute infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does the hepatitis B core DNA suggest?

A

Indicator of viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the anti-hep B core IgG antibody suggest?

A

Indicates previous or ongoing infection with hep B in an undefined time frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the most common types of acute viral hepatitis?

A

A, B and E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the most common types of chronic viral hepatitis?

A

C and sometimes B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How is hepatitis A spread?

A

Faecal-oral transmission, associated with poor sanitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do we test for hepatitis A?

A

HAV IgM antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How is hepatitis B transmitted?

A

Blood-borne, sexually transmitted and vertical transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is phase 1 of chronic HBV infection?

A

Immune Tolerant
Highly Infections
High levels of viral replication
Low levels of inflammation within the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is phase 2 of chronic HBV infection?

A

Immune reactive

Moderate severe inflammation within the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is phase 3 of chronic HBV infection?

A

Inactive carrier
Low levels of inflammation within the liver
Low risk of cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is phase 4 of chronic HBV infection?

A

Virus abolishes HBeAg expression
Moderate severe inflammation within the liver
Low rate of spontaneous remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is phase 5 of chronic HBV infections?

A

Occult infection

Low HBV DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How is hepatitis C spread?

A

Mainly blood borne spread, sexual transmission is rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How do we test for HCV?

A

HCV IgG indicates virus at some point

HCV RNA detected by PCR indicates active infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is a polyp?

A

A protrusion above the epithelial surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of a colonic polyp?

A

Adenoma
Serrated polyp
Polypoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How does fibrosis occur in chronic liver disease?

A

The hepatic stellate cells are activated and attract inflammatory cells causing inflammation and fibrogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the disease progression of NAFLD?

A

Normal
Steatosis
NASH
CIrrhosis

73
Q

Which antimicrobial antibody is associated with primary biliary cholangitis?

A

M2

74
Q

What is type 1 autoimmune hepatitis?

A

This is common in adults/ It is associated with antinuclear or anti smooth muscle antibodies. Soluble liver antigen is a marker of more severe disease

75
Q

What is type 2 autoimmune hepatitis?

A

This is more common in children and young adults. It is characterised by the liver kidney microsomal antibody.

76
Q

What is haemochromatosis?

A

Genetic iron overload syndrome

77
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Autoimmune destructive disease of large and medium sized bile ducts

78
Q

What does wilson’s disease cause?

A

Loss of function of caeruloplasmin that is a copper binding protein.

79
Q

What is Budd-Chiari Syndrome?

A

Thrombosis of hepatic veins

80
Q

What are the four portocaval anastomosis sites of varices?

A

Oesophagus and gastric venous plexus
Umbilical vein
Retroperotineal collateral vessels
Haemorrhoidal venous plexus (anus)

81
Q

What is compensated cirrhosis?

A

Clinically normal, incidental finding. There is compensation therefore the patient appears normal

82
Q

What is decompensated cirrhosis?

A

There is no compensation. Liver failure

83
Q

What are the drugs that can commonly cause liver disease?

A

Antibiotics - Co-amoxiclav, Flucloxacillin
NSAID
Statins
Anabolic Steroids - fat burners, protein powders
Paracetamol/paracetamol containing products

84
Q

What is the most common liver tumour?

A

Haemangioma

85
Q

What is pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas that may be acute or chronic

86
Q

What activates the zymogens when they enter the duodenum?

A

Enteropeptidases

87
Q

What is grey turners sign?

A

Bruising on the flanks of a patient

88
Q

What is cullens sign?

A

Bruising around the umbilical region of the patient

89
Q

What is the most common cause of physiological neonatal jaundice?

A

Hepatic immaturity

90
Q

What are cholesterol gallstones?

A

These form due to an imbalance in the ratio of cholesterol to bile salts that disrupts micelle formation

91
Q

What are features of liver failure?

A

Changes in Bilirubin and albumin
Ascites
Hepatic Encepalopathy

92
Q

What are the cholestatic LFTs?

A

ALP

GGT

93
Q

What are the hepatocellular LFTs?

A

Alanine Amino Transferase

94
Q

What are the exocrine tumours of the pancreas?

A

Adenocarcinoma

95
Q

What are the endocrine tumours of the pancreas?

A

Gastrinoma
Insulinoma
Glucagonoma

96
Q

What is the main tumour marker for pancreatic cancer?

A

CA 19-9

97
Q

What causes acute cholecystitis?

