Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Brachycephalic dogs are predisposed to what type of airway disorder?

A

Obstructive disease- brachycephalic dogs often have stenotic nares, everted laryngeal saccules, elongated soft palates, and hypoplastic tracheas, all of which cause obstructions to airflow and increase the work of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Increased FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) can cause all of the following except which?

A

Decreased oxygen affinity for haemoglobin - FiO2 does not change oxygen affinity for haemoglobin (and we didn’t talk about this in lecture either)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following describes an expected effect of methadone administration?

A

Decreased RR (respiratory rate) - opioids all have the potential to decrease respiratory rate and tidal volume which causes hypoventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or False: Watching the patient’s chest and reservior bag move can give you an accurate assessment of ventilation.

A

False - ventilation can only be accurately assessed by measuring either the CO2 in the blood (PaCO2) or in the expired gases (EtCO2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The ABCs in an emergency patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Major Body Assessment

A

Resp rate, resp pattern, resp effort, pulmonary auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normal breathing– RR? Pattern? RE?

A

Normal RE: inspiration is active but effortless, expiration is passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pulmonary Auscultation

A

** If animal is breathing harder (exercise)– louder

Lung sounds

are generated by

turbulence

of air

within the airways: varies with flow rate

“Normal” depends on respiratory rate

Lung sounds are more harsh during tachypnoea

Distribution:

dorsoventral

, symmetry

Lung sounds

are generated by

turbulence

of air

within the airways: varies with flow rate

“Normal” depends on respiratory rate

Lung sounds are more harsh during tachypnoea

Distribution:

dorsoventral

, symmetry

Harsh, crackles, wheezes

Crackles caused by fluid or alveoli opening and closing

Wheezes caused by narrow airways

Absent lung sounds = pleural space disease; no flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Signs of dyspnoea

A

Recognizing Dyspnoea

Tachypnoea

Increased abdominal movement

Paradoxical abdominal movement

Extended neck (orthopnoea)

Abducted elbows (orthopnoea)

Open mouth breathing

Cyanosis

Lateral recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The possible anatomic origin of dyspnoea

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If increased inspiratory effort think what? expiratory effort increased? Inspiratory and expiratory effort increased?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DDX upper airway problem in dogs and cats?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What will you notice in a dynamic v. fixed obstruction in the upper airway? Where is the problem with stertor? Stridor?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Paradoxical Abdominal Movement DDX

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Small Airway Respiratory issues DDX

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What would you hear with a pulmonary parenchyma problem?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DDX of pulmonary parenchyma

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DDX for pleural space disease

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What will you see with pleural space disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chest wall and diaphragm DDX

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chest wall and diaphragm look alikes

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dyspnoea after trauma

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most dyspnoeic cats will have one of three things?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pattern recognition with old toy and small-breed dogs? Brachycephalic breeds? Old large-breed dogs?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pattern recognition with resp. puppies?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diagnostics with respiratory problems

A

Risk vs. benefit analysis

Upper airway exam

Thoracic radiographs

Arterial blood gas analysis

CT scan

Tracheoscopy/bronchoscopy

Airway cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When should you quantify hypoxaemia? How do you? Cyanosis that is life threatening?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Arterial blood gas– normal? Venous blood gas– normal? O2 saturation of Hb?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Sampling of arterial blood gas

A

* Percutaneous: femoral, dorsal metatarsal, brachial, auricular arteries

* Catheter: dorsal metatarsal

* Pre-heparinized syringe: liquid sodium heparin, lyophilized lithium heparin, use minimum volumes of heparin (heparin reduces measured PCO2)

* Remove all air bubbles– exposure to air changes PO2/PCO2

* Cap with an airtight seal

* Place on ice– glycolysis produces CO2, aerobic metabolism reduces PO2

* Analyze within 2 hours

* May adjust for body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Normal value of arterial blood gas? When it falls below <75 mmHg then what? < 55 mmHg, then what?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pulse oximetry– normal? Acceptable?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where do you put a pulse oximeter?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Summary of emergency response to respiratory issue

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Oxygen delivery– what does it depend on?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the oxygen cascade?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mechanisms of hypoxaemia

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is flow by oxygen?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Using an oxygen mask

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Using nasal oxygen catheters?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Oxygen hood?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Use of an oxygen cage

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do you assess if oxygen supplementation is working?

A
  1. Assess for improvement of respiratory distress
  2. Pulse oximetry SpO2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is going on in hypoventilation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Causes of hypoventilation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

General Management of an Upper Airway Obstruction

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Using sedation to manage US obstruction? Pros?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Using sedation to manage US obstruction? Precautions?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Management of a UA obstruction…. reduction of body temperature?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Intubation in the management of UA obstruction

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pulmonary gas exchange and mechanisms of impairment?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Saturating Hb with oxygen

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What happens with pulmonary gas exchange with flooded or collapsed alveolus?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Causes of venous admixture

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Management of respiratory presentation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What if this doesn’t work?

A

Intubation/ ventilation!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Intubation/ ventilation settings and modes?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is pressure-controlled ventilation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Volume controlled ventilation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Intubation/ventilation start settings for volume controlled?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Start settings for pressure controlled?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is dead space?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Neuromuscular inspiration v. expiration and nerves?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does the parasympathetic supply do to the lungs? What does the sympathetic supply do to the lungs?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the normal percentage of dead space in a dog? What are the three parts of dead space?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Diffusion of gases across the respiratory membrane

A

* think of cystic fibrosis

** think of lung lobectomy = less surface area for gas exchange

* diffusion coefficient– can’t change it– why some gases diffuse better than others

** 150 mmHg of oxygen available because 21% * 760 mmHg (sea level)– why don’t we get that much? It is diluted out with other gases

* pulm. capillary transit time– does not effect diffusion but effected gas exchange– how long is the blood in contact… CO high = faster pumping past alveoli- less time for gas exchange to take place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Matching ventilation and perfusion

A

V = air

Q = blood

Perfect world 1:1 match– not the case due to regional differences in perfusion and oxygenation…

Ideally blood would flow to every alveoli with

air and vice versa…..but that is not always the

case

Due to regional differences in perfusion and

ventilation, there is some degree of

mismatching

An ideal ratio of V/Q = 1 but the normal ratio

for our species is V/Q = 0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When does shunt happen?

A

Blood flies by– your patient aspirated a peanut and it is stuck in the bronchi– there is still blood coming past but not getting any oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When does alveolar dead space occur? What is it?

A

Lots of air, but the blood doesn’t get there– HBC and haemorrhaged… embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How does gas move into the blood?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How is carbon dioxide carried in the blood?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How is ventilation controlled centrally under normal conditions?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Control of ventilation via peripheral methods?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Respiratory Anaesthesia Pharmacology– effects of Ace and Benzos? Alpha 2 agonists? Opioids? Thio, Alfaxan, Propofol? Ketamine? Inhalants? Anticholinergics?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Effects of anaesthesia on Respiratory Function

A

* Patient positioning can depress respiratory function

ex. Horses in lateral or dorsal recumbency
- atelectasis, abdominal contents pushing on diaphragm– decreased FRC and Tidal Volume; hypoventilation and V/Q mismatch

* Surgical technique can depress respiratory function

ex. Insufflation of Co2 into the abdomen for laproscopy
- reduced diaphragmatic excursion

* Restrictions of airflow

  • endotracheal tube diameter < tracheal diameter increases resistance to air flow
  • obstructions also increase resistance
  • increased resistance = increased WORK of breathing

* Effects of 100% FiO2

  • can improve O2 uptake in patients with decreased PAO2, respiratory membrane dysfunction, +/- increased shunt fraction (<30%) BUT may exacerbate chronic respiratory acidosis– absorption atelectasis– worsening of shunt fraction!…. Oxygen toxicity– oxygen free radical production

* Effects of PPV– may help prevent/ correct atelectasis

  • beneficial in the patient with NM weakness/ exhaustion or increased compliance– makes inhalation a passive event for the animal
  • improves ventilation in patients with decreased compliance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Dyspnoeic patient

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Considerations with obstructive disorders in sedated or anaesthetised animals?

A

Obstructive Disorders

Lar

Par, Tracheal Collapse, Asthma, Bronchitis,

Space Occupying Masses

Cause increased “work” of inspiration

Patient can become exhausted

Expiration may be “active”

Can cause hypoxemia and/or hypoventilation if severe

Increased shunt fraction (low V/Q mismatch)

Anaesthesia considerations:

If obstructive disorder is at a lower point in airway than

tracheal tube, intubation will not “fix” it

Patient may be exhausted which will be exacerbated by

muscle relaxation/anaesthesia

Pickwickian

Syndrome??

Recovery is the most dangerous time (always)

Airway obstruction/collapse

Regurgitation/aspiration

Providing analgesia but avoiding significant sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How do I anaesthetize an animal with obstructive airway disease?

A

No premedication

Most premeds have the potential to decrease laryngeal

function (

controversial topic!)

