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Pastest/Synap > Resp > Flashcards

Resp Flashcards

1
Q

Pulmonary oedema may be associated with which heart murmur?

A

MR

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2
Q

What is another name for Farmer’s lung?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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3
Q

What is the ratio for pleural protein: serum protein for an exudate?

A

> 0.5

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4
Q

Describe Atoll’s sign

A

A region of ground glass opacity surrounded by denser lung tissue

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5
Q

In which disease is Atoll’s sign most commonly seen?

A

Cryptogenic organising pneumonia

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6
Q

In what class of patients is Pickwickian syndrome most commonly seen?

A

Obese patients

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7
Q

What improves Pickwickian syndrome?

A

CPAP

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8
Q

What is the immediate treatment for a tension pneumothorax?

A

Immediate needle thoracocentesis

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9
Q

When would needle aspiration be contraindicated?

A

In trauma

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10
Q

How is pericarditis treated?

A

NSAIDs

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11
Q

What is the first and second line treatments in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A 
1st = rapid rehydration with saline
2nd = insulin
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12
Q

Which disease can aspergillosis present like?

A

Allergic asthma

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13
Q

What can colorectal cancer predispose to?

A

DVT or PE

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14
Q

At what position is a chest drain inserted?

A

5th ICS mid-axillary line

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15
Q

Which syndrome develops secondary to an upper respiratory tract infection?

A

Guillain-Barre

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16
Q

Patients with SLE may experience recurrent what?

A

Thromboembolisms

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17
Q

Do the lungs receive a single or dual blood supply?

A

Dual

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18
Q

In which types of worker’s lungs are giant cells found?

A

Those who work in the hard metal industry eg magnesium

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19
Q

What can predispose epiglottitis?

A

Lack of childhood vaccinations

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20
Q

How do pleural plaques present on CXR?

A

Holly leaf

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21
Q

What disease causes an artificially high KCO?

A

Pulmonary haemorrhage

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22
Q

How is chronic type II respiratory failure compensated?

A

Permanent increased HCO3-

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23
Q

How can squamous cell carcinomas be described?

A

Cavitating

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24
Q

How does silicosis present on CXR?

A

Egg-shell calcification

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25
Q

Which radiological sign is associated with aspergillosis?

A

Air-crescent sign

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26
Q

Hyponatraemia is associated with which lung cancer?

A

Small cell

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27
Q

Which type of sensitivity reaction is Grave’s disease?

A

Type II

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28
Q

Which type of pleural effusion may constrictive pericarditis cause?

A

Transudative

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29
Q

Which type of cell is COPD associated with?

A

CD8+

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30
Q

Which two things are increased in SLE?

A

ANA antibodies and double-strand DNA

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31
Q

Which is the most common lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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32
Q

Which bacteria most commonly causes acute epiglottitis?

A

Haemophilus Infleunzae B

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33
Q

What is a normal FEV1/FVC?

A

80%

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34
Q

What is a normal tidal volume?

A

500ml

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35
Q

Describe Fick’s law

A

The amount of gas that moves across a sheet of tissue in unit time is proportional to the area of the sheet, but inversely proportional to its thickness

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36
Q

Describe Henry’s law

A

The amount of given gas dissolved in a given type and volume of liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas in equilibrium with the liquid

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37
Q

Describe Boyle’s law

A

The pressure exerted by a gas varies inversely with container volume

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38
Q

What is the LENT score used for?

A

To estimate survival rate of malignant pleural effusions

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39
Q

What does LENT stand for?

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (estimates tissue damage)
ECOG performance score (patient’s ability to look after themself)
Neutrophil:lymphocyte ratio in serum
Tumour type

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40
Q

What is the most common cause of CAP?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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41
Q

What is the total lung capacity?

A

5.7l

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42
Q

What effect does emphysema have on breath sounds?

A

Decreased

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43
Q

What is the pH of intrapleural fluid?

A

7.6

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44
Q

Which TB drug can render the contraceptive pill useless?

A

Rifampicin

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45
Q

What is the treatment for latent TB?

A

3 months of isoniazid and rifampicin
OR
6 months of isoniazid

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46
Q

What is the most common cause of glandular fever?

A

EBV

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47
Q

What bacteria is related to blindness in the developing world?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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48
Q

How does acute bronchitis present on a CXR?

A

Usually clear

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49
Q

What are the major causes of HAP?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E.coli, klebsiella

50
Q

What is the commonest cause of empyema?

A

Strep. pneumoniae

51
Q

Post-infection, how many months will it take a patient to fully recover?

A

6 months

52
Q

What shape is the myoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Hyperbolic

53
Q

What shape is the haemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Sigmoidal

54
Q

What happens if the rhythm of breathing comes from below the medulla?

A

Ventilation caeses

55
Q

What is the value of residual volume?

A

1.2l

56
Q

During inspiration, what happens to intrapleural pressure?

A

It falls

57
Q

In which direction does the Bohr effect move the graph?

A

To the right

58
Q

What does surfactant decrease?

A

Alveolar surface tension

59
Q

What role do the kidneys play in altitude hypoxia?

A

Preserve acid

60
Q

What does the Pre-Botzinger complex do?

A

Controls basic breathing rhythm

61
Q

Where is myoglobin found?

A

In muscle tissue

62
Q

Does compliance change with age?

A

No

63
Q

What impact does dorsal neuron activation have on inspiratory muscles?

A

Causes contraction

64
Q

Impulses from where prolong inspiration?

