respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

which bones make up the hard palate? (3)

A

incisive, maxillary, palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which nerve innervates the tensor veli palatini

A

The tensor veli palatini is a muscle in the head that tenses the soft palate and opens the Eustachian tube.
mandibular nerve.
the rest of the pharynx is innervated by the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerve
- levator veli palatini by IX and X.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which part of the head/ neck is dilated in horses to form the guttural pouches?
a) nasopharynx
b) auditory tube
c) tonsils
d) oropharynx

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name the areas blocked out

A

pink- epiglottis
yellow- laryngopharynx
green- palatopharyngeal arches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name the areas blocked out

A

red- nasopharynx
green- larynx
blue- oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name the 5 main cartilages of the larynx

A

The larynx is formed by five mucus-covered cartilages including single epiglottic, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages, and paired arytenoid cartilages. a few small cartilages between the arytenoid cartilages and sesamoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which is the largest cartilage of the larynx in a dog?

A

thyroid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which is the only laryngeal cartilage forming a complete rim?

A

cricoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which laryngeal cartilage has the most contact with the trachea and is most caudal?

A

cricoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what type of joints are between the laryngeal cartilages?
a) fibrous
b) synovial
c) cartilaginous

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A

top- cricoid
bottom- thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which lymph nodes drain the larynx?

A

medial retropharyngeal and cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

name the hyoid bones (6)

A

The Sick Elephants Can Be Treated
tympanohyoid- small and often cartilaginous sp not always seen
stylohyoid- attaches to styoid process of temoral bone
epihyoid
ceratohyoid
basihyoid
thyrohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which hyoid bone separates the two parts of the guttural pouch?
a) epihyoid
b) stylohyoid
c) basihyoid
d) tympanohyoid

A

B
Pouch reflected around the dorsal border of the stylohyoid bone which divides it into:
Small lateral recess
Larger medial recess
Each pouch communicates with the pharynx via the auditory tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the difference between the location of the tracheal muscles in a dog and cat between a horse and a cow?

A

in dogs and cats the muscles are external to the cartilage rings, in cows and horses they are internal to the rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

embryologically the bronchial tree and lungs form from what tissue?
a) foregut
b) hindgut
c) ectoderm
d) neuroectoderm

A

A
the lungs develop from the endoderm tissue of the anterior foregut, which is one of the three primary germ layers in an embryo; specifically, the epithelial lining of the lungs originates from the foregut endoderm while the supporting connective tissue and muscle come from the mesoderm surrounding it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which description most fits horse lungs?
a) conspicuously lobated and lobulated
b) very deeply fissured into lobes but little external evidence of lobulation
c) almost no lobation and very inconspicuous lobulation externally, no right middle lung lobe
d) conspicuously lobated and lobulated, the right cranial lobe is divided in to a cranial and caudal subsegment

A

C
b- carnivores
a- ruminants and pigs
d- cow

“lobation” refers to the division of the lung into distinct lobes separated by deep fissures, while “lobulation” describes the smaller, more detailed divisions within each lobe, created by connective tissue that separates tiny lung units called lobules
see AS notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

in which species is the tracheal bronchus identified?
a) sheep
b) rabbit
c) guinea pig
d) cow
e) pig

A

cow and pig
right cranial bronchus is tracheal bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

norepinephrine and epinephrine cause…
a) bronchoconstriction
b) bronchodilation

A

bronchodilators (via beta-2 receptors)
- The increased NO release is partly responsible for the vasodilation of the pulmonary circulation during exercise.

Acetylcholine, histamine, leukotriene- bronchospasm

Acetylcholine released from parasympathetic nerves activating muscarinic receptors can cause vasodilation through release of nitric oxide (NO) from the endothelium and vasoconstriction by direct effects on smooth muscle. Overall, the effect of parasympathetic activation is vasodilation. constricts the airways by activating muscarinic receptors on the smooth muscle lining the bronchial tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

true or false: in canine lungs there is complete separation of secondary lobules, meaning if a segmental bronchus is obstructed, there will be no ventilation of the lung it supplied

A

false.

The lungs of mammalian species differ in the degree to which they are subdivided by connective
tissue into secondary lobules. In the lungs of pigs and cattle, there is complete separation of lobules,
and in dogs and cats there is no separation. In horses and sheep there is partial separation.
This allows complete (cats and dogs) and intermediate (horses) COLLATERAL VENTILATION
of the lungs - when lobar bronchus is obstructed this part of the lung can still be ventilated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which types pf alveolar cells are important for gas exchange?
a) type 1
b) type 2
c) type 3

A

A
- TYPE I ALVEOLAR CELLS - which are simple squamous epithelium and are the main site of gas exchange.
- TYPE II ALVEOLAR (SEPTAL) CELLS are cuboidal epithelial cells containing microvilli that secrete
alveolar fluid containing SURFACTANT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

in the pulmonary vessels, hypoxia leads to…
a) vasodilation
b) vasoconstriction

A

B

hypoxia causes vasoconstriction. This is called VENTILATION–PERFUSION
COUPLING, which allows pulmonary blood to be diverted to well ventilated areas.