Propofol

slowly

to effect (theoretical gold standard)

Thiopental can also be used

Avoid apnea

Doxapram

(0.25 mg/kg) may be given to stimulate

respiration

if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Sedation/ Anaesthesia of Respiratory Patients

A

Restrictive Disorders

Anaesthesia Considerations:

PPV will be necessary

Higher PAP might be required

Inhalants and high FiO

2

will reverse HPV

Leads to increased shunt fraction and may also increase

alveolar dead space ventilation

Depending on duration of atelectasis, slow “

reinflation

may be warranted

Reexpansion

Pulmonary Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How do I anaesthetize an animal with restrictive lung disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How do I sedate an animal for chest tube placement?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is meant by combination disorder?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How do I anaesthetize an animal with a combination disorder?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Projections to evaluate nasal cavity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
A

Mandible superimposed over the maxilla and nose– so limited use in nose

So we open the jaw!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
A

Open Mouth Dorsoventral (or VD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
A

Rostrocaudal

frontal sinuses

Looking for nasal turbinates present and surrounded by air and not soft tissue… also look at the vomer bone, nasal septum is intact and straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Best modality for nasal issues?

A

Why isn’t MRI as good?

* MRI isn’t as good with bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Important to remember about radiographs and nasal cavity assessment?

A

* Non specific… meaning it likely will only help us narrow down differentials.. it won’t be diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the general patterns of nasal passage radiography?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

DDX of the nasal cavity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
A

Fluid or mass lesions within the frontal sinus– LEFT frontal sinus is abnormal

Masses often have abnormal surface– mass will light up with contrast, just exudate it will not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
A

Increased soft tissue opacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q
A

CT increased soft tissue and turbinate destruction

On the right loss of vomer bone.. aggressive lesion…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q
A

Extension of nasal

neoplasia into brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q
A

Normal Trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q
A

Tracheal Displacement– the angle is not 40 degrees to the thoracic spine

And dramatic dip ventrally at the carina, the bifurcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Altered tracheal diameter

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q
A

Hypoplastic trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q
A

Collapsing Trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Grades of collapsing trachea

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q
A

Oesophagus draped over trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Obtaining a good quality thoracic radiograph

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q
A

Rotated Thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q
A

(prefer ventrodorsal can stretch them out better)

whenever a dog is in RLR, the lung underneath has less air in it (atelectasis)– less air = less contrast

LLR= looking at the right lung

RLR= looking at the left lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Lung patterns vs. distribution

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q
A

Cranioventral lung fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q
A

Caudodorsal lung fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Clinical signs of nasal disease

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Clinical signs of nasopharyngeal disease

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Unilateral nasal discharge DDX? Bilateral nasal discharge DDX? Either DDX?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Physical Exam for nasal discharge

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

When to investigate nasal discharge?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

DDX for sneezing

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

DDX for discharge

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

DDX for Epistaxis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

DDX for Destructive lesions

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

The “Rounds” of investigation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Round 1 Investigation General? Epistaxis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Round 2 general investigation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Round 3 and 4 investigation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Acute nasal signs? Top 3 DDX?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Nasal FB signs and symptoms? Diagnosis? Removal options?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Feline URT infection– which cats? Where?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Presentation of Feline URT infection? How long does it take to resolve?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Feline URT DDX

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q
A

Feline Herpes Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

DDX?

A

FHV, Feline Calicivirus, Chlamydia felis, Bordatella bronchiseptica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Does nasal and ocular discharge in cats matter?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Treatment of cat presenting with ocular and nasal discharge

A

Address

hydration

:

SQ or parenteral fluids

Address nutrition:

warm, soft, fishy foods.

Appetite stimulants?

Oral care

Feeding

tube

Clear oculonasal

discharge:

Moist cotton balls

Humidification

Decongestants?

Treat

2

°

bacterial infections:

Doxycycline

Amoxicillin

Topical antibiotic ocular

therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is bacterial rhinitis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Found in a dog’s nose

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Signs of allergic rhinitis? Findings? Management?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Key points in acute nasal disease

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Signs of Feline nasopharyngeal polyps. Who are they seen in?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of feline nasopharyngeal polyps?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Dogs and cats nasal neoplasia– who do you see it in?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Signs of nasal neoplasia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Nasal tumour diagnosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Nasal tumours treatment

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Minimal palliation in nasal tumours

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Fungal rhinosinusitis in dogs and cats

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Sinonasal aspergillosis (SNA)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

SNA Clinical signs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q
A

Sinonasal aspergillosis (SNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

SNA Diagnosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

SNA Treatment

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Clotrimazole infusion

A

Treatment for SNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Aspergillus terreus and A. felis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Cryptococcosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Dissemination of Cryptococcus in cats

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Signalment?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Cryptococcosis in cats v. dogs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Diagnosis of Cryptococcosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Cryptococcosis treatment and prognosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Chronic idiopathic rhinitis cats v. dogs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Diagnosis of feline chronic rhinosinusitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Management of feline chronic rhinosinusitis

A

Treat possible FHV or

Mycoplasma

spp. Infections:

Oral lysine trial 4

-

6 weeks

Oral famcyclovir trial

Doxycycline trial

Control secondary bacterial infection:

4

-

6 week antibiotic courses, choice as for URTI

Repeat as needed (some cats need ongoing)

If inadequate response, control inflammation (last!):

Antihistamines help some cats

CAUTIOUS anti

-

inflammatory glucocorticoids

Doxycycline or azithromycin

(Piroxicam, leukotriene inhibitors, omega

-

3 FA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Presentation of canine chronic (lymphoplasmacytic) rhinitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Management of canine idiopathic rhinitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Nasal Tumour, SNA, and Chronic rhinitis– differentiating chronic nasal presentations in dogs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q
A

DDX

* Hypertension

* Coagulopathy

* Nasal neoplasia

* Nasal aspergillosis

Tests

  1. Measure systollic BP
  2. Check clotting times (BMBT, platelets and PT/APTT)
  3. Take nasal swab for cytology
  4. Take nasal swab for culture (+ fungus)
  5. Take blind biopsy of nasal cavity

Key Points

* Epistaxis should make you think fungal disease or tumour

* Fungal disease is more painful than tumour

* Nasal cytology is only useful for cryptococcosis

* Idiopathic chronic rhinitis and feline CRS are never cured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Clinical signs of lower respiratory tract disease

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What do cats with lower respiratory tract NOT usually do that dogs do? What might they do that is different to dogs? DDX in a coughing cat?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Productive v. Non-productive cough?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Loud, harsh and paroxysmal cough?

Soft cough?

Exacerbated by neck pressure?

Goose honk?

Worse resting at night?

Worse after rest, with exercise or cold air?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q
A

Huge heart pressing on the airways, exercise tolerance would make you worry that she may have CHF… but not all signs point to that. So thinking bronchitis possible?

** Need to do more investigation to confirm problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Signs of LRT if gas exchange impaired? Non-specific systemic signs ?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Haemoptysis DDX?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Approach to LRT

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What would you see with URT or extrathoracic tracheal obstruction?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What would you see with intrathoracic airway obstruction? Small airway and lung disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Physical Exam LRT

A

Observe resp pattern, RR, RE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Physical exam– abnormal lung sounds… when decreased suspect? Increased/ harsh? Crackles? Wheezes? Snapping?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Cardiac vs. respiratory cough

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Round 1 Diagnostic Eval of the LRT

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Round 2 non-invasive LRT investigation? Round 3 more invasive LRT investigation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Airway cytology

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What is bronchoalveolar lavage?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Airway wash sample handling and interpretation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Bronchoscopy indications

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Trans-thoracic lung aspirate or biopsy indications? Risks? C/Is?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Other LRT diagnostics you might run when investigating

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Relatively happy coughing patients DDX

A

CIRDC- Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex aka Kennel Cough– Parainfluenza, adenovirus, canine resp coronavirus, canine herpesvirus, canine distemper virus, canine influenza virus… bordatella bronchiseptica, Mycoplasma spp., Streptococcus zooepidemicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What is CIRDC? Which dogs? Transmission?

A

CIRDC- Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex aka Kennel Cough– Parainfluenza, adenovirus, canine resp coronavirus, canine herpesvirus, canine distemper virus, canine influenza virus… bordatella bronchiseptica, Mycoplasma spp., Streptococcus zooepidemicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

CIRDC Pathogens

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

CIRDC- Clinical signs? Diagnosis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

CIRDC Treatment?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

CIRDC Prevention

A

* Minimize exposure

  • In shelter/ kennel environments:
  • Isolate puppies and recently boarded dogs form other dogs
  • disinfect cages, bowls, runs, etc, wash hands between handling dogs
  • no nose- nose contact
  • at least 10-15 air exchanges/ hour (good ventilation) and < 50% relative humidity

* Maintain good general health

  • Good nutrition, regular deworming, limit stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Key Points LRT

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Interpretation of radiographs of lung disease

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Simplified DDX for increased lung opacity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Pattern of lung disease algorithm

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Question you ask to start algorithm for interpretation of lung disease on radiographs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

What pattern?

