Respiratory 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the 2 hit theory of BRDC?

A

that first the animal is infected with a virus like BRSV PI-3 IBR or BVDV and then that virus causes damage allowing bacteria to creep in like mannheimia haemolytica pasteurella multocida histophilus somni and mycoplasma bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

enzootic pneumonia of calves affects animals that

A

are less than 6 months old, housed indoors, a dairy calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what will you see on post mortem with enzootic pneumonia

A

bronchopneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does bovine respiratory syncytial virus cause disease

A

the virus impairs function of the alveolar macrophages leading to bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does BRSV cause

A

a bronchointerstitial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

manheimia haemolytica is a _______ bacteria of the nasopharynx that causes __________

A

commensal, pneumonic manheimiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the gross lesions of mannheimia pneumonia

A

cranioventral bronchpneumonia with abundant fibrin, on cut section their are coagulative areas of necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why do you see “oat cells” on histo with mannheimia pneumonia

A

mannheimia haemolyticia produces a leukotoxin that lysis neutrophils and these apparently look like oats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

one is one difference between pneumonia caused by p. multocida and m. heamolytica

A

p. multocida does not cause coagulative necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

histophilus somni can cause several conditions but

A

only one condition is usually present in any one animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what can h. somni cause

A

bronchopneumonia and pleuritis, pericarditis, polyarthritis, thromboembolic meningoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are mycoplasmas

A

the smallest free living self replicating organisms that LACK A CELL WALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how do mycoplasmas impair the respiratory tract

A

they adhere to the ciliated epithelium and cause ciliostasis- thus the mucocillary apparatus stops working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most common mycoplasma in cattle, what disease syndromes does it cause

A

mycoplasma bovis

pneumonia, polyarthritis, otitis media, mastitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

secondary colonization of what pathogen is common with mycoplasm bovis

A

trueperella pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what gross lesions will you see with mycoplasma bovis

A

caseonecrotic bronchopneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

other than cattle, who else does mycoplasma bovis severely affect

A

bison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are mycobacteria

A

non-motile, non-spore forming coccobacilli that must be stained with acid fast stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the big 3 mycobacteria diseases in vet med

A
  1. TB
  2. johnes
  3. leprosy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the gross lesion associated with tb

A

the tubercle- nodular granuloma that is often mineralized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the 3 characteristic features of a tubercle on histo

A
  1. central necrosis
  2. small numbers of bacteria
  3. rim epithelioid macrophages and multinucleated giant cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

tb causes what type of pneumonia

A

granulomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

tb in cattle is caused by

A

mycobacterium bovis and tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the wildlife reservoirs in Canada for tb

A

cervids and bison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

fog fevers actual name is

A

acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what causes fog fever, when is it likely to occur

A

3-methylindole toxicity- a toxic metabolite from l-tryptophan

occurs in the fall when cattle are moved onto lush pasture, about 4-10 days after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the gross lesions of fog fever

A

foam in the trachea, interstitial pneumonia , interbular and bullous emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

lung worm infection by Dictyocaulus viviparus causes what kind of pneumonia in cattle

A

granulomatous

29
Q

parasitic pneumonia in small ruminants is caused by

A

muelleris capillaris

30
Q

true or false the most common bacteria causes of pneumonia in small ruminants are the same as in cows

A

true

31
Q

what do lentiviruses do in small ruminants

A

cause slowly progressive disease with no immune supression

32
Q

what are the 2 lentiviruses discussed in lecture that affect goats and sheep

A

ovine progressive pleuropneumonia (OPP)

caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAEV)

33
Q

OPP is transmitted mainly through

A

colostrum

34
Q

what are the gross lesions of OPP

A

heavy pale lungs that fail to collapse, rubbery textured lungs, caudal lobes mostly affected

35
Q

what are the two main clinicopathologic forms of CAEV

A

in adults animals viral infection is associated with arthritis

in young 2-4 month old individuals neurologic disease

36
Q

what is the name for the condition that is a contagious retroviral pulmonary carcinoma mostly affected sheep

A

ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma

37
Q

in the PRDC, what are the 3 most common viruses, and what are the 3 most common bacteria

A

viruses: - procine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus
- post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrom (porcine circovirus 2)
-swine influenza virus

bacteria: mycoplasma hypneumoniae
- actinbacillus pleuropneumoniae
pasteruella multocida