23
Q

in dogs the nutritional blood supply to the lungs arises…
a) directly from the aorta
b) from the 5th intercostal artery
c) from the broncho-esophageal artery
d) from the bronchial artery

A

C- in the majority of dogs the parent trunk is the bronchoesophageal
artery (Fig. 11-50), which arises from the right fifth
intercostal artery close to its origin from the aorta. The bronchoesophageal
artery crosses the left face of the esophagus and
contributes an esophageal branch before entering the root of
the lung as the bronchial artery.
At the level of the respiratory bronchiole the bronchial artery
terminates in a capillary bed that is continuous with that of
the pulmonary artery, but don’t anastomose?
True bronchial veins are found only at the hilus of the
lung. They empty into the azygos vein or intercostal vein at
the level of the seventh thoracic vertebra.
cows and horses- no bronchial vein

24
Q

pulmonary arterial systolic pressure is apx (at rest)?
a) 5mmHg
b) 25mmHg
c) 40mmHg

A

B
35mmHg at exercise in dogs
90mmHg in horses at exercise

25
Q

why are pigs and cows at higher risk of hypoxic hypertension?

A

thickest muscular layer of the
arteries and little NO secretion by endothelium. hypoxia leads to vasoconstriction, with no NO to counteract it.
High mountain disease (brisket disease) is right heart failure due to hypoxic pulmonary hypertension
in cattle residing at high altitudes

26
Q

which statement is false?
a) in dogs the mediastinum is fragile but not visibly fenestrated
b) Except in foals, small fenestrations in the mediastinum place the 2 pleural cavities in
communication in horses. Mediastinum very fragile
c) there are many small fenestrations in a cows medistinum

A

C- in cows the Mediastinum thick and able to withstand considerable pressure difference between the 2
pleural cavities. No fenestrations

Millers: In the dog the tissue in the mediastinum is extremely scanty (small or insufficient), but the pleura that covers it is not fenestrated.
Therefore one lung can be collapsed independently of
the other.

from thrall: In most dogs and cats, the mediastinal pleural layers do not
form an anatomic barrier between the left and right pleural
spaces, because normal mediastinal pleura contain fenestrations.
Thus, unilateral pleural fluid or gas is not usually contained to
one side by the mediastinum. For example, 22 of 24 dogs
having air injected into one pleural space quickly developed
bilateral pneumothorax.1 Pleural fluid or gas may remain
unilateral if the mediastinal pleura is not fenestrated; if the
normal fenestrations become closed as a result of inflammation
or plugging; or if the pleural fluid is too viscid to pass through
a normal fenestration.

27
Q

over 60 species have tracheal loops in the keel bone

28
Q

avian gas exchange takes place in the …
a) air sacs
b) air capillaries
c) alveoli
d) parabronchi

A

B
https://en.wikivet.net/Avian_Respiration_-Anatomy%26_Physiology#:~:text=Avian%20Trachea,-The%20avian%20trachea&text=The%20trachea%20can%20be%20palpated,terminal%20part%20of%20the%20trachea.

29
Q

name the paired avian air sacs

A

Paired: cervical, cranial thoracic, caudal thoracic, abdominal
Clavicular: unpaired, located dorsal and caudal to the crop in the thoracic inlet and has intra
and extrathoracic components

Cervicocephalic air sacs:
o Not connected to the lungs but connect to the caudal aspect of the infraorbital sinus

lots of bones pneumatized can vary between species- humerus, clavicle, coracoids, vertebrae, ribs femur, + others

30
Q

what is number 15

A

clavicular air sac

31
Q

the parasympathetic system causes (bronchodilation/ bronchoconstriction) by releasing (adrenaline/ acetylcholine) which acts on the (muscarinic/ nicotinic/ adrenergic) receptors on the smooth muscles

A

constriction
acetylcholine
muscarinic

also increases mucus secretion, causes vasodilation of the pulmonary vessels and regulates inflammation

bronchoconstriction also occurs in response to inflammatory mediators

32
Q

which cells form the mucociliary escalator

A

tall pseudostratified columnar ciliated respiratory epithelium

33
Q

nitric oxide causes___ in the lungs
a) vasodilation and bronchoconstriction
b) vasodilation and bronchodilation
c) vasoconstriction and bronchoconstriction
d) vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

34
Q

does pulmonary vascular resistance increase or decrease during exercise?