A

Alveolar filled with blood pus water or cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What pattern?

A

Alveolar Pattern VD

Alveolar filled with blood pus water or cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q
A

CT of airbronchograms

* blood pus water or cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q
A

Right cranial lung lobe, when we see this line it tells us we have severe disease– because it is white and air filled lung behind. Distinct line tells us we have a severe alveolar opacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

First differential?

A

Aspiration pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What do you look at when you look at the size of the lung lobes?

A

Mediastinal shift towards the lesion

Heart is the main structure– supported by the air filled . If a lung lobe has a decreased volume (atelectasis) won’t support the heart in the normal position in the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q
A

Recumbent Atelectasis

Put them in sternal recumbency, ventilate them… when anaesthetized they are in sternal recumbency so we don’t get this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

DDX?

A

Metastatic neoplasia or fungal granulomas (not in AUS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

DDX Nodular Interstitial Pattern

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Things not to confuse with nodules

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q
A

Mineral- not round unlike metastatic neoplastic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q
A

Cranioventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What are you doing here?

A

Checking to see if they are lesions or nipples using wire on the nipples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q
A

Perihilar is BS– actually just a big left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q
A

Caudodorsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q
A

Multifocal to diffuse– haemorrhage high on the differential list depending on history, neoplasia, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Ways to read lungs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Making a diagnosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q
A

Signalment- young dog, caught by collar, was completley normal before incident… blood? pus? Water? Cells?

** Caudodorsal distribution

DDX: Non cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, haemorrhage, neoplasia, bronchitis, fibrosis

History: upper airway obstruction

Sudden change– haemorrhage is non patchy

Non cardiogenic pulm oedema– treated for it and got better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Case 2: Signalment

:

11

wo

F Mastiff

Soft cough for 2 weeks

Presented with

inappetance

and dyspnoea

Abnormal cranioventral and caudodorsal as well.

A

Mixed pattern

Ddx: non

cardiogenic

pulmonary

oedema,

cardiogenic

pulmonary

oedema,

haemorrhage,

pneumonia,

neoplasia

,

bronchitis,

fibrosis

** Ranked DDX: Pneumonia, haemorrhage, non cardiogenic pulmonary oedema… What do we do next? Take some cells. Suppurative

Treat empirically, BAL, (Coag profile)

** It was pneumonia– had been vaccinated 2 weeks previously. C&S– Pure heavy growth of Bordetella bronchiseptica sensitive to Clavulox and enroflaxicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Pathogenesis of collapsing trachea/ TBM

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Signalment of collapsing trachea/TBM

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Collapsing trachea/ TBM exacerbating or triggering factors

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What could a goose honk cough mean?

A

Collapsing trachea/TBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Clinical presentation– history and PE of collapsing trachea/TBM

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Diagnosis of collapsing trachea/ TBM

A
260
Q

Collapsing trachea/ TBM treatment

A
261
Q

Chronic management of collapsing trachea/TBM

A
262
Q
A
263
Q

What is Canine Chronic Bronchitis?

A
264
Q

Complications of CCB

A
265
Q

CCB presentation

A
266
Q

PE of CCB

A
267
Q
A
268
Q
A
269
Q

Diagnosis of CCB

A
270
Q

CCB Management

A
271
Q

CCB Medications

A

For some cases:

Antitussives (opiates)

  • cough incessant, exhausting, ineffective
  • lowest effective dose
  • strategic timing
  • avoid in v. productive cough
  • avoid in bronchiectiasis (nebulisation & coupage)

Intermittently: Antibiotics

  • inhaled oropharyngeal flora (gram negatives)
  • C&S best
  • +/- mycoplasmas
  • need to penetrate airways and respiratory secretions (doxycycline)
  • At least 3-4 weeks
272
Q

Prognosis of CCB

A

Cannot be cured– good prognosis for control of signs/ good QOL in most cases

273
Q

Feline Bronchial disease (FBD)

A
274
Q

FBD DDX

A
275
Q

Idiopathic FBD presentation

A
276
Q

FBD Physical examination

A
277
Q

FBD Diagnostics

A
278
Q
A

Terbutaline = bronchodilator

* too unstable for airway wash so just started steroids

279
Q
A
280
Q

Chronic management of idiopathic FBD

A

Possible allergy?

Eliminate allergen

Consider

all canned

food

Idiopathic?

Many

cats improve with improved

air quality

Eliminate smoke, aerosols and perfumed products

Trial sand or plain clay litter

Reduce dust, mould and mildew

clean carpets, furnishings, bedding,

drapes

Clean heating units/ducts, change air filters

regularly

Use a vacuum with a HEPA filter

Use an air purifier

Ongoing signs or

Intermittent flare

-

ups

Bronchodilators

Inhaled salbutamol

(

Ventolin

®

)

Best for intermittent use

Prior to inhaled fluticasone

Oral aminophylline

or

terbutaline PO

Refractory cases

Cyclosporin

experimental

Cyproheptadine

mild bronchodilation

Leukotriene inhibitors

no evidence

No antihistamines!

281
Q
A
282
Q

Idiopathic FBD prognosis

A
283
Q

Key points in tracheal collapse, CCB, and FBD

A
284
Q

Signs of parenchymal disease & non-resp ddx look alikes

A
285
Q

Bacterial pneumonia routes

A
286
Q
A
287
Q
A
288
Q
A
289
Q

Bacterial pneumonia in adult dogs and cats

A
290
Q

Bacterial pneumonia predisposing causes

A
291
Q

Diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia

A

Bacterial pneumonia

-Diagnosis

Clinical signs

•Cough (soft, productive)

–Dogs!

•Bilateral mucopurulent nasal

discharge

  • Exercise intolerance
  • Respiratory distress
  • Lethargy, anorexia, fever and

weight loss

Physical exam

  • Fever (50%)
  • Tachypnoea or hyperpnoea
  • Nasal discharge
  • Focal crackles, +/- expiratory wheeze (auscultation)

Less common

  • +/-sinus arrhythmia
  • +/- cyanosis (hypoxia)
292
Q

Treatment of bacterial pneumonia

A

GCs are contraindicated!!! NO ANTITUSSIVES no matter how much they are coughing– we need to clear the bugs out of the airways

Bronchodilators: cats, and in dogs with expiratory effort or wheeze (monitor)

Oxygen therapy: clinical signs, SpO2 < 94%, PaO2 (blood gas) < 80 mmHg

(Mucolytics)

Should improve within 48-72 hours

Monitor:

* clinical signs frequently

* haematology and thoracic radiographs

  • q 24-72 hours initially
  • 1 week after DC
  • then q 2-4 weeks after DC

* Prognosis usually good

293
Q

Aspiration pneumonia

A
294
Q

Diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia

A
295
Q

Predisposing causes of aspiration pneumonia

A
296
Q

Treatment of aspiration pneumonia

A

Do not lavage and do not anaesthetise!!

Can suction the airways if the animal is unconscious

297
Q

Pulmonary hypertension (PHT)

A
298
Q

Diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension

A
299
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Pure collagen deposition throughout the interstitium of the lung– do not know why this happens

300
Q
A

Radiographs are relatively boring in this condition, but you will hear really loud crackles

301
Q

IPF management and prognosis

A
302
Q

What is eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy (EB)?

A
303
Q

EB presentation

A
304
Q

EB Management

A
305
Q

Metastatic v. Multicentric pulmonary neoplasia

A
306
Q
A
307
Q

Primary pulmonary neoplasia

A
308
Q
A
309
Q

Treatment and prognosis of pulmonary neoplasia

A
310
Q

Presentation of pulmonary thromboembolism? What is Virchow’s triad?

A
311
Q

PTE associated diseases and risk factors?

A
312
Q

PTE Treatment

A
313
Q

Pathogenesis of pulmonary oedema

A
314
Q

Non- cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (NCPO)

A
315
Q

Non- cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (NCPO) Treatment and prognosis

A

Difficult to shift fluid with diarrhetics unless it is due to CNS injury or electrocution

316
Q

The unhappy coughing patient- pulmonary parenchymal disease

A
317
Q
A
318
Q

Neat trick when looking for rib fractures

A

Turn the RG 90 degrees

319
Q

Pleural space

A
320
Q

Interlobar fissures

A
321
Q
A
322
Q

RG changes seen in pulmonary disease

A
323
Q
A

When there is fluid in the pleural space, the pressure of the fluid means the lungs will be reduced in volume- this will appear as mild atelectasis. You will also see opacity between the lungs and the thoracic wall

324
Q
A
325
Q
A
326
Q
A
327
Q
A
328
Q

what is a TFAST?

A

TFAST

3

Thoracic Focused Assessment with Sonology for

Trauma, Triage and Tracking

Used

to detect pneumothorax and concurrent

thoracic

injury, pleural effusion and pericardial

effusion

5

point TFAST in

dogs

CTS (bilateral) (chest tube site)

PCS (bilateral) (pericardiocentesis?)

AFAST DH (diaphragmatic hepatic site)

329
Q

What is the slide sign?