A

A gallstone is lodged in the cystic duct or common bile duct

98
Q

What is the treatment for GORD?

A

PPI

99
Q

What type of cancer can Barrett’s oesophagus develop into?

A

Adenocarcinoma.

100
Q

What change does Barrett’s oesophagus cause to the mucosa of the oesophagus?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium → columnar epithelial cells.

101
Q

How do we treat acute crohn’s disease?

A

Glucocorticoid - prednisolone, iv hydrocortisone

102
Q

What is maintenance treatment for crohns deserve?

A

Immunosuppression - azathioprines, 6-mp

Biologics - Anti-TNF (INfliximab)

103
Q

What are the indications for surgery in patients with crohns disease?

A 
Stenosis causing obstruction
Enterocutaneous fistulas
Intra-abdominal fistulas
Abscesses
Bleeding
Free perforation
104
Q

What is a common cause of colovesical fistula?

A

Diverticular Disease

105
Q

How do we remember the radiological features of crohns disease?

A 
CROHNS
C - Cobblestone appearance
R - Rosethorn Ulcers
O - Obstruction of Bowel
H - Hyperplastic Mesenenteric Lymph Nodes
N - Narrowing of the intestinal lumer
S - Skip Leasions
106
Q

What is Ulcerative colitis that only affects the rectum?

A

Proctitis

107
Q

What is ulcerative colitis that affects the rectum and descending colon?

A

Left-sided colitis

108
Q

What is ulcerative colitis that affects the rectum and entire large intestine?

A

Pancolitis

109
Q

What is the stages of treatment of ulcerative colitis?

A 
5 SIBS
5 - ASA
Steroids - Prednisolone, Budesomide
Immunosuppression - Azathioprine, 6-MU
Biologics - Anti TNF (Infliximab)
Surgery
110
Q

What is a common radiological feature of ulcerative colitis?

A

Loss of haustration of the descending colon

111
Q

Which antibody is associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

P-ANCA

112
Q

What is the difference between gastritis and gastroenteritis?

A

Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining.

Gastroenteritis is inflammation of the stomach and the bowels

113
Q

What are the causes of peptic ulcers?

A

H. Pylori
NSAIDs
Caffiene
Spicy Foods

114
Q

What are peptic ulcers?

A

A break in the superficial epithelial cells that extends down to the muscularis mucosa.

115
Q

What can chronic gastritis lead to?

A

Epithelial metaplasia
Mucosal Atrophy
Gland Loss

116
Q

What is secretory diarrhoea?

A

The intestinal mucosa secretes large amounts of salt as a result of stimulation of the CFTR causing increased chloride ions to be secreted into the bowel. This causes water to follow ions into the bowel lumen.

117
Q

What causes the CFTR to excrete chloride ions?

A

cAMP

118
Q

What is hyper-motility diarrhoea?

A

Disturbances in intestinal motility in which luminal contents progress too rapidly down the tract to allow sufficient contact time.

119
Q

What is osmotic diarrhoea?

A

Water retention results when solutes fail to be broken down and thus cannot be absorbed. The osmotic gradient is reversed and water is attracted into the bowel.

120
Q

Name a cause of osmotic diarrhoea?

A

Glucose/Galactose Malabsorption Syndrome

121
Q

What is inflammatory diarrhoea?

A

The inflammatory process causes increase in capillary permeability, migration of the immune cells into the bowel wall and pain

122
Q

What line separates the inner and outer anus?

A

Dentate Line

123
Q

What are haemorrhoids?

A

Enlarged vascular cushions in the lower rectum and anal canal

124
Q

What is a Nissen Fundoplication?

A

Treatment of GORD where the fundus is wrapped around the LOS to cause it to close

125
Q

What is intusussception?

A

When there is invagination of one portion of bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, most commonly in the ileo-caecal region

126
Q

What type of immune cells mediate hepatitis?

A

CD8+ T cells

127
Q

What type of hepatitis virus can only infect people who have already been infected with hepatitis B?

A

Hepatitis D

128
Q

What do the MHC II molecules of people with coeliac disease encode?

A

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8

129
Q

What is the action of H. Pylori?

A

They colonise the gastric mucosa and release adhesions that help them to adhere to gastric foveolar cells and proteases that damage mucosal cells.

130
Q

What is a histological sign of H . Pylori infection?

A

Partial replacement of the gastric mucosal epithelium by intestinal metaplasia

131
Q

What is the disease progression of NAFLD?