A

PVR is low in the normal resting animal and it decreases even further when pulmonary blood flow and/or pulmonary vascular pressures increase, as occurs during exercise. This is because an increase in pressure recruits previously unperfused vessels. Additionally, pulmonary vascular smooth muscle relaxes during exercise so that small arteries and veins dilate. Together these changes increase the capacity of the pulmonary vasculature.
In the systemic circulation, arteries and arterioles provide the primary source of vascular resistance; in the pulmonary circulation, the resistance is more evenly distributed across the arteries or arterioles and capillaries, with smaller contributions from veins (Fig. 46.4). Unlike the arterioles in the systemic circulation, the small arteries in the pulmonary circulation neither provide large resistance nor dampen the arterial pulsations; consequently, pulmonary capillary blood flow is pulsatile.

35
Q

the net effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the pulmonary vessels is?
a) vasoconstriction
b) vasodilation

A

A
Although the pulmonary circulation has both alpha-adrenergic receptors (which cause vasoconstriction) and beta-adrenergic receptors (which cause vasodilation), the net effect of sympathetic activation is vasoconstriction.
flight response to move blood to the muscles.
during exercise the vessels dilate… This dilation is in part passive as a result of the increase in intravascular pressure, which is a result of the increased blood flow. In addition, flow-induced release of nitric oxide from the endothelium also causes relaxation of smooth muscle and vessel dilation.

36
Q

how does blood from the bronchial arteries get back to the heart?

A

20% azygous
80% pulmonary veins
about 20% of bronchial venous blood returns to the right atrium by means of the azygous vein. In this manner, deoxygenated blood from the bronchial veins is returned to the right heart, which is typical of the systemic circulation. In contrast, the remaining approximately 80% of deoxygenated bronchial venous blood drains into the pulmonary veins and then the left atrium; this unique and seemingly illogical configuration results in deoxygenated blood from the bronchial veins mixing with the oxygenated blood leaving the lungs in the pulmonary veins and returning to the left heart. Vascular anastomoses between the bronchial capillaries or veins and pulmonary capillaries or veins allow deoxygenated blood from the bronchial circulation to bypass the alveoli and return to the left atrium without having participated in gas exchange. This vascular configuration is one form of an anatomic shunt because the deoxygenated blood leaving the bronchial circulation does not flow past alveoli and become oxygenated but rather is shunted directly into the left side of the heart (left atrium) for distribution in the systemic arterial circulation. The small amount of deoxygenated bronchial blood mixing with the oxygenated blood leaving the lungs contributes to the small difference between the alveolar and arterial O2 partial pressures that occurs under normal conditions

37
Q

which molecule has the highest affinity from haemoglobin?
a) CO2
b) CO
C) O2
d) NO

38
Q

when the oxygen tension decreases (eg from 100% to 75%) does more or less O2 stay bound to the red blood cells?

A

When O2 is high (98% saturated), it combines loosely and reversibly to the heme portion of the
hemoglobin
- When O2 low (75% saturated), the oxygen is released from hemoglobin
- Small amount of O2 (3%) travels dissolved in the blood without hemoglobin
- The binding of oxygen and hemoglobin is determined by oxygen tension.
- The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen varies with blood temperature, pH, carbon dioxide tension,
and the intracellular concentration of certain organic phosphates.

39
Q

how does O2 binding to haemoglobin effect CO2 diffusion
a) no effect
b) increased diffusion of CO2 in to the alveoli from the blood
c) decreased diffusion of CO2 in to the alveoli from the blood

A

B
- Binding of oxygen with hemoglobin causes displacement of CO2 from the blood into the alveoli.
This is because bound hemoglobin is a stronger acid so there is reduction of
carbaminohemoglobin, and the excess hydrogen ions reverse the bicarbonate reaction to
form CO2 which can diffuse out of the alveolus.
This effect doubles the rate of pickup of CO2 in the tissues and release in the lungs.