A

Possible findings:

•Look for

“slide

sign” of normal pulmonary

-pleural

interface moving with respiration

•Presence of comet tail artifacts that move with

inspiration and expiration rule out

PTX

  • Pleural fluid
  • Pericardial fluid
330
Q

Diagnosis of pneumothorax using TFAST and its Chest Tube Sites (CTS)

A
331
Q
A

Slide sign- if you don’t see it, suspect pneumothorax

332
Q
A
333
Q
A
334
Q
A

Cardiac silhouette is separated from the sternum– not elevated

335
Q
A
336
Q
A

Patient hit by a car, blood is the opacity

337
Q
A

Life threatening

338
Q
A
339
Q
A
340
Q
A
341
Q
A

Normal in fat animals

342
Q

Mediastinal shifting

A

Anything that reduces lung volume causes shift towards the reduction.

If it is a mediastinal mass, it won’t

343
Q

Locations of mediastinal masses

A

Cranioventral- lymphoma, lipoma

Perihilar- second most common– tracheobronchial lymphadenomegaly

344
Q
A
345
Q

Enlarged sternal lymph node?

A

Look in the abdomen as it drains the abdomen

346
Q
A
347
Q
A
348
Q
A
349
Q

Pneumomediastinum

A
350
Q

Causes of a pneumomediastinum

A
351
Q
A

Pneumomediastinum

Pneumothorax

* can see Cranial vena cava, can see oesophagus– can’t normally see them but highlighted by the air

352
Q

Heart disease v. Heart failure

A
353
Q

Considerations for RG appearance of the normal heart

A
354
Q
A
355
Q
A
356
Q
A
357
Q
A
358
Q
A
359
Q
A
360
Q
A
361
Q
A
362
Q
A
363
Q

Problem with the VHS

A

* make the lines in the wrong places

* breed specific

* lots of dogs and cats have normal hearts outside of the parameters

** Could use it to track what is normal in that dog over time!!

364
Q
A

5th to 7th rib rule

Cranio to caudal dimension of the heart should not be any greater than that line

** old cats hearts can flop forward (is this a sign of hypertension? NO. (because it is in people))

365
Q

Changes with cardiac disease

A
366
Q

Radiographic features of cardiomegaly

A

Ventrodorsal (dorsoventral projection)

Increased transverse diameter (width) of heart

Cardiac width on a DV view is usually 60

-

65% of the thoracic width and

no more than two

-

thirds of the thoracic width at the widest point of the

cardiac silhouette on a VD view

Increased rounding and elongation of heart borders

Bulging of left heart border due to increased size of left auricle

Caudal and leftward displacement of cardiac apex

Cat “Valentine Shaped” heart

367
Q
A

Big heart- how can you tell?

Ventrodorsal (dorsoventral projection)

Increased transverse diameter (width) of heart

Cardiac width on a DV view is usually 60

-

65% of the thoracic width and

no more than two

-

thirds of the thoracic width at the widest point of the

cardiac silhouette on a VD view

Increased rounding and elongation of heart borders

Bulging of left heart border due to increased size of left auricle

Caudal and leftward displacement of cardiac apex

Cat “Valentine Shaped” heart

368
Q

Where are the cardiac veins?

A
369
Q

What are we considering when looking at the cardiac vessels?

A

Should be about the same size

370
Q

Enlarged pulmonary veins DDX

A
371
Q
A
372
Q

Why won’t you always see enlarged pulmonary veins in the left sided heart failure even though pathophysiology would suggest otherwise?

A

Caudo dorsal in dogs– opacity in cardiogenic heart failure (unless it is really bad)

Anywhere in cats

373
Q

Enlarged pulmonary arteries DDX

A
374
Q

Enlarged pulmonary arteries and veins DDX

A
375
Q

Small pulmonary vessels DDX

A
376
Q
A

Haemabdomen– we see a small heart, the blood is all in the abdomen

(also microcardia with GDV)

377
Q
A
378
Q
A

Mitral valve endocardiosis– small dogs

DCM– big dogs

379
Q
A
380
Q
A
381
Q
A
382
Q
A
383
Q

How can you differentiate between the most common heart disease causes in dogs? What are the top 3?

A

Mitral valve endocardiosis/ DCM/ Pericardial effusion

* Signalment

* History

* Radiographs

* Echocardiology

384
Q
A

Globoid heart, soccer ball

385
Q
A

Wider than the 5th to 7th rib rule, valentine appearance

Increased opacity on the lungs

386
Q
A
387
Q

Take home messages cardiac radiographic assessment

A

Use the “checklist” to assess the cardiac

silhouette

Do not use the VHS alone

Cardiac enlargement alone does not mean the

patient is in heart failure

Assess for radiographic evidence of heart

failure

388
Q
A

Might see oesophagus, left subclavian, brachiocephalic trunk branching off rostrally

389
Q

Cardiac disease v. cardiac failure

A
390
Q
A
391
Q

Assessing cardiomegaly in dogs vs. cats?

A

Dogs - 2.5-3.5 intercostal spaces

Cats- 5th and 7th vertebrae

392
Q
A

Differential Diagnosis

Chronic Bronchitis (chronic form of “Feline Asthma”)

Etiology: initially allergic

Secondary bacterial infections common

Infectious Tracheobronchitis

Virus,bacteria,mycoplasma, chlamydia

Parasitic Disease

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
Capillaria aerophilia
Toxoplasma gondii

Inhalation of Toxins

Atypical Pulmonary Edema

Bronchogenic Carcinoma (early)

393
Q
A

Bullae (air bubbles)- aka emphysema or air trapping

Animals it typically occurs secondary to a primary obstructive pulmonary disease process. Pathogenesis not fully understood 1) an imbalance between protease secreted by neutrophils and macrophages, and antiprotease activity results in destruction of alveolar walls and interstitial matrix; 2) inappropriate maintenance of lung structure and repair follows injury; and 3) the condition develops secondary to obstruction of airways on expiration due to chronic bronchitis/bronchiolitis or congenital abnormality of the airway wall. This creates a “check valve” lesion, in which air is able to enter alveoli on inspiration or through collateral ventilation but is unable to leave freely and causes air trapping.

Treatment

Emphysema is an irreversible lung lesion; however, therapy directed toward the primary disease process may result in significant improvement of clinical signs, especially by targeting airway obstruction with administration of bronchodilator and anti-inflammatory drugs.

394
Q
A
395
Q
A
396
Q
A

Diaphragmatic hernia with the stomach pushed through crushing the left lung

397
Q
A
398
Q

Rabbit unique respiratory tract features

A
399
Q

What is Pasteurellosis in rabbits?

A
400
Q

Rhinitis in rabbits

A

Picture- worried about bilateral dental disease

401
Q
A

Pneumonia in the rabbit carries a poor prognosis as most infections are chronic and

clinical signs are not often apparent until the disease has progressed significantly.

Widespread lung involvement is usually present due to the thin pleura and lack of

septa diving the lung lobes in the rabbit, whereas pneumonia in other mammals may

be more localised.

When pneumonia is suspected or diagnosed on thoracic radiographs, check for signs

of concurrent upper respiratory tract disease via radiographs of the neck and head.

Obtaining a culture and sensitivity from the respiratory tract is recommended, as

identification of the causative organism(s) and selecting appropriate antibiotics will

increase the chance of successful treatment. The bacteria causing the pneumonia

may difficult to culture and a ‘no growth’ result is not uncommon. A fine needle

aspirate (FNA) from the chest is often the safest method to obtain a sample for

culture and sensitivity or cytology and is surprising well tolerated by rabbits

Bronchoalveolar lavage is more difficult and carries a higher risk in the rabbit

compared with many other species

.

Myxomatosis rabbits can present with upper respiratory tract signs initially, and often

die from a fulminating pneumonia

402
Q
A

Typical radiographic features of pulmonary metastases are the presence of multiple

interstitial nodular densities within the thoracic cavity. These may be well defined or

ill-defined and coalesce merging with neighbouring densities, obscuring the heart in

some cases. Elevation of the trachea can also be present.

An example of metastatic disease in the rabbit is

uterine adenocarcinoma

.

Adenocarcinoma of the uterus is the most commonly reported neoplasm of the

female rabbit.

The incidence increases with age and pulmonary metastases carry a

grave prognosis.

Thoracic radiography is advisable in all rabbits with suspected

uterine abnormalities to assess the prognosis before considering surgery

.

Ovariohysterectomy is curative if metastasis has not occurred. Metastases may not

be visible at the time of surgery or on survey thoracic radiographs so regular repeat

thoracic and abdominal survey radiographs, at least every 6 months, may be taken in

any suspect cases after neutering is performed.

403
Q

Bilateral exopthalmus in a rabbit?

A
404
Q

Cardiac disease in rabbits

A
405
Q

Clinical signs

include those of cardiac disease, seizures and/or chronic renal failure (polydypsia,

weight loss)

A

Mineralization of aorta

Mineralization of the aorta may be seen on thoracic radiographs. Clinical signs

include those of cardiac disease, seizures and/or chronic renal failure (polydypsia,

weight loss).

