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Pastest/Synap > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of ulcers (gastric or duodenal are more common)?

A

Duodenal

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2
Q

What is the most common gram negative cause of acute cholangitis?

A

E.coli

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3
Q

What is the most common gram positive cause of acute cholangitis?

A

Enterococci

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4
Q

How is Wilson’s disease treated?

A

Oral zinc therapy

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5
Q

What impact does SIBO have on vitamin B12 and folate?

A

Decreased B12

Increased folate

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6
Q

What may fenofibrate lead to (and how)?

A

Causes increased cholesterol secretion, so may cause cholesterol gallstone formation

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7
Q

Which type of glands are usually preserved in Crohn’s?

A

Mucin glands

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8
Q

ZE tumours are commonly located where?

A

Proximal duodenal wall and the head of the pancreas

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9
Q

What is melanosis coli and how is it caused?

A

Darkening of the mucosal lining due to prolonged laxative use

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10
Q

How are duodenal ulcers relieved?

A

Eating or drinking milk

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11
Q

Which test is mandatory to diagnose Coeliac?

A

Duodenal biopsy

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12
Q

What do high serum amylase and serum lipase indicate?

A

Hypertriglyceridaemia induced pancreatitis

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13
Q

What three factors stimulate gastric acid secretion?

A

ACh
Gastrin
Histamine

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14
Q

What three factors inhibit gastric acid secretion?

A

Somatostatin
Secretin
CCK

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15
Q

How is giardiasis diagnosed?

A

Stool sample

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16
Q

What are three characteristics of haemolytic jaundice?

A

Splenomegaly
Reticulocytosis (increase in immature RBCs)
Anaemia

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17
Q

If the large bowel has a diameter of over x, it is considered dilated. What is x?

A

5.5cm

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18
Q

If the small bowel has a diameter of over x, it is considered dilated. What is x?

A

3cm

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19
Q

How is hydatid disease treated (2)?

A

Drainage and albendazole

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20
Q

Which type of fibre intake should be increased in diverticular disease?

A

Soluble

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21
Q

What three symptoms/signs are associated with Budd-Chiari?

A

Abdominal pain
Ascites
Hepatomegaly

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22
Q

How is TB diagnosed?

A

Ileal biopsy

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23
Q

What are three most common bacterial causes of ascending cholangitis?

A

E.coli
Klebsiella
Enterobacter

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24
Q

What type of vomiting is caused by pyloric stenosis?

A

Projectile

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25
Q

Which type of inheritance is haemachromatosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

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26
Q

Which two types of antibodies are important in autoimmune gastritis?

A

Anti-parietal and anti-intrinsic factor

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27
Q

What is removal of the sigmoid colon called?

A

Hartmann’s procedure

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28
Q

What faecal test is used to investigate pancreatitis?

A

Faecal elastase

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29
Q

Are fistulae more common in Crohn’s or UC?

A

Crohn’s

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30
Q

FAP is a mutation in which gene?

A

APC tumour suppressor

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31
Q

HNPCC is a mutation in which gene?

A

DNA mismatch repair

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32
Q

Which type of inheritance do FAP and HNPCC show?

A

Autosomal dominant

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33
Q

When does CVID become apparent?

A

Adulthood

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34
Q

What is the treatment for life-threatening C.diff infection?

A

Oral vancomycin + IV metronidazole

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35
Q

Which two disease are associated with alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

COPD and liver disease

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36
Q

Of Crohn’s and UC, which is TH1 mediated and which is mediated by TH1 and TH2?

A 
Crohn's = TH1
UC = TH1 and TH2
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37
Q

What % of people with Hep C will become chronic carriers?

A

80%

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38
Q

GISTs are what type of tumours?

A

Mesenchymal

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39
Q

In which populations are squamous carcinomas in the oesophagus most common?

A

Eastern/developing countries

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40
Q

Where in the oesophagus is squamous carcinoma usually found?