A

Steatosis
Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis
Fibrosis
Cirrhosis

132
Q

What is primary biliary cholangitis?

A

T cells attack the lining of the bile ducts within the

133
Q

What two drugs are used to treat primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Urso Deoxycholic Acid

Obeticholic Acid

134
Q

Which genes are responsible for haemochromatosis?

A

C282Y or H63D mutations on the HFE gene

135
Q

What is the name for the process of depositing iron into the organs and tissues?

A

Haemosiderosis

136
Q

Which genes are responsible for wilsons disease?

A

ATB7B gene

137
Q

Which genes are responsible for alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

SERPINA 1 mutations

138
Q

At what points do the portal and systemic venous systems anastomose?

A

Inferior portion of the oesophagus
Superior portion of the anal canal
Round ligament of the liver (umbilical cord)

139
Q

What pressure accounts for portal hypertension?

A

> 12 mmHg

140
Q

Which drug can be used to treat hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Rifaxamin

Lactulose

141
Q

What is the best way to measure liver failure?

A

Prothrombin time

142
Q

Which clotting factor is characteristically increased in acute hepatic failure?

A

Factor VIII

143
Q

What is the difference between a true and false diverticula?

A

True - involves all the layers of the bowel

False - not all of the layers of the bowel are involved

144
Q

What site is most commonly affected in ischaemic colitis?

A

Splenic flexure

145
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis?

A

Viral Infection - Rotavirus, Norovirus, Adenovirus

146
Q

What is enteric fever?

A

Typhoid fever

147
Q

What are the causes of enteric fever?

A

Salmonella Typhi

Salmonella Paratyphi

148
Q

What is the causative pathogen of amoebiasis?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

149
Q

What is the causative pathogen for giardiasis?

A

Giardia intestinalis (lamiblia)

150
Q

What is a risk factor for femoral hernia?

A

Female gender

151
Q

Where does anal fissure occur?

A

Distal to the pectinate line

152
Q

Where is the most common site of an anal fissure?

A

Posterior midline

153
Q

What blood test reveals the synthetic function of the liver?

A

Albumin

154
Q

What blood test reveals the excretory function of the liver?

A

Bilirubin

155
Q

What can be found at the base of a peptic ulcer?

A

Granulation tissue

156
Q

What is intestinal thumb-prinitng a sign of on AXR?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

157
Q

What is achalasia?

A

A failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax

158
Q

What is the blood supply to a meckels diverticulum?

A

Vitelline artery

159
Q

What is zollinger-ellison syndrome?

A

A syndrome of excessive gastrin secretion from a gastrin secreting tumour

160
Q

What is the difference between a pseudocyst and a cyst?

A

A cyst is surrounded by epithelial tissue

A pseudocyst is surrounded by granulation tissue

161
Q

What is the most common complication of ERCP?

A

Acute pancreatitis

162
Q

Where is the most common site for intusussception?

A

Ileocolic

163
Q

What does murphys sign suggest?

A

Acute cholecystitis

164
Q

What is the treatment for primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

165
Q

Which type of inguinal hernia reappears after reducing if the deep inguinal ring is occluded?

A

Direct inguinal hernia

166
Q

What is the treatment for acute variceal bleeding?

A

Terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics

167
Q

When is a sengstaken-blakemore tube used?

A

When haemostasis isnt achieved by endoscopy

168
Q

What can clostridium difficile cause on colonoscopy?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis - yellow plaques that can be easily dislodged

169
Q

What is the most common causative pathogen of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

E.Coli

170
Q

What does the pathogen giardia lamblia cause?

A

Fat malabsorption

171
Q

What supplies the tail of the pancreas?

A

Splenic Artery

172
Q

What supplies the head of the pancreas?

A

Pancreaticoduodenal artery

173
Q

What is the most common location of the appendix?

A

Retrocaecal

174
Q

What test is used to establish vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Schilling Test

175
Q

What is the most common cause of food poisoning?

A

Campylobacter

176
Q

What pathogen is found on reheated rice?

A

Bacillus cereus -bacilli look like rice:)

177
Q

What antibody is positive in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Anti-Mitochondrial Antibody

178
Q

What antibody is positive in autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Anti-Smooth Muscle Antibody and Anti-Nuclear Antibody

179
Q

What antibody is positive in Coeliac Disease?

A

Anti-Endomysial Antibody

Aa. Year 1 Questions (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions