Respiratory 2.45-2.52 Flashcards

1
Q

KCO significance?

A

Means drops if lung itself is affected e.g. COPD; but if extrapulmonary then TLCO decreases but KCO normal or even SUPERNORMAL to compensate

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2
Q

TLCO and KCO in obesity ie extrapulmonary restriction?

A

TLCO decreased, KCO increased/normal

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3
Q

Burden of occupational lung disease?

A

Causes 15% COPD/asthma, 2% lung cancer, 80% EAA; plus mesothelioma, infection, pneumoconiosis

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4
Q

Fibrogenic and non-fibrogenic occupational lung disease?

A

Silicosis, CWP and asbestosis all fibrogenic; non-fibrogenic includes siderosis (Fe) and baritosis (barium)

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5
Q

Silicosis?

A

Silica dust. Need unnatural forces to get small enough particules ie sandblasting, masonry, mining/quarrying. Much smaller lethal exposure than CWP. Restrictive pattern; dense fibrosis. Nodules are bifringent and sparkling. Get classic silicosis, acute silicosis, COPD, cancer, (TB) i.e. increases everything.

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6
Q

Early and late appearance of silicosis?

A
  1. Early = diffuse, well-defined nodules on CXR. Predominately upper lobe. May see calcification. On CT, may see hilar and mediastinal l’dopathy, lymph node calcifciation. (DD sarcoid, Tb, diffuse malignancy);
  2. Late.See multiple solid masses in upper zone; usually symmetrical/bilateral, graduallly migrating towards the hilum.
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7
Q

CWP?

A

Fibrogenic pneumoconiosis; coal deposition. Same appearance as silicosis i.e. simple gives nodular upper zone shadowing, progressive massive fibrosis gives multiple large opacities (predominately upper/middle zones). See dust accumulation around terminal bronchioles on histology.

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8
Q

Causes of high TLCO?

A

Polycythaemia, asthma (may be normal), exercise (increased pulmonary blood volume), pulmonary haemorrhage

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9
Q

Pleural thickening?

A

aka benign diffuse pleural thickening. Can occur in silicosis/Tb/radiation/chronic
pneumonia/empyema but will be unilateral; bilateral in asbestos. SOB, restriction. Fibres cause inflammation, leading to chronic pleural effusions and fibrosis (thickening). 15-20 years latency . Irreversible but usually not progressive. DD inc. mesothelioma. Need regular screening

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10
Q

Asbestosis?

A

Diffuse interstitial fibrosis; parenchymal (separate to pleural disease). Basal! Rare for fibrosis. Get severe SOB, increased risk of lung cancer. Hear fine end inspiratory crackles. Get restrictive deficit, TLC and VC down. Ratio preserved. Diffusion impaired (TLCO/KCO) so get hypoxaemia. Can get cor pulmonale eventually.

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11
Q

Diagnosing asbestosis?

A

Imaging or histology consistent with it, evidence of causation (occupational history, markers of exposure (pleural plaques, recovery of asbestos bodies), exclusion of alternative possibilities HRCT better than CXR.. Most will have concurrent pleural plaques.

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12
Q

Key differential for asbestosis?

A

IPF. Occupational history, pleural plaques; clubbing less common in asbestosis. Important for treatment. Remember not all asbestos lung disease is asbestosis!

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13
Q

Malignant mesothelioma?

A

Long latency (40 years), breathlessness, pain, sweats, weight loss and anorexia. Death in 18 months. Pleura “enroaches” onto lung; may see reduction in lung volume so mediastinum shifts towards lesion. Predilection for direct invasion and metastasis.

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14
Q

Diagnosing mesothelioma?

A

CXR and CT for suspicion; confirm with aspiration[thoracentesis] for malignant cells/tissue biopsy [thoracoscopy]. DD HF, Tb.

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15
Q

How many years is generally needed for CWP?

A

~20. Silicosis is fewer (remember graph)

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16
Q

Findings that point towards EAA?

A

BAL with lymphocytosis, compatible CXR and HRCT, IgG to farmer’s lung-type microbes etc., histology, compatible history or evidence of exposure from Ab, decreased TLCO, positive challenge test

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17
Q

BAL in EAA?

A

Negative findings are useful to rule out EAA; positive (i.e. alveolar lymphocytosis) is useful but may also be found in asymptomatic people (false positives)

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18
Q

Treating EAA?

A

Reduce exposure, give steroids; stopping immediately usually not the best thing to do!

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19
Q

What are Light’s criteria?

A
  1. Pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5
  2. Pleural LDH / serum LDH >0.6
  3. Pleural LDH >2/3 ULN for serum LDH.
    Pleural fluid is an exudate if one or more are met.
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20
Q

How does mineral dust cause lung disease?

A

Particles become lodged, are taken up by macrophages, which are activated and released cytokines etc. As silica etc. is indigestible, macrophage dies, particle is taken up by another and process is perperuated.

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21
Q

Two types of occupational asthma?

A
  1. Sensitiser-induced OA (90%). Latency period between first exposure and immunological response (allergy); IgE mediated (so must be reaction to protein?)
  2. Irritant-induced OA = RADS (reactive airway dysfunction syndrome). Occurs a few hours after exposed to high concentration of irritant; acutely dangerous but may have chronic sequelae (i.e. lifelong asthma)
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22
Q

IgE in occupational asthma?

A

Total IgE raised indicates atopy and therefore predilection; can look for specific IgE to allergen but may get false negatives.

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23
Q

Use of methylcholine challenge?

A

Take baseline FEV1; inhale increasing doses of potent bronchoconstrictor; get PD20 (dose needed to reduce FEV1 by 20%. If very low, indicates airway hyper-responsiveness (hallmark of asthma).

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24
Q

Why are OA symptoms often worse after work?

A

Get late response after ~12 hours; must observe for this when testing for OA. Same as with allergy (early is mast cell degranulation following specific IgE cross-linking; late is mast cell mediated and recruits lymphocytes/eosinophils to site; takes 8-12 hours).

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25
Q

Causative agents for OA?

A
  1. HMW allergens (flour, dander, enzymes). Proteins, make specific IgE and get type 1 HS response. Natural counterparts.
  2. LMW agents (CHEMICALS) e.g. isocyanates, epoxy resins. Small and very reactive; react with proteins to give novel allergens but are not themselves allergens; may be no specific IgE (hence FNs). No natural counterparts.
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26
Q

Features of OA?

A

Onset often in one year of new work, have latent phase of asymptomatic exposure, get evening/night-time symptoms (delayed response), worse when working and BETTER AT WEEKENDS/HOLIDAYS, worse with heavier exposure/no protection, associated nasal/eye symptoms, other workers likely to be affected?

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27
Q

Sputum eosinophils in OA?

A

Induce fresh sputum with hypertonic saline; associated with inhalation challenge testing (PD20). Levels of eosinophilic airway inflammation. Suppressed by cigarette smoking. More associated with HMW than LMW.

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28
Q

Risk factors for OA?

A

Atopy increases risk of OA in HMW agents; smoking increases risk of sensitisation to flour, seafood, isocyanatesm platinum salts, coffee and castor bean. Atopy also means develop sensitisation to HMW (IgE forming) FASTER

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29
Q

Most common causes of OA in UK?

A

Isocyanates (e.g. paint-spraying), flour/grain, latex, cleaning products.

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30
Q

Preventing OA?

A
  1. Limiting exposure (ventilation, RPE, reallocation)
  2. Pre-employment screening not effective unless history of sensitisation to certain Ag
  3. Health surveillance could be key in identifying early
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31
Q

Prognosis OA?

A

Loss of income, 1/3 achieve symptomatic recovery; likely to worsen if remain exposed. 1/3 unemployed <6 years after diagnosis

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32
Q

Post-OA?

A

Once becomes established, can get symptoms triggered by “normal” asthma factors like cold/exercise etc. Means can miss “better on weekends”!

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33
Q

Serial PEFs/spirometry in OA?

A

Done when at work and when away; may show variable AW obstruction (hallmark of asthma) and possible relationship between symptoms/PFTs/work. Assessment may be difficult as can exaggerate or underplay.

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34
Q

Serial methycholine measurements?

A

Should show sequential improvement away from work and rapid deterioration when return

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35
Q

Chronic bronchitis pathophysiology?

A

Chronic/recurrent excessive mucus secretion in the bronchial tree; caused by smoke irritation so should improve when stops smoking. Caused by mucous gland hypertrophy and increased number of goblet cells.

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36
Q

Emphysema pathophysiology?

A

Increase in size of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of their walls without obvious fibrosis; causes obstruction because airways collapse with distal air trapping so FEV1 drops.

37
Q

Indications for LTOT in COPD?

A
  1. Pa02 <7.3 when stable
  2. Pa02 <8 and one of:
    - > secondary polycythaemia
    - > nocturnal hypoxaemia
    - > peripheral oedema
    - > pulmonary HTN
38
Q

Diagnosing chronic bronchitis?

A

Symptom based; presence of cough productive of sputum on most days for at least 3 months of 2 successive years.

39
Q

Three causes of airway obstruction (in small airways)?

A
  1. Emphysema (loss of elastic recoil leaves alveoli prone to collapse on expiration)
  2. Airway inflammation (airway wall thickens, due to smoke); get squamous cell metaplasia and fibrosis.
  3. Mucus secretions accumulating and obstructing lumen
40
Q

What is minute volume and why is it helpful?

A

Volume of gas inhaled and exhaled in one minute/ inversely proportional with PaC02 (hypoventilation)

41
Q

“Cause” of T2 RF?

A

Hypoventilation, increased deadspace ventilation (areas that are not exchanging) and some V/Q mismatching. T2 RF is synonymous with ventilatory failure (ventilation is adequate in T1)

42
Q

Nocturnal hypoventilation characterised by?

A

Increased PaCO2, reduced PaO2.

43
Q

Causes of hypoventilation/resp. insufficiency?

A

Muscle disease, chest wall abnormality, COPD, central and obstructive sleep apnoea, spinal injury, diaphragm paralysis

44
Q

Respiratory function tests for hypoventilation?

A
  1. FVC/SNIP/MIP/MEP (assess insp/exp. function); do not actually assess hypoventilation. Useful prognostically.
  2. Overnight O2/CO2 monitoring
  3. ABG (urgency of treatment). Invasive.
  4. Venous bicarb (total CO2)
  5. Sleep studies
45
Q

Physical signs of respiratory insufficiency?

A

Reduced chest expansion, fast RR, weak cough, wean sniff, accessory muscle recruitment at rest. Particularly important for patients with bulbar involvement who cannot perform PFTs

46
Q

Venous bicarb. vs ABG?

A

ABG may be normal during the day but venous bicarb is “summary” of 24 hours so may be increased in nocturnal hypoventilation. Also easier to obtain.

47
Q

Signs of OSA?

A

Crowded pharangeal airspace, increased Mallampati score, retrognathia, tonsils, “difficult to intubate”, collar size >16.5, nasal obstruction e.g. polyps

48
Q

Deciding on treatment for OSA?

A

Qualitative decision; based on level of symptoms, severity of OSA (used AHI score). Important because compliance with CPAP is very poor.

49
Q

How does CPAP work in OSA?

A

Continuous; does not ventilate/cycle; just splints the upper airway open. Newer machines can auto-titrate. Symptoms improve over ~6 months; must be on treatment forever or symptoms will return. Can check compliance.

50
Q

Driving and OSA?

A

Untreated = 8* risk of RTA; CPAP normalises this. Patient must inform DVLA of diagnosis.

51
Q

DMD and hypoventilation?

A

Hereditary NM disease causing respiratory failure; X linked, recessive, mean LE 19. 3/4 deaths due to hypercapnic respiratory failure.

52
Q

NIV and hypoventilation?

A

NIV = BIPAP. Has changed life expectancy. Issues are with timing of NIV, nutrition, quality of life, cough assist, cardiomyopathy etc.

53
Q

Progression from hypoventilation (of any cause)?

A

Get nocturnal hypoventilation, then continuous hypoventilation, then chronic respiratory failure. Improved survival and QoL with NIV.

54
Q

Why do ventilation symptoms present when asleep?