A

Upper 2/3rds

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41
Q

When is vomiting due to gastroperesis worst?

A

In the evening

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42
Q

When in life is H.pylori usually contracted?

A

Under 5s

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43
Q

What does H.pylori do to the pH of its environment?

A

Increases it

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44
Q

What is the floor of the inguinal canal formed of?

A

Inguinal and lacunar ligaments

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45
Q

What is the medial border of the femoral canal formed from?

A

Lacunar ligament

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46
Q

How are small bowel lymphomas treated?

A

Surgery and chemotherapy

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47
Q

What is the average lifespan of an enterocyte?

A

72 hours

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48
Q

Which IL is important in H.pylori chronic gastritis?

A

IL-8

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49
Q

What are the two causes of small bowel ischaemia?

A

Arterial occlusion or perfusion insufficiency

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50
Q

What effect does coeliac disease have on the risk of gallstones?

A

Increases the risk

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51
Q

Is adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus more common in males or females?

A

Males

52
Q

Is toxic megacolon more associated with Crohn’s or UC?

A

UC

53
Q

Which GI disease is associated with childhood onset diabetes?

A

Coeliac

54
Q

What type of tumour are most oral cancers?

A

Squamous

55
Q

Which type of bowel infarct causes stricturing?

A

Mural

56
Q

Which gene is important in Crohn’s?

A

NOD2

57
Q

What are the three layers of a peptic ulcer?

A

Floor of necrosis
Base of granulation tissue
Deep layer of fibrosis

58
Q

Inflammation in UC involves which layers?

A

Mucosa and submucosa

59
Q

Autoimmune gastritis shows which two things?

A

Atrophy and intestinal metaplasia

60
Q

UC causes which electrolyte imbalance?

A

Hypokalaemia

61
Q

Are adenomas of the liver more common in males or females?

A

Females

62
Q

Perl’s stain detects what?

A

Iron

63
Q

Proteases in pancreatitis cause what (2)?

A

Tissue destruction and haemorrhage

64
Q

Which type of cirrhosis is seen in alcoholics?

A

Micronodular

65
Q

What is bile released in response to?

A

CCK

66
Q

The liver has how many acinar zones?

A

3

67
Q

Acute pancreatitis may cause which two electrolyte imbalances?

A

Hypocalcaemia

Hyperglycaemia

68
Q

Does Hep B or C have a longer incubation period?

A

B

69
Q

What is the main treatment for haemachromatosis?

A

Venesection

70
Q

PBC is associated with which antibodies?

A

AMA

71
Q

Which two places does copper accumulate in in Wilson’s?

A

Brain and liver

72
Q

Acutely, which form of hepatitis (B or C) is more likely to kill you?

A

B

73
Q

Bizarre stromal cells and vessels are a sign of what?

A

Radiological colitis

74
Q

All adenomas of the colon are what?

A

Dysplastic

75
Q

C.diff overgrowth causes which type of colitis?

A

Pseudomembranous

76
Q

Less than 100 polyps suggests which (FAP/HNPCC)?

A

HPNCC

77
Q

Does HNPCC have an early or late onset?

A

Late

78
Q

Small bowel ischaemia is usually located where?

A

Left sided

79
Q

Do all colonic adenomas need removed?

A

Yes

80
Q

What is the treatment for Hep B?

A

PEG IFNalpha + tenofovir + entecavir

81
Q

What is the treatment for Hep C?

A

PEG IFNalpha + ribavirin

82
Q

Which form of hepatitis is most common in the tropics?

A

Hep E

83
Q

Which hepatitis drug can cause haemolytic anaemia?

A

Ribavirin

84
Q

What is the main route of spread of Hep E in the UK?

A

Zoonosis

85
Q

Which is the most common form of hepatitis amongst PWIDs?

A

C

86
Q

Which form of hepatitis may be asymptomatic in young children?

