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Inman Domain 1 > Research Applications > Flashcards

Research Applications Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 8 steps in research?

A
  1. identify a relevant and important topic
  2. develop well considered research question
  3. research question leads to a hypothesis
  4. prepare research protocol
  5. organize materials and methods
  6. collect and analyze data
  7. study results and make decisions
  8. study designs and checklists
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2
Q

How do you identify a relevant and important topic?

A

review published research literature related to the topic

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3
Q

What is a well-considered research question?

A

who, what, how; clear, simple statement in a few words, in a complete grammatical statement

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4
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

a prediction of a relationship

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5
Q

How is a hypothesis often expressed?

A

as more than or less than; not equal to

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6
Q

what is a null hypothesis?

A

no relationship in population of data; any difference is result of sampling error; often has equal to expressed

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7
Q

What does a research objective do?

A

defines the study’s purpose

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8
Q

A good hypothesis should be ___.

A

feasible, interesting, novel or innovative, ethical, and relevant

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9
Q

What is the PICO format?

A

population, intervention/exposure, comparison, and outcome

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10
Q

What is the research protocol?

A

methodology to solve the problem

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11
Q

What is PRISMA?

A

PRISMA randomized controlled trials: an evidence based minimum set of items for reporting in systematic reviews and meta analyses

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12
Q

What does PRISMA focus on?

A

reporting of reviews evaluating randomized trials, but can also be used as a bases for reporting systematic reviews of other types of research, particularly evaluations of interventions

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13
Q

What is MOOSE?

A

systematic review-observational MOOSE; meta-analysis of observational studies in epidemiology (MOOSE) group

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14
Q

List the parts of the research report.

A
  1. abstract
  2. general introduction
  3. review of existing literature
  4. methodology
  5. results
  6. discussion
  7. conclusions
  8. implications
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15
Q

What is an abstract?

A

condensation of final report; has purpose of study, questions asked, scope and method, summary of conclusions

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16
Q

What is included in the general introduction?

A

objectives, definitions, background, limitations, order of presentation

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17
Q

What is the review of existing literature?

A

a summary of different points of view

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18
Q

What is included in the methodology?

A

statement of hypothesis, discussion of methods used

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19
Q

**What is included in the results section of a research report?

A

specific lab, clinical, objective or subjective findings

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20
Q

What is the discussion section of a research report?

A

interpretation of results, comparison with other studies; may be combines with results

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21
Q

Which section of a research report may the discussion section be combined with?

A

the results section

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22
Q

What does discussing the results address?

A

the research question, objective, and hypothesis; places results in context with existing science

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23
Q

What are conclusions in a research report?

A

brief summary of results; may have recommendations

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24
Q

What are implications in a research report?

A

how the information might be applied in practice

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25
Q

What is descriptive research?

A

describes state of nature at a point in time; provides baseline data and monitors changes over time

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26
Q

Descriptive research generates hypotheses regarding what?

A

determinants of a condition or disease

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27
Q

Does descriptive research prove cause and effect?

A

no; it establishes associations among factors, but does not allow causal relationships to be determined

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28
Q

List the types of descriptive research.

A

qualitative, case report, surveys, correlation/ecological studies

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29
Q

What is the purpose of qualitative research?

A

to explore a phenomenon of interest as a prelude to theory development; often preceded other research

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30
Q

When does qualitative research take place?

A

it often precedes other research

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31
Q

How is data collected for qualitative research?

A

through interviews, observations, questionnaires; may use focus group (Delphi)

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32
Q

What is the Delphi method in research?

A

use of a focus group

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33
Q

What is a case report/study/series?

A

report of observations on one subject or more than one subject

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34
Q

What does a case report help to identify?

A

variables important to the etiology, care, or outcomes of a particular condition

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35
Q

What does a case report describe?

A

it describes quantitatively the experiences of a group of cases with a disease or a condition in common

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36
Q

What are surveys and how are they used?

A

research designed to describe and quantify characteristics of a defined population; defined time frame; pinpoints problems

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37
Q

What are correlation or ecological studies?

A

studies that compare frequency of events (or disease rates) in different populations with the per capita consumption of certain dietary factors (ex. correlation between fish consumption and breast cancer incidence)

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38
Q

What is analytical research?