A

Apneustic centre

65
Q

Hypoxia stimulates what kind of chemoreceptors?

A

Peripheral

66
Q

When does hypoxia stimulate chemoreceptors?

A

When saturations fall below 8kPa

67
Q

What two structures innervate peripheral chemoreceptors?

A

Carotid sinus then glossopharyngeal nerve

68
Q

Where is rhythm generated (and where can it be modified)?

A

Generated in the medulla and modified in the pons

69
Q

Which reflex is a good preventor of hyperinflation?

A

Hering-Breur

70
Q

Which type of cancer can cause lobar pneumonia?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

71
Q

Where in the lungs are adenocarcinomas usually found?

A

Peripherally

72
Q

Where in the lungs are small cell cancers usually found?

A

Centrally

73
Q

What are the three main symptoms of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Ptosis (droopy eyelid)
Anhydrosis (ipsilateral sweating loss)
Miosis (pupil constriction)

74
Q

What hormone is secreted by squamous cell carcinomas (and what does this cause)?

A

PTH causes hypercalcaemia

75
Q

Which type of small cell cancer causes Horner’s syndrome?

A

ACTH secreting

76
Q

At which stage in pregnancy is surfactant produced?

A

30-32 weeks

77
Q

What are the 4 most common causes of pneumonia in neonates?

A

Group B Strep.
E.coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Staph. aureus

78
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of pneumonia in infants?

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

Strep. pneumoniae

79
Q

Describe the Haldane effect

A

Removal of oxygen from haemoglobin increases the affinity of Hb for CO2

80
Q

Do the Haldane and Bohr effects work together or against each other?

A

Together

81
Q

What name is given to difficulty in expiration in obstructive disease?

A

Dynamic airway compression

82
Q

In what order (from most to least) is CO2 carried in the blood?

A

Bicarbonate>carbamino compounds>solution

83
Q

What is apneusis?

A

Prolonged inspiration with brief expiration

84
Q

What is alveolar dead space?

A

Alveoli which are not adequately perfused

85
Q

What is the most common cause of COPD exacerbations?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

86
Q

What compound is naturally present in tea, coffee and chocolate?

A

Methylxanthine

87
Q

What size of airways are defined as ‘large’?

A

2mm

88
Q

How many levels of branching are there within the respiratory tree?

A

23

89
Q

What is non-atopic asthma mediated by? (2)

A

Macrophages and IgG

90
Q

Contraction in smooth muscle involves what?

A

Ca2+ binding to calmodulin

91
Q

Neutrophils in airways due to smoking cause what?

A

Mucous hypersecretion

92
Q

Through what does mucous hypersecretion occur?

A

Neutrophil elastase

93
Q

Which two types of drugs may cause asthma?

A

NSAIDs and beta blockers

94
Q

What is breakdown of connective tissue in alveoli?

A

Emphysema

95
Q

Calcium entry to mast cells causes release of what (2)?

A

Preformed histamine

Production of leukotrines

96
Q

Asthma-COPD overlap syndrome can be described how?

A

COPD with >3% blood eosinophilia

97
Q

Which IL causes TH2 to activate and differentiate eosinophils?

A

IL5

98
Q

Which IL causes TH2 cells to active B cells?

A

IL4

99
Q

Which receptors do SAMAs block?

A

M1, M2, M3

100
Q

Are cromones strong or weak?

A

Weak

101
Q

Which two types of cells produce Cys-leukotrines?

A

Mast cells and inflammatory cells

102
Q

What feature of muscarinic antagonists cause them to have low systemic absorption?

A

Their quaternary ammonium group

103
Q

How long do SABAs work for?

A

3-5 hours

104
Q

What % risk of pneumothorax is associated with CT guided biopsy?

A

10%

105
Q

What causes Horner’s syndrome?

A

Sympathetic chain disruption

106
Q

What are 3 symptoms associated with squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Headache, thirst, confusion

107
Q

Which type of cancer comes from the spread of neoplastic cells along the alveolar wall?

A

Adenocarcinoma

108
Q

What are 3 symptoms of SVC invasion?

A

Headache
Distended external jugular vein
Puffy eyelids

109
Q

Where are bronchial gland carcinomas most commonly seen?

A

Salivary glands

110
Q

What type of cancer is bronchial cancer (usually)?

A

Squamous

111
Q

What condition are cancer patients predisposed to, due to having hypercoaguable blood?

A

Thrombophlebitis

112
Q

Describe the incidence and prevalence of lung cancer

A

High incidence but low prevalence

113
Q

Invasion of the brachial plexus gives hand weakness due to which root infiltration?

A

T1

114
Q

How close to the carina must a tumour be to be inoperable?

A

2cm

115
Q

What are the thee components of the asthma triad?

A

Airway hyper-responsiveness
Airway inflammation
Reversible airflow obstruction

116
Q

Which bacteria will only grow on lysed blood agar?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

117
Q

Out of asthma and COPD, which is reversible?

A

Asthma

118
Q

What is the treatment for severe CAP?

A

Doxycycline + co-amoxiclav

119
Q

How many times per day is amoxicllin usually taken?

A

3

120
Q

Which antibiotic can you not drink whilst taking?

A

Metronidazole

121
Q

Gentamicin is only used against gram (negative/positive)?

A

Negative

122
Q

With which antibiotic should renal function be monitored?

A

Gentamicin

Pastest/Synap (6 decks)

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