In pet rabbits, mineralisation of the aorta is usually associated with

chronic renal disease

(Harcourt-Brown, 2007) and is often linked with

E. cuniculi

infection. Calcium metabolism in rabbits is regulated by renal excretion rather than

intestinal uptake so advanced renal disease impairs calcium (and phosphorus)

excretion, which can result in high blood calcium and phosphorus values and ectopic

mineralisation of tissues, especially the aorta and skeleton.

406
Q

Unique GP traits respiratory and cardiac disease

A

heart occupies relatively large percentage of thoracic space

left lung has 3 lobes, right lung 4 lobes

middle or inner ear infections occasionally accompany respiratory disease in

guinea pigs

additional symptoms in these cases include incoordination, torticollis (twisting

of the neck), circling, and rolling

407
Q

GP

A

* Clinical signs are variable

* Radiographs

* FNA from chest- BAL?

* Prognosis guarded in many cases

*Prolonged treatment

408
Q

GP neoplasia, cardiac disease

A
409
Q

Ferret unique traits of thorax

A
  • lungs relatively long
  • right side has 4 lobes, left side 2 or 3 lobes (number varies with references)
  • large lung volume in relation to body weight
  • auscultation of heart: lies more caudal than expected
  • situated between 6th-8th ribs
  • sinus bradycardia is normal
  • tip of heart attached to sternum by cardiodiaphragmatic ligament, often contains fat
410
Q
A
411
Q

Moist dermatitis around chin & lips & inguinal area in a ferret

A
412
Q

Cardiac disease in ferrets

A

Cardiac disease therapy

Frusemide 1-2 mg/kg bid to tid

Pimobendin 0.5 mg/kg bid

ACE-inhibitor 0.25 - 0.5 mg/kg sid to bid

413
Q

Heartworm in ferrets, diagnosis? Treatment?

A
414
Q

Chronic respiratory disease in rats and mice

A

CRD

Clinical signs variable

Dyspnoea

Sniffles, snuffles, nasal discharge

Weight loss, unkempt coat

Red tears

Progression to severe pneumonia or

bronchopneumonia

415
Q

CRD in rats and mice Control

A

Don’t use mucolytics in rats and mice! Don’t use corticosteroids in them.

Subacute Chronic Bronchitis (SACB) results in chronic inflammation and

respiratory tract epithelial dysfunction

Nebulisation

Hypertonic saline

Particle size 2-5 um required

Bronchodilators

Aminylline (theophylline) 10-20 mg/kg bid to tid

Fluoquinolones increase serum concentration: decrease dosage by 30%

Avoid using corticosteroids

May live for several months

416
Q

Unique attributes to the Cardiovascular system

A
417
Q

Unique respiratory system traits in reptiles

A

Lungs single chambered in snakes, some

lizards

Multi-chambered in chelonians,

crocodilians, monitor lizards

Most snakes: One functional lung (right)

Pythons/boas 2 lungs

418
Q
A
419
Q

General respiratory disease in reptiles and chelonia

A
420
Q

Diagnosis of respiratory disease in reptiles? Treatment?

A
421
Q

What is Sunshine virus?

A

Sunshine Virus

Novel paramyxovirus

Diagnosis

Sudden outbreak, clinical signs

PCR test developed by Tim Hyndman in WA

Not commercially available

No treatment

Outbreaks

reported in Victoria

‘hot’ virus?

Outbreak, sudden death

Some exposed may recover, resistant

Carriers?

Transmission?

422
Q

What is Ferlavirus?

A
423
Q
A

Clinically it may be difficult to distinguish paramyxovirus infections (Ferlavirus and

Sunshine virus) from Arenavirus infection (pInclusion Body Disease (IBD), another

viral disease of pythons. All three conditions may present with neurological signs.

Pythons with IBD do not usually show respiratory signs

424
Q

Cardiac disease in reptiles

A

Cardiac Disease in

Reptiles

Most pet reptiles presented with cardiac problems are in an advanced state

of disease; the prognosis is very poor and treatment usually unrewarding

425
Q

Clinical exam/ presentation cardiac cases in reptiles

A
426
Q

Treatment options of cardiac disease

A
427
Q

3 presentations with cardiac murmurs and approach?

A

Normal = Growing puppies up until 16 weeks and older cats

Anaemic patient= due to low viscosity

Patient that is coughing + heart murmur (common in small breed dogs) = work out resp disease? cardiac disease? Both?

Patient present dyspnoeic and has a murmur= congestive heart failure?

** signalment, history, where the murmur is, type of murmur

428
Q
A
429
Q

Myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

Present from birth and slowly progressive with age

myxomatous= Myxomatous degeneration refers to a pathological weakening of connective tissue.

430
Q

Signalment of dogs with MMVD

A

Uncommon in large breeds

GSD

Dalmatian

Dobermann

Earlier onset and

progression

Major ddx dilated

cardiomyopathy

Worse prognosis

431
Q

Pathology and pathogenesis of MMVD

A
432
Q

Pathophysiology of MMVD, early disease mild-moderate, severe?

A
433
Q

Left heart volume overload in MMVD? Late and acute complications?

A
434
Q

Clinical signs- early/mild disease– when you first pick it up?

A
435
Q

SNS activation in MMVD

A
436
Q

RAAS role in MMVD

A
437
Q

Eccentric hypertrophy with MMVD

A

Eccentric- heart enlarges to accomodate larger blood volume

* SNS and RAAS activation at this point– high HR

438
Q
A

Arrows- bronchial compression

Heart is big but not in CHF

439
Q

Pathophysiology of heart failure

A
440
Q

Clinical signs of CHF

A

* Early: decreased exercise tolerance (due to oedema developing); cough or tachypnoea with exertion

Then: coughting- night, morning, activity; elevated resting RR

Finally: dyspnoea, +/- moist cough, lethargy, anorexia

** Many dogs with significant pulmonary oedema do not cough– they are focused on breathing

Less common signs:

* Ascites: RSCHF

* Cardiac cachexia

441
Q

Physical exam- LSCHF

A

CHF (wet):

•Usually high

-grademurmur (4-6/6), loud S1. (so if it was soft, ask is it related? as atypical presentation)

  • Tachycardia– trying to maintain CO (SNS maximally activated)
  • Tachypnoea, dyspnoea
  • +/- crackles, wheezes
  • Brisk pulses
  • Pale MM (hypoxia)
  • Cyanosis (severe hypoxia)
442
Q

Physical examination RSCHF

A

Some will even have jugular pulses at rest just visually

443
Q

Lily: “cough for past 4 weeks, less keen on

exercise”

LSCHF or respiratory disease?

A
444
Q

Coughing

CHF or respiratory disease?

A

At least not LSCHF

445
Q
A

Yes, CHF will need management

446
Q

MMVD Diagnosis

A

Echocardiography

* Confirm diagnosis

* Assess contractility

* Assess severity

* Complications

* Pulmonary hypertension

* NOT pulmonary oedema

* Valve appearance; valve prolapse

* LA size:

  • correlates with severity
  • except acute CT rupture!
447
Q
A
448
Q
A

Fractional shortening

449
Q

MMVD diagnosis in large breed dogs

A
450
Q

Laboratory testing in MMVD

A
451
Q

ISACHC classification of heart failure

A
452
Q

Treatment guidelines preclinical MMVD? Stage I?

A

* geriatric diet, slightly salt restricted, don’t let them get overweight

453
Q

Treatment guidelines Stage II MMVD?

A

started to get signs of CHF, sleeping RR starting to go up at home

* take your time starting all the different drugs

* Pimobendan + ACE inhibitor= prolongs survival big time

454
Q

Treatment guidelines MMVD Stage IIIb

A

severe heart failure, need to be in hospital

+/- viagra

* hills makes a cardiac diet with low salt, but many don’t like to eat it

455
Q

Complications in treatment of MMVD? Monitoring?

A
456
Q

Prognosis of MMVD

A
457
Q

Key points of MMVD

A
458
Q

What are primary cardiomyopathies? Diagnosis?

A
459
Q

Secondary cardiomyopathies? Treatment?

A
460
Q

DCM aetiology?

A
461
Q

DCM presentation?

A
462
Q

DCM dog breed differences

A
463
Q

DCM pathogenesis

A
464
Q
A

DCM

465
Q

Highest prevalence of DCM in what breed?

A
466
Q

Prognosis of DCM in Doberman pinschers?

A
467
Q

Preclinical screening in Doberman pinschers for ?? What do you do?

A
468
Q

Boxer cardiomyopathy is??

A
469
Q

Boxer ARVC categories?

A
470
Q

Cocker spaniel DCM?

A
471
Q

Irish wolfhounds- 2 presentations of DCM

A
472
Q

Portuguese water dogs DCM

A
473
Q

What are you looking at to diagnose?

A
474
Q

Echocardiography diagnosis of DCM

A
475
Q

Diagnosis of DCM with ECG

A
476
Q

Labwork diagnosis of DCM

A
477
Q

DCM Treatment

A
478
Q

DCM differences from MMVD?