38
Q

what kind of pneumonia does actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae cause? what is unique about this specific pneumonia

A

fibrinous bronchopneumonia- different because in mainly affects the middle or caudal lobe, bronchopneumonia’s have a cranioventral pattern

39
Q

what causes enzootic pneumonia in pigs

A

mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

40
Q

what are the gross lesions of enzootic pneumonia

A

red tan gray cranioventral lobular discoloration, rubbery firm texture

41
Q

PRRSV causes what gross lesions in the lungs

A

lungs fail to collapse- typical features of interstitial pneumonia

42
Q

clusters of alveoli that contain necrotic alveolar macrophages and aggregates of free chromatin on histo suggest

A

PRRS infection

43
Q

what is the most consistent gross lesion with porcine circovirus 2 infection

A

lymphadenopathy

44
Q

why are pigs considered mixing pots for influenza viruses

A

because they have cell surface receptors for avian human and swine influenza strains

45
Q

what gross lesions do you see with SIV

A

bronchopneumonia, large edematous lymohnodes

46
Q

define equine recurrent airway obstruction (heaves)

A

airway hyper responsiveness with neutrophilic airway inflammation in creased mucus production and bronchoconstriction

47
Q

is airway obstruction caused by rao irreversible or reversible

A

reversible- caused by bronchospasm

48
Q

roa targets

A

small bronchioles and caudorsal lung

49
Q

what are the 3 important disease presenations with rhodococcus equi

A
  1. enteritis
  2. polyarthritis
  3. pneumonia
50
Q

what are the gross lesions of r. equi,

A

pyogranulomatous bronchopneumonia with tan firm raised coalescing nodules

51
Q

equine bronchopneumonia is an opportunistic pneumonia commonly due to

A

aspiration of normal flora of the upper resp tract

52
Q

what is Dictyocaulus arnfieldi? what pneumonia does this cause

A

its the equine lung worm, and causes granulomatous pneumonia

53
Q

kennel cough is the common name for

A

canine infectious respiratory disease complex

54
Q

what are the viral pathogens associated with CIRD

A

canine parainfluenxa , canine respiratory cornoavirus, canine adenocirus type 2 canine herpes virus 1

55
Q

whats the most common bacterial pathogen associated with CIRDC

A

BORDETELLA BROCNHISEPTICA

56
Q

which pathogen assocaited with CIRDC is also associated with fading puppy syndrome

A

canine herpesvirus 1

57
Q

what is canine distemper virus and what animals does it infect

A

a morbilivirus that affects carnivores like canids and mustelids (fereets and mink) procyonids (raccoons) (pinnipeds (seals) felids (lions)

58
Q

what do you see clinically with distemper virus

A

systemic disease with pathology in the resp, gi, and CNS, also maybe skin lesions, issues with teeth and eyes or abortion

59
Q

what kind of pneumonia does distemper cause

A

interstitial

60
Q

what are the characteristic histo lesions associated with distemper

A

cytoplasmic and intranucleat inclusions within epithelial cells and epithelial syncytia

61
Q

what are the big 4 systemic mycoses, what is important to remember about them

A
  1. blastomyces dermatitidis
  2. coccidioides immitis
  3. cryptococcus neofarmans (and gatti)
  4. histoplasma capsulatum

all are zoonotic and all are primary pathogens, the hyphal/ mold form is infectious

62
Q

what kind on pneumonia does canine herpes virus cause

A

bronchointersitial

63
Q

which fungus causes Blastomycosis, what are the symptoms

A

blatomyces dermatitdis, can cause infection of the resp system, systemic infection or may be cutaneous (less common)

64
Q

what is the most common cause of systemic mycotic disease in cats

A

cryptococcosis

65
Q

what are the signs of cryptococcosis

A

upper resp tract infection, encephalitis

66
Q

on histo, histoplasma organisms are found

A

within macrophages

67
Q

what is the name for heart worm, clinical signs

A

dirofilaria immitis, pulmonary hypertension

68
Q

what are the viral and bacterial pathogens for the feline resp disease complex

A

FHV1 Fcalici virus chlamydia felis

69
Q

asthma is defined by

A

reversible airway obstruction