A

Lose ventilatory drive and ventilation; not a problem in healthy individuals. Respitatory centre in medulla gets less stimulation from cortex, and is less responsive to chemical (e.g. hypercapnia) and mechanical (chest wall/AW receptors) stimuli. Minute volume falls, PCO2 rises, respiratory muscle activity decreases (particularly in REM).

55
Q

What happens in alveolar hypoventilation?

A

O2 is not replenished properly and CO2 is not washed out so get T2 RF. (T1 is V/Q problem so CO2 will stay normal as long as ventilation is preserved). Can manifest as acute asphyxia or chronic ventilatory failure.

56
Q

Is all ventilatory failure (T2 RF) lung related?

A

No; can be anywhere from brain to alveoli (polio, foreign body, tonsils, diffuse airway obstruction, ARDS, pleural tumour/fibrosis, rib fracture, obesity, kyphoscolioisis, trauma, GBS, muscle relaxants, myopathy, CVA).

57
Q

Four main causes of chronic T2 RF (ventilatory failure)?

A

Obesity, thoracic cage abnormalities, NM disease, obesity-related hypoventilation syndrome.

58
Q

How does NIV work?

A

Patient inspiring triggers positive pressure, increasing volume inspired. As patient breathes out, machine reduces pressure (not to zero), allowing expiration while keeping small airways open for longer (increased tidal volume).

59
Q

Difference between T2RF and OSA?

A

T2RF is ventilatory failure; caused by obesity/NM disease/thoracic cage defects etc.; is present all the time (and apparent on ABG) but gets worse during the night purely because ventilatory drive is reduced. OSA is disease that only occurs at night due to collapse of upper airway with loss of pharangeal tone; will have normal function during the day. Treatment for first is BIPAP (as have ventilatory failure), OSA is CPAP.

60
Q

Treating OSA implications for IHD? And CPAP?

A

Recurrent apnoeas/arousals causes formation of ROS which damage vasculature and promote inflammation; increases HTN/CVA/MI. Also get increased SNS arousal and blood pressure when trying to halt apnoeas. Clear link between OSA and metabolic syndrome, in both directions. CPAP shown to reduce HTN.

61
Q

Actual criteria for OSA diagnosis?

A

> 15 apnoeas or hypopnoeas per hour, each lasting 10 seconds (AHI >15); usually associated with O2 desaturation of >4%. To be regarded as clinically significant, need this alone with daytime sleepiness etc.

62
Q

What is central sleep apnoea?

A

Relatively uncommon condition where cessation of airflow at nose and mouth is associated with lack of respiratory muscle activity. Assoc. with unstable ventilatory control system; can be caused by brainstem infarcts. May be secondary reflex to OSA (obstructive apnoeas precede central apnoeas), or seen in Cheyne-Stokes.

63
Q

Diagnosing IPF?

A

Exclude other causes, restrictive pattern, impaired gas exchange, imaging shows bibasal reticular abnormalities, ground-glass shadowing (seen also in hypersensitivity pneumonitis), age >50, >3 months illness, bibasal inspiratory crackles, biopsy/BAL shows no alternative diagnosis, insidious unexplained SOB.

64
Q

HRCT sarcoidosis?

A

Bilateral hilar l’dopathy, small nodules with beading on fissures, and nodules in bronchovascular pattern.

65
Q

Investigating sarcoid?

A

CXR, HRCT, then biopsy (trans/endobronchial showing granulomas in 90% BAL shows lymphocytic alveolitis. Can be diagnosed on clinical grounds (BHL key).

66
Q

Histology of sarcoid?

A

Non-necrotising, (non-caseating) granulomas. May progress to cause fibrosis. BAL shows lymphocytosis. Biopsy shows alveolar wall infiltration.

67
Q

Presentation of HP/EAA?

A

Cough, SOB, and often systemic features ie fever, weight loss, flu-like due to immune component. Inflammatory reaction to inhalation of allergen (organic or non organic). Pigeon fancier’s, farmer’s, cheese washer’s.

68
Q

O/E EAA?