A
479
Q

DCM differences from MMVD?

A
480
Q

DCM prognosis?

A
481
Q

Feline primary cardiomyopathies

A
482
Q

Primary Feline cardiomyopathies presentations?

A
483
Q

Feline dilated cardiomyopathy causes?

A
484
Q

HCM in cats, what do you need to work out?

A

Primary or secondary?

485
Q

HCM pathogenesis

A
486
Q

HCM clinical presentation

A

Clinical (CHF)

* Usually acute, precipitating event commone (50%)- corticosteroids

Signs

* tachypnoea, dyspnoea, panting (with activity), lethargy, murmur, strong pulses, +/- cough/ vomit, +/- pulmonary crackles

487
Q

Aortic thromboembolism in HCM

A
488
Q
A
489
Q

HCM diagnosis

A
490
Q

Cardiac or respiratory disease?

A
491
Q

HCM treatment

A
492
Q

HCM treatment CHF

A
493
Q

Prognosis of HCM

A
494
Q

Key points in DCM, HCM and cats with pleural effusion with LSCHF

A
495
Q

Heart Failure Classification

A
496
Q

Practical pointers in cardiac disease

A
497
Q

What is warm & dry? Dry & cold? warm & wet? cold & wet?

A
498
Q

Warm & dry?

A
499
Q

warm & wet?

A
500
Q

dry and cold?

A
501
Q

cold & wet?

A
502
Q

Once in galaxy, far, far away there was a

reduced cardiac output as regurgitation

from the left ventricle into the left atrium

occurred every heart beat. This resulted in a

battle between two opposing sides of the

Force…

A

Th evil vasoconstrictory forces– activate the SNS… and the SNS in turn activates the RAAS.

* Vasoconstriction

* Increased HR

* Increased cardiac contractility– until it can no longer work

* Fluid and sodium retention

VS. Vasodilation – NO, BNP/ANP … DILUTE AND DIURESIS

503
Q

Treatment aims acute CHF

A

Is that it?

Oxygen

Sedation if distressed

Frusemide

IV bolus (1

-4 mg/kg) to start

Swap to oral as soon as RR decreases

If RR still high 4 hours after bolus then start a CRI

(0. 5
- 2.0 mg/kg/hour), titrating down as quickly as

possible.

Decrease systemic pressure (> 100 mm Hg)

Pimobendan, nitrates, hydralazine, amlodipine

504
Q

Treatment aims of chronic CHF

A

But…

* Treatment causes decreased perfusion of the kidneys

* disease causes decreased GFR

* may have pre-existing renal disease

505
Q

What do you do because chronic CHF treatment….?

But…

* Treatment causes decreased perfusion of the kidneys

* disease causes decreased GFR

* may have pre-existing renal disease

A

The pulmonary oedema will kill the animal before the azotaemia, so first priority so don’t give Pimobendan straight away… wait two weeks and check bloods and then add on.

** BUT DON’T add water!

* These dogs are usually hypervolaemic

* Reduce diuretic dosage and vasodilate

* If dehydration or azotaemia is going to kill dog before oedema then give 0.45% saline, preferably SC

506
Q

Mitral disease in a small dog

A

* Mostly subclinical

* Warm & dry – 1. prolong preclinical stage 2. do no harm

507
Q
A

Balance hydration with heart disease

* Correct fluids because dehydration would kill it first!!!

*But monitor more carefully and administer slower vs. normal dog

508
Q
A

* Pre screening blood test– urea, creatinine + USG…. maybe a PCV. If azotaemia would benefit from fluids before the anaesthetic but 1.5 x maintenance (not dramatic fluids)… imp. to retain renal perfusion during anaesthetic!!! Otherwise make the azotaemia a lot worse.

* Often the owner will say it has this heart murmur so I can’t do its teeth

509
Q
A

* know this dog has heart disease because it has a murmur

* Is this dog in CHF– Look at VD– LOOK AT BLOOD VESSEL SIZE (oedema so can’t see often).. in this case no venus congestion. This dog is coughing for another reason… this dog has dynamic airway collapse– tracheal collapse

Treatment?

Enalapril no effect according to studies

510
Q

** initially tracheal disease but her huge left atrium told us at some point she would go into CHF

** 4 months later–

* RR at rest 50 breaths/minute

* Crackles on auscultation

* HR 160 beats/minute, murmur as previously

NOW warm & wet meaning?

A
  1. Relieve congestion
  2. Preserve perfusion
  3. Decrease mortality

** Now she has pulmonary oedema & gasping for air so aerophagia

* Drug categories: Diuretics, vasodilators, positive inotropes, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, adjunctive, emergency

511
Q

What are loop diuretics?

A

Frusemide-

Pharmacokinetics

IV administration

Onset of action 5 minutes

Peak effects 30 minutes

Duration of effect 2

-3 hours

Oral administration

Onset of action 60 minutes

Peak effects 1

-2 hours

Duration of effect 6 hours

512
Q

Frusemide side effects? When to use?

A

Pre-renal azotaemia

* Hypokalaemia

* Dehydration

513
Q

Thiazide diuretics?

A
514
Q

ACE inhibitors?

A

ACE inhibitors

Definitely improved quality of life & survival

times in dogs with DCM

Prolonged development of CHF and improved

survival times in Dobermans with occult DCM

MVD improvement seen in mild and moderate

CHF

Benefit shown in cats with HCM

Eventually get production of ATII by other

mechanisms

Tissue chymase pathways

Aldosterone escape

Therefore in progressive CHF may need

additional neurohormonal suppression

All similar

Benazapril (Fortekor)

Once daily

50:50 urine:bile dogs (80:20 cats)

Enalapril (Enalfor)

Dogs 1-

2 times daily, cats q 24

-48 hours

Ramipril (Vasotop)

Once daily

515
Q

Problem with ACE inhibitors?

A

After a while angiotensin II will be produced by another mechanism

Eventually the body will become less sensitive to drugs in heart failure and you will have to switch things ups

516
Q

What is Pimobendan (Vetmedin)?

A
517
Q

Studies on Pimobendan ?

A
518
Q

Need to know about Pimobendan

A
519
Q

CHF what to do?

A
520
Q

Amlodipine

A
521
Q

Nitrates

A
522
Q

Digoxin?

A
523
Q

Which drug to add in CHF?

A
524
Q

Monitoring MVD

A
525
Q

Myocardial diseases of dogs = ?

Treatment?

A

= systolic dysfunction

*Be careful with vasodilation- avoid negative inotropes if possible

* Treat arrhythmias

* Need pimobendan

526
Q
A
527
Q

Myocardial diseases of cats?

A

* Most feline cardiomyopathies cause DIASTOLIC dysfunction

* seem to present more “acutely” than dogs (likely due to exercise levels with):

  • ATE and/or CHF (major DDX: FBD, pyothorax, etc.)

* Careful with dentals etc.– if cat has a gallop rhythm, very carefully monitor their RR as they may slip into CHF… prednisolone associated CHF??

528
Q
A
529
Q

O2 transport with cell and alveolus and vein and artery side of a capillary

A

Venous side with high CO2 and low O2 and opp. on the arterial side

530
Q

Blood gas analyzer

A

paO2 = 85- 100 mmHg

paCO2 = 34-42 mmHg

(dog, breathing room air)

Acid Base Status

How hard is the animal breathing to get to that point or are you supplementing???

531
Q

PaO2 4-5 times FiO2

A

PaO2/FiO2 ratio- 476 normal

Abnormal- breathing more oxygen to get to that point (0.4)

532
Q

PF ratio can be used to assess oxygenation in animals who are receiving supplemental oxygen

A

Left mildy hypoxic (85-100 normal)

Right– normal at 85

** FiO2 differs 21% in one; 100% in the other

PF ratio 77.1/0.21 = 367 (400-500)

PF ratio 185/1.0= 185 (normal 400-500)

Patient 2 more serious gas exchange abnormality than the westie

533
Q
A

1st dog pCo2 34.1 (FiO2 constant breathing room air)

2nd pCO230 hyperventilation more to get to the same marginal PaO2

534
Q
A

Marked inspiratory dyspnoea (stridor) dog A paO261.9, 62 (paCO2)– hypoventilating because paCO2 is above normal range– difference CO2 risen from O2 has fallen, about a 1:1 (+22 and -22 above and below normal)

** dog B– PCO2 constant … paO2 quite a bit lower… paO2 50.4, paCO2 62 …. flail chest. Inspiration the flail segment goes in and creates pleural space defect and pain all causing hypoventilation. PaO2 even more decreased then can be explained by all this alone… probably also pulmonary contusion interfering with gas exchange.