40
Q

which is true?
a) low pH lowers the affinity of haemoglobin for O2
b) a decrease in temperature decreases oxygen binding to haemoglobin
c) increased CO2 increases oxygen binding

A

A is true

pH of the blood –> low pH lowers the affinity of hemoglobin for O2.
- Alkalosis shifts the curve to the left à increased binding
Temperature: An increase in temperature decreases the oxygen binding (shifts the
oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right). Like increased acidity, increased
temperature is a by-product of increased metabolism.
2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG)- production increases with increased metabolism.
PCO2 - increased PCO2 is associated with decreased pH à less oxygen binding

41
Q

what is the normal PaO2 value of arterial blood on room air?
a) 80-100mmHg
b) 35-40mmHg
c) 60-70mmHg
d) 40-50mmHg

A

A
in 100% oxygen it can be 600mmHg

42
Q

what is the normal PaO2 value of venous blood?
a) 80-100mmHg
b) 35-40mmHg
c) 60-70mmHg
d) 40-50mmHg

43
Q

what is the normal PaCO2 value of arterial blood?
a) 80-100mmHg
b) 35-40mmHg
c) 60-70mmHg
d) 40-50mmHg

44
Q

what is the normal PaCO2 value of venous blood?
a) 80-100mmHg
b) 35-40mmHg
c) 60-70mmHg
d) 40-50mmHg

A

D
CO2 is produced in
tissues; therefore tissue PCO2 is higher than the PCO2 of the blood
arriving in the capillaries. CO2 diffuses down a concentration
gradient from the tissues into the blood. When the blood leaves
the tissues, its PCO2 has risen from approximately 40 mm Hg to
46 mm Hg, with exact values depending on the tissue-specific
ratio of blood flow to metabolism.

This higher CO2 content of deoxygenated blood results from the
higher buffering capacity of deoxyhemoglobin, compared with
O2-saturated hemoglobin.

co2 transported in rbc and dissolved

45
Q

how are end tidal CO2 from capnography, and PaCO2 in the venous blood similar and different?

A

Under normal circumstances, end tidal CO2 values
are very similar to but slightly lower than PaCO2 (up to 5 mm Hg
difference). The normal difference between end tidal CO2 and
PaCO2 is due to the small amount of alveolar dead space ventilation,
in which ventilated alveoli are not perfused so CO2 does not enter
the air of the affected alveoli

Furthermore,
the gradient between end tidal CO2 and PaCO2 can be a useful
diagnostic aid for various respiratory and circulatory abnormalities.
For example, in uncomplicated hypoventilation where CO2 production
exceeds alveolar ventilation, the CO2 increase in the blood
results in a similar increase in CO2 in alveolar air; thus the end
tidal CO2 to PaCO2 difference remains unchanged. In contrast, the
end tidal CO2 to PaCO2 difference is elevated by increases in alveolar
dead space ventilation such as result from pulmonary thromboembolism,
ventilation to perfusion mismatching, hypovolemia,
and decreased cardiac output, among other conditions. Obstructive
lung diseases that limit exhalation also increase the end tidal CO2
to PaCO2 gradient

46
Q

why does ventilation perfusion mismatch lead to derangements of oxygen but not C02

A

Lung disease accentuates VA/Q mismatching because of obstruction of airways, flooding of
alveoli with exudates, and local obstructions to blood flow. This mismatching has a major
effect on oxygen exchange but little effect on the exchange of carbon dioxide.
- In the case of oxygen, overventilation of some alveoli does not compensate for underventilation of others (due to saturation of Hb). in contrast to oxygen, carbon dioxide is very soluble, and because its dissociation curve is almost linear, the overventilated alveoli can compensate for those that are underventilated.
For this reason, hypercapnia (increased PaCO2), rarely occurs in the presence of lung disease.

47
Q

which are the 4 main components of an acid base test that help to decide if the patient has a normal pH and whether the cause is respiratory or metabolic?

A

pH
PaCO2
HCO3
base excess

48
Q

a patient that is alkalotic and has a low CO2 (20mmHg). is the cause respiratory or metabolic

A

respiratory alkalosis
the kidneys take longer to respond to this than the lungs take to compensate for a metabolic acidosis

49
Q

a patient has a high pH and a high HCO3 (more than 22mmol/ml). is the cause respiratory or metabolic

A

metabolic alkalosis

50
Q

a diabetic ketoacidotic patient will have…
a) high co2
b) low co2
c) high HCO3
d) low HCO3

A

metabolic acidosis
low HCO3
hyperventilation to release more co2

51
Q

why does upper GI obstruction lead to metabolic alkalosis

A

loss of H+ ions through vomiting
hyochloremic metabolic alkalosis

52
Q

can hypokalaemia lead to metabolic alkalosis or acidosis?

A

acidosis
Increases in K+ cause metabolic acidosis by inhibition of NH3 synthesis and NH4+
excretion.

53
Q

what mechanisms can lead to build up of pleural fluid

A

lymphatic blockage
cardiac failur- increased pressure in capillaries and increased transudatation of interstitial fluid, reduced plasma oncotic pressure, any process breaking down the capillary membranes (inflammation, infection)