A

Crackles, wheeze (as it affects terminal bronchioles) and SQUEAKS (due to bronchiolitis; seen in kids too). Odd for interstitial lung disease, but occurs because it affects the small airways

69
Q

Ideal imaging in EAA?

A

Expiratory HRCT; get mosaic attenuation with black areas where air is trapped distal to inflamed bronchioles, and white areas where the distal alveoli are inflamed. Also see prominent groundglass shadowing. Late features include honeycombing (with fibrosis). Mid and upper zones!!!!

70
Q

Diagnosing EAA?

A

History/exposure, +ve antibody response, compatible imaging (HRCT). Biopsy often unnecessary (but would show lymphocytic infiltrate).

71
Q

EAA patho?

A

In sensitised individuals, inhalation of allergens e.g. avian proteins provokes hypersensitivity reaction. Acutely, alveoli infilitrated with acute inflammatory cells. Chronically, get granuloma formation and obliterative bronchiolitis.

72
Q

PFTs in EAA?

A

Reversible restrictive pattern, reduced TLCO during acute attacks (acute); chronic sees persistent changes.

73
Q

Where in lung do you see EAA changes?

A

Upper zone; get consolidation/mottling acutely and chronically get fibrosis/honeycombing.

74
Q

Bloods for EAA?

A

Positive serum precipitins (IgG against specific Ag); just indicates exposure and sensitisation rather than active disease so get false positives in asymptomatic patients.. Not IgE!

75
Q

Symptoms of EAA?

A

Within 4-6 hours of exposure, get fever, rigors, myalgia, dry cough, dyspnoea, crackles, wheeze less prominent. Chronically, get increasing SOB, weight loss, type 1 RF and cor pulmonale.

76
Q

Egg-shell calcification of hilar nodes?

A

Silicosis

77
Q

Causes of high TLCO?

A

Asthma, polycythaemia, L-R cardiac shunts, exercise.

78
Q

What two parameters are likely to trigger NIV in acute COPD?

A

Acidaemia and hypercapnia (more likely to be needed in patients at risk of T2RF).

79
Q

Four contraindications to NIV?

A

Reduced consciousness, facial/upper airway trauma or surgery, pneumothorax, inability to protect the airway e.g. nerve paralysis

80
Q

Other tests in asthma?

A

FeNo, blood eosinophils, bronchoconstrictor challenge test (airway hyperresponsiveness), allergy testing (skin prick, RAST)

81
Q

Chronic vs acute EAA?

A

Acute is flu-like, 4-8 hours post exposure, infiltrate on CXR, responds well if removed Ag. Lung volume tests may show volume reduction and impaired gas exchange; CXR may be normal.Chronic is progressive DOB, upper zone fibrosis, restrictive IRREVERSIBLE spirometry).

82
Q

Common features of ILD?

A

Progressive breathlessness, dry cough, lung crackles. Diffuse infiltrates on CXR. PFTs show restriction, impaired gas diffusion and hypoxaemia with hypocapnia.

83
Q

Which two ILDs have granulomas?

A

Sarcoidosis, EAA.

84
Q

Lymphocytic alveolitis is characteristic of?

A

Sarcoidosis, EAA. (Neutrophilic lavage in IPF).

85
Q

Early and late ILD?

A

Early tends to be inflammatory and responsive to corticosteroids; late tends to be irreversible fibrosis.

86
Q

HRCT in IPF?

A

Typically shows advanced fibrosis, with extensive reticulation and honeycombing in lower zones; minimal ground glass opacities (inflammation).

87
Q

What is hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

Immunologically mediated lung disease in which a hypersensitivity response occurs in an individual sensitised to a particular inhaled Ag e.g. Farmer’s lung. Inhalation provokoes complex immune response, with Ab reaction, IC formation, and complement activation giving alveolitis. Less common in smokers, because of smoke’s immunosuppressive effect.

88
Q

Diagnosing OSA?

A

Epworth score differentiates OSA from snoring; relatives often provide history of snore-apnoea cycle. Sawtooth oximetry supports this; if this is negative or equiovoal can do inpatient assesment with oximetry and video assessment. Full polysomnography rarely needed. >15 apnoeas/hypopnoeas in any hour of sleep = diagnosis.