535
Q

Key points on blood gas analysis

A
536
Q

12 yo MN shih tzu

Loud, harsh cough intermittently for 6 months

Terminal retch and swallow, slowing down on walks

Eating and drinking ok

* General appearance- BAR, normal temp, normal RR RE

Coarse crackles and occasional expiratory wheeze, coughs on tracheal palpation, productive

Low heart rate, II/VI left apical systolic cadiac murmur, pulses normal

BCS 7/9

A

Chronic canine bronchitis

BAL: inflammatory cells, some RBCs

Higher WCC, neutrophilia, eosinophilia, monocytosis, increased TS

Blood gas: PaO2 - 90 mm Hg; PaCO2- 40 mmHg (NORMAL)

Treatment:

* Anti-inflammatory GCs, methylxanthine bronchodilator, consider antitussives, manage allergens, irritants and air quality and humidity of the home, treat infection if present, weight loss, limit stress/ excitement, consider nebulisation and coupage, can be treated but not cured, long term prognosis guarded

537
Q

12 yr old MN shih tzu, heavy breathing, not eating, weight loss

Last 24 hours breathing heavily, dull lethargic, starting to slow down on walks, several soft infrequent cough

Quiet, alert, responsive, normal temperature,

RR = 60 with moderate increase in effort

Diffuse soft crackles

162 HR, grade V/VI left apical systolic murmur, pulses normal

BCS 3/9

A

Left sided congestive heart failure

* high ALT, ALP, neutrophilia, lymphopenia

Blood gases: PaO2- 60 mmHg, PaCO2- 25 mmHg

Treatment

* Supplemental oxygen and minimal stress

* 2-4 mg/kg frusemide IV q 1-2 hours until RR

* consider venodilator or systemic vasodilator if frusemide alone is not effective

* MOnitor RR/ effort, potassium concentration, PCV/TP and renal parameters

* Can be treated but not cured, long term prognosis guarded

538
Q

6 yr FS westie, heavy breathing, bringing food/ water up

* Breathing heavily last 24 hours

* Dull, lethargic, Brought up intact biscuits covered in clear fluid soon after eating

* Drank and brought the water straight back up

* General appearance- quiet, alert, responsive

* Temp 40 C

* Resp 60 with moderate increase in effort, MM hyperaemic, diffusely harsh lung sounds with crackles cranioventrally on the right

CVS- HR 162 MMs hyperaemic, CRT 0.5 seconds, no murmur, pulses tall and wide

BCS 4.5/9

A

Aspiration pneumonia with megaoesophagus

Leukocytosis, bands, neutrophilia, monocytosis, inc. TS, inc. TP, Moderate toxic change

Blood gas: PaO2- 60 mmHg, PaCO2- 25 mmHg

Treatment:

* Supplemental oxygen and minimal stress

* Broad spectrum antibiotics

* BAL or blind BAL for culture and susceptibility testing

* Restrictive IV fluid therapy

* Nebulisation and coupage

* Consider bronchodilator if acutely dyspnoeic and bronchospasm suspected

* Prognosis for resp disease is good but must carry out investigation for underlying cause when stable

539
Q

12 yr FS westie, heavy breathing, coughing and slowing down over the last few months, weight loss

* Loud, harsh cough intermittently for 6 months, breathing heavily, coughed up white foamy material with trace of blood this mornign, starting to slow down on walks, decreased appetite, weight loss

* quiet, alert, responsive, normal temp, RR 60 with mod increase in effort, pale pink MMs, diffusely harsh lung sounds, HR 162, grade II/VI left systolic cardiac murmur

BCS 3/9

A

Metastatic Pulmonary Neoplasia

Anaemia, high platelets, leukocytosis, neutrophilia, monocytosis, increased TS, increased TP, increased ALT, ALP, AST, hypoglycaemic, hypercalcaemia

Mild toxic change

Blood gases: PaO2- 60 mmHg, PaCO2- 25 mmHg

Treatment:

* Supplemental oxygen as needed (clinical signs + SpO2 or arterial blood gas to determine)

* Chemotherapy likely little impact

* Palliation with NSAIDs or corticosteroids, antitussives

* Treat secondary infections

* Consider appetite stimulants

* Pain management as needed

* Long term prognosis is poor

540
Q

3 yr ME Jack Russel, heavy breathing, collapsed, protracted seizure and now heavy breathing, is sometimes dull after eating, small compared to littermates, general appearance- laterally recumbent, mentally altered, hypersalivating

* high temp 40C

* RR 60, MM cyanotic, marked increase in effort, diffusely harsh lung sounds and generalised crackles

CVS- HR 180, MM cyanotic, tacky, CRT 2.5 seconds, pulses short and narrow

Neuro- pupils responsive, no menace, normal spinal reflexes, non-ambulatory

BCS 4.5/9

A

Non Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema

Anaemic, neutrophilia, lymphopenia, decreased urea, hypoglycaemia, low cholesterol, increased AST, increased CK, increased PT, increased APTT

Mild microcytosis, WBC morphology unremarkable

Blood gases: PaO2- 60 mmHg; PaCO2- 25 mmHg

Treatment

* Supplemental oxygen and minimal stress

* Furosemide can be considered

* Positive pressure ventilation with PEEP as needed (clinical signs + SpO2 or arterial blood gas to determine)

* Investigate/ manage primary cuase

* May worsen before it improves, likely to recover over 48-72 hours, long term prognosis for resp disease is good but must carry out investigation for underlying cause when stable

541
Q

3 yr ME Jack Russel, heavy breathing, white gums, coughed up pink foamy material with frank blood, not eating/ drinking, normally very active farm dog, works in the paddocks during the day, kennelled overnight, toxins or trauma?

* Weakly standing but orthopnoeic, quiet but responsive, normal temp

RR 60, MM pale, pattern is rapid and shallow with paradoxical movement, reduced breath sounds ventrally with crackles dorsally, mild right epistaxis noted

CVS- HR 180, MM tacky, unable to assess CRT, regular rhythm, pulses short and narrow, BCS 4.5/9

A

Vitamin K antagonist rodenticide toxicity

Anaemic, neutrophilia, lymphopaenia, decreased TS, increased urea, hypoalbuinaemia, extremely high PT, high APTT

PaO2- 60 mmHg (decreased), PaCO2- 50 mmHg (slightly elevated)

Treatment:

* Supplemental oxygen and minimal stress

*PPV with PEEP as needed (clinical signs + SpO2 or arterial blood gas to determine)

* 15-20 ml/kg FFP (or whole blood if very anemic)

* Vit K1 5 mg/kg initially then 2.5 mg/kg BID (duration, dependent on agent)

* Return for recheck PT 48 hours after vit K1 supplementation is completed

* Monitor RR/effort, PCV/TP, BP, PT/aPTT

* Long term prognosis is excellent

542
Q

3 yr ME Jack Russell struggling to breathe, collapsed, found collapsed in the yard, weak with rapid breathing, normally very active, works in the paddocks during the day, kennelled overnight, possible access to toxins/ trauma

* Laterally recumbent, dyspnoeic, appears panicked, profoundly weak, normal temp, RR 60 with minimal chest movement, then agonal just after presentation, MM cyanotic, lung sounds were quiet prior to respiratory arrest

CVS- HR 180, regular moist unable to assess CRT, pulses tall and wide

Neuro- dilated pupils, depressed spinal reflexes, non-ambulatory, profoundly weak

BCS 4.5/9

A

Low platelets, leukocytosis, neutrophilia, lymphopenia, monocytosis, increased phosphate, increased urea, increased creatinine, hyperglycaemic, increased ALT, increased AST, off the charts CK, off the charts PT and APTT

Blood gas- PaO2- 52 mmHg, PaCO2- 78 mmHg

Treatment

* supplemental oxygen, minimal stress

* Immediate intubation and PPV required

* Tiger snake antiserum, repeated vials until anti-venom detection kit shows negative resulto n blood

* Fluid therapy and nursing support

* monitor coagulation times, CK, renal function

* Long term prognosis is good

543
Q
A
544
Q

Visualize the capillary (systemic circulation), interstitium, parietal pleura, viscercal pleura, interstitium and capillary (pulmonary circulation). Where do the lymphatics fit in?

A
545
Q

Oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure?

A
546
Q

Where does the pleural fluid go from the pleural space?

A
547
Q
A

Paradoxical breathing– inward movement of the abdomen with inspiration

548
Q

Clinical presentation of pleural space disease

A
549
Q

What do you do to stabilise a patient with pleural space disease?

A
550
Q

Historical clues causative of pleural space disease

A
551
Q

Algorithm with suspicion of pleural space disease

A
552
Q

Performing a thoracocentesis for pleural space disease

A
553
Q

Categories of pleural effusions… < 25 Total Protein (g/L) & Total nucleated count < 1.5 x 10^ 9 /L… Causes?

A
554
Q

What does transudate cause?

A

Hypoalbuminaemia & Right congestive heart failure

555
Q

Categories of pleural effusions… 25-75 Total Protein (g/L) & Total nucleated count 1-7 x 10^ 9 /L… Causes?

A
556
Q

Categories of pleural effusions… >30 Total Protein (g/L) & Total nucleated count > 7 x 10^ 9 /L… Causes?