A

A

87
Q

Which drug is used for sedation in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lorazepam

88
Q

What are the three drugs used in H.pylori eradication?

A

Amoxicillin + omperazole + clarithromycin

89
Q

Which drug can replace amoxicillin in H.pylori eradication if there is a pencillin allergy?

A

Metronidazole

90
Q

Which deficiency causes agammaglobulinaemia?

A

XLA

91
Q

In autoimmune hepatitis, what do HLA DR3/4 mean in terms of onset and severity?

A

HLA DR3 = early onset and severe

HLA DR4 = late onset and severe

92
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

The non-specific breakdown of non-carbohydrate precursors to form new glucose

93
Q

What does AST stand for?

A

Aspartate transaminase

94
Q

Is UC or Crohn’s associated with granulomas?

A

Crohn’s

95
Q

Do RBCs appear macro/microcytic in autoimmune gastritis?

A

Macrocytic

96
Q

Food poisoning associated with shellfish is usually due to?

A

Norovirus

97
Q

What is schistosomiasis caused by?

A

Trematodes

98
Q

Salmonella presents which two antigens?

A

O and H

99
Q

Which infection is associated with lactose intolerance for a few weeks after?

A

Giardia intestinalis

100
Q

Which drug is used to treat recurring C.diff?

A

Fidaxomicin

101
Q

Which type of jaundice may be caused by E.coli 0157?

A

Pre-hepatic

102
Q

Which bacteria is part of the normal gut flora of some reptiles?

A

Salmonella

103
Q

On which type of agar is enterohaemorrhagic E.coli grown on?

A

Sorbitol MacConkey

104
Q

Which impact to E.coli toxins have on intracellular cAMP?

A

Increases

105
Q

How is enteric fever treated?

A

Azithromycin

106
Q

Cestodes are associated with…

A

Pork and beef

107
Q

What is the mortality rate for acute pancreatitis?

A

10%

108
Q

Are pancreatic acinar cells endo/exocrine?

A

Exocrine

109
Q

High coffee intake is a risk factor for which type of pancreatic tumours?

A

Exocrine

110
Q

Necrosis occurs how many days post-illness in pancreatitis?

A

3-5

111
Q

What are the causes of chronic pancreatitis?

A 
CAT And PIG
Congenital/acquired
Alcohol
Tropical countries
Autoimmune
Pancreatic duct obstruction
Idiopathic
Genetics (CF)
112
Q

Does somatostatin suppress or inhance the release of pancreatic hormones?

A

Suppress

113
Q

Which criteria is used to assess the severity of pancreatitis?

A

Glasgow criteria

114
Q

Alpha amylase produces what?

A

Oligoaccharides

115
Q

How can the secretions of the parotid, submandibular and sublingual glands be described?

A 
Parotid = serous
Submandibular = more viscous
Sublingual = mucous
116
Q

What are three side effects of orlistat?

A

Abdominal cramps
Diarrhoea
Vitamin deficiency

117
Q

What do NSAIDs block to cause peptic ulcers?

A

COX 1

118
Q

Which drugs need to be stopped before doing a faecal antigen test for H.pylori?

A

PPI 2 weeks before

H2 antagonist 1 day before

119
Q

What is the operation for appendicitis?

A

Laparoscopic appendectomy

120
Q

What is the first investigation for rectal bleeding?

A

PR exam

121
Q

What is the investigation for diverticulitis?

A

CT colonography

122
Q

What medications are given for diverticulitis?

A

Metronidazole + co-trimoxazole

123
Q

What is pneumoperitoneum?

A

Free gas under the diaphragm

124
Q

What is the treatment for PSC?

A

Liver transplant

125
Q

What is the treatment for PBC?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

126
Q

What are the conditions for severe UC?

A 
6+ bloody stools in 24 hours
\+1 of...
-fever
-HR >90bpm
-anemia
-elevated ESR

Pastest/Synap (6 decks)

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