A
557
Q

Specific pleural space occupiers

A
558
Q
A
559
Q

Chylothorax aetiology

A
560
Q

diagnostic approach of chylothorax

A

ECG for heart failure in cats

561
Q

Treatment of chylothorax

A
562
Q

Causes of haemothorax

A
563
Q

Diagnostic approach to haemothorax

A
564
Q

Haemothorax treatment

A
565
Q

Presentation/signalment of pyothorax

A
566
Q

Aetiology of pyothorax

A
567
Q

Diagnostic approach to pyothorax

A
568
Q

Pyothorax organisms

A
569
Q

Pyothorax therapy

A

* Medical treatment vs. surgery

* When is surgery indicated?

  • Dogs- always
  • Cats- if have pulmonary abscessation or migrating FB
  • Both species

– if have been treated medically–> ongoing fluid and infection

– lack of clinical improvement after 3-7 days

– evidence of foreign material, pulmonary or mediastinal lesions, isolation of actinomyces

** consider referral after stabilization

570
Q

Neoplastic exudates

A
571
Q

Fluid analysis from the thorax summary

A
572
Q

Types of pneumothorax

A
573
Q

Causes of pneumothorax

A
574
Q
A

Pneumothorax

575
Q

Pneumothorax: Diagnostic and therapeutic approach

A
576
Q

Subacute pneumothorax

A
577
Q

Diaphragmatic hernia causes? Resp dysfunction? Acute signs? Chronic signs?

A
578
Q
A

Diaphragmatic hernia

579
Q

Treatment of diaphragmatic hernia

A
580
Q

Rib tumours? Clinical signs? Tests? Treatment? Prognosis?

A
581
Q

What alerts us to mediastinal disease?

A
582
Q

Mediastinal disease causes?

A
583
Q
A
584
Q

Mediastinal diagnostic approach

A
585
Q
A
586
Q
A
587
Q
A
588
Q

Limits of the thoracic cavity

A
589
Q
A
590
Q

Name the thoracic lung lobes

A
591
Q

Conditions of the thorax that require surgery or thoracic drainage

A

* Thoracic wall conditions- Trauma (HBC, dog fights–> rib #, flail chest) OR rib neoplasia

* Diaphragmatic hernia (traumatic, acute v. chronic) OR congenital (Peritoneal Pericardial Diaphragmatic Hernia- PPDH)

* Pleural disease- Chylothorax (thoracic duct ligation), Pericardiectomy, Pneumothorax

* Pulmonary pathology- neoplasia, lung lobe torsion, bullae/blebs

* Mediastinal masses (thymoma)

* Correction of congenital cardiac or vascular ring anomalies (PRAA/PDA)

* Oesophageal foreign bodies

592
Q

Pleural disease

A
593
Q

Thoracocentesis

A

* Diagnostic and/or therapeutic

* Obtain samples for clinical pathology and to provide therapeutic drainage of air or fluid

* Needles or over the needle catheter (14-22 G), 3 way taps, syringes, extension tubing, clinical pathology sample containers

* Conscious or sedation/ anaesthesia

* Pre-oxygenate and O2 supplementation during procedure

* Patient position variable- sternal preferred if conscious animal

* Clip both sides of the thorax and aseptically prepare skin

* Local anaesthetic infiltration at site

* Enter needle perpendicular to the thoracic wall off cranial edge of rib (7-9 ICS)

* Withdraw fluid or air with syringe attached to needle

594
Q

Thoracostomy tube placement

A
595
Q

Indications for thoracotomy

A
596
Q

Thoracotomy approaches
+ equipment

A
597
Q

Left intercostal thoracotomy- indications?

A
598
Q

Right intercostal thoracotomy indications

A
599
Q

Medial sternotomy approach indications

A
600
Q

Transdiaphragmatic thoracotomy approach indications

A
601
Q

Different intercostal spaces for different conditions

A
602
Q

Most common ICS for intercostal thoracotomy? Anatomic landmarks?

A
603
Q

The layers you cut through for an intercostal thoracotomy left 4th or 5th ICS

A
604
Q

Thoracoscopy indications

A
605
Q

What might herniate into the thoracic cavity with a diaphragmatic hernia? What is the congenital condition?

A
606
Q

Diaphgragmatic hernia clinical signs

A
607
Q

Diaphragmatic hernia diagnosis

A
608
Q
A
609
Q

Indications and C/I for D-hernia surgery

A
610
Q

Anaesthetic management in D-hernia surgery

A
611
Q

D-hernia surgery–approach? two types of tear?

A
612
Q

D-hernia surgery suture method? When do freshen edges? What else?

A
613
Q

PPDH

A
614
Q

Flail chest causes? Treatment?

A
615
Q
A
616
Q

Rib tumours approach

A
617
Q

Prognosis of two main types of rib tumours

A
618
Q

Primary lung neoplasia in cats and dogs

A
619
Q

Summary of thoracic surgeries

A

Summary

Thoracocentesis and thoracic tube placement

are important skills that will be used in

general practice for diagnostic and

therapeutic indications

Minimize stress and handling of animals with

pleural space disease

Thorough knowledge of anatomy and

cardiorespiratory physiology required for

thoracic surgery

620
Q

URT Anatomy? How do you know that is where the problem is?

A
621
Q

Stertor v. stridor– both associated with what?

A
622
Q

Common conditions that affect the upper airway

A
623
Q

BOAS signalment? Clinical signs?

A
624
Q

Pathophysiology of BOAS

A

Increased airway resistance by narrowed airway causes increase in intraluminal pressure gradient during inspiration.

Leads to mucosal inflammation and swelling of airways.

625
Q

Concurrent conditions seen with BOAS

A
626
Q

BOAS initial management

A
627
Q

BOAS Surgical correction

A

Surgical correction:

Nares – wedge resection (images and video)

Soft palate – landmarks, sharp incision and suturing versus harmonic scalpel, laser, ligasure

Everted laryngeal saccules

Role of cortoicosteroids, acepromazine, oxygen supplementation, temporary tracheostomy in post op period.

minimal hemorrhage, swelling, and signs of postoperative pain and potential bactericidal properties of laser ablation. The laser coagulates small vessels as it cuts, seals lymphatic vessels, minimizes tissue handling and subsequent swelling, and decreases signs of postoperative pain by sealing nerve endings.14 Use of the laser reduces the duration of surgeries by more than half

628
Q

BOAS Laryngeal collapse stages?

A
629
Q

BOAS Post op care

A
630
Q

BOAS Prognosis

A
631
Q

Types of laryngeal paralysis

A

Laryngeal paralysis

Signalment, clinical signs (voice change, exercise intolerance, heat stress), diagnosis [insert video of lar par exam here]

Mention congenital lar par here as well – Bouvier de Flandres

Concurrent conditions, (megaoesophagus, aspiration pneumonia, polyneuropathy, hypothyroidism)

Most commonly idiopathic.

Equipment required for sedated laryngeal exam (laryngoscope, IV catheter access, oxygen, ET tubes ready (variety of sizes) sedation agents to use and those to avoid). Light plane of anaesthesia.

632
Q

Clinical signs of Lar Par

A
633
Q
A
634
Q

Lar par diagnosis

A
  • Medial displacement of vocal folds or no movement during inspiration → Laryngeal paralysis
  • Assistant to monitor phase of respiration and note inspiration so evaluator can assess vocal fold movement
  • Paradoxical vocal fold movement during expiration passively moves vocal folds laterally simulating abduction
  • Doxapram will increase respiratory effort and intrinsic laryngeal motion (Doxapram hydrochloride is a respiratory stimulant. Administered intravenously, doxapram stimulates an increase in tidal volume, and respiratory rate)
635
Q

Laryngeal paralysis treatment

A

Treatment – unilateral arytenoid lateralization, moderate tension.

Surgical anatomy unfamiliar for most as we do not do surgery here regularly. Important to stress need for appropriate aftercare of these patients. ICU 24 hour monitoring required with oxygen source.

[Image of pre and post adducted arytenoid]

Post op complications – life long risk of aspiration pneumonia

636
Q

Larynx anatomy- tx for lar par

A
637
Q

Prognosis of Lar par

A
638
Q

Indications for tracheostomy

A
639
Q

Permanent Tracheostomy Indications? Risks?

A
640
Q
A
641
Q

Permanent tracheostomy how to

A
642
Q

Neoplasia of the upper airway– Types? diagnosis? Treatment?

A
643
Q

Laryngeal and tracheal neoplasia

A
644
Q

BOAS Summary

A
645
Q

Lar par summary

A
646
Q

What is megaoesaphagus?

A

* Peristalsis fails to occur properly and the oesophagus is enlarged.

The muscles in the esophagus that

are responsible for pushing food along do not work properly because the nerves

that control them are partially or comp

letely paralyzed. A dog’s esophagus runs

parallel to the floor. Because t

he esophagus muscles are weak or non-

functioning, whatever the dog eats or drinks can pool in the esophagus stretching

the esophagus further and

potentially creating pouches or pockets. These

pockets collect food and water, where t

hey will remain until the dog regurgitates

them.