A

tests hypothesis concerning the effects of specific factors of interest and allows causal associations to be determined (can prove cause and effect); includes clinical trials, follow-up studies, and case control studies

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39
Q

Can analytical research prove cause and effect?

A

yes

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40
Q

What are the types of analytical research?

A

experimental model, quasi experimental design, cohort studies, case control studies, and cross sectional studies

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41
Q

What is the experimental model?

A

uses experimental and control groups; target populations are randomly chosen to be in either group

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42
Q

What is randomization?

A

dividing people into treatment or control groups without bias

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43
Q

**Does the experimental or control group receive the treatment in the experimental model?

A

experimental group; control group does not receive the treatment but may receive a placebo

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44
Q

What is a placebo?

A

gives the aura but not the substance of a service, removing the possibility of the Hawthorne effect

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45
Q

What is the Hawthorne effect?

A

a positive response due to attention that participants receive

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46
Q

When is a program considered successful in an experimental model?

A

differences are computed between the two groups; successful if the experimental group has improved more than the control group

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47
Q

Why is the experimental model difficult to run?

A
  • not enough people for the control group

- may not feel it is ethical to deny a service

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48
Q

**What is the quasi-experimental design?

A

time series- series of measurements at periodic intervals before the programs begins and after it ends; shows whether the measurements before and after a program ate a continuation of a previous pattern or whether they indicate a noteworthy change

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49
Q

What does the quasi-experimental design show?

A

whether the measurements before and after a program ate a continuation of a previous pattern or whether they indicate a noteworthy change

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50
Q

What is a cohort?

A

any group whose members have something in common

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51
Q

What are cohort studies?

A

group of people who have something in common are followed over time; ex. cohort of healthy people followed through time to see if they develop a specific disease

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52
Q

Cohort studies are also sometimes called ___?

A

incidence studies; they track the frequency of new cases (newly diagnosed) of a disease

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53
Q

??Define incidence?

A

??rate of newly diagnosed

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54
Q

??Define prevalence?

A

??total number of

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55
Q

Cohort studies are carried out over what period of time?

A

long period of time (longitudinal), and prospective (future oriented)

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56
Q

How are retrospective cohort studies conducted and what is looked for?

A

use existing data; look back for relationship between exposure factors and outcomes

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57
Q

What are case control studies?

A

focus on specific disease; those with the disease are compared with a group without the disease, but otherwise similar in characteristics; both groups recall past behaviors, to study how the groups differ

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58
Q

**What are cross-sectional studies/prevalence?

A

one time data collection counting all of the cases of a specific disease among a group of people at a particular time; **a snap-shot look at one point in time

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59
Q

What does a cross-sectional study/prevalence look at?

A

one point in time; describes current, not past or future events

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60
Q

What does IRB stand for?

A

institutional review board

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61
Q

The IRB is under ___.

A

FDA

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62
Q

What is the IRB?

A

a committee established to review and approve research involving human subjects, to ensure it is conducted within all ethical and federal guidelines

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63
Q

What are other names for the IRB?

A

(IEC) Independent Ethics Committee; (ERB) Ethical Review Board; (REB) Research Ethics Board

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64
Q

What is relevance or validity?

A

ability to measure phenomenon it intends to measure

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65
Q

**What is internal validity?

A

tests whether the difference between the two groups is real (has the experimental group really performed differently)

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66
Q

What is external validity?

A

tests whether or not a generalization can be made from the study to a larger population

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67
Q

**What is analysis of variance?

A

tool used to evaluate validity

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68
Q

**What does ANOVA stand for?

A

analysis of variance

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69
Q

**What does analysis of variance ask?

A

whether the difference between samples is a reliable one that would be repeated; are there one or more significant differences ANYWHERE among the samples?

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70
Q

**When is ANOVA used?

A

when several products compete against one another

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71
Q

**What does ANOVA compare?

A

the variance between groups with the variance within groups

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72
Q

What is reliability?

A

consistency or reproducibility of test results; test then retest later-are results similar?

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73
Q

What are parallel forms and how is reliability determined?

A

two separate but similar forms of the same test at the same time; reliability is determined by the degree to which the sets of scores coincide

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74
Q

What are split halves and how is reliability determined?

A

divide the test in half; reliability is determined by the degree of similarity of results

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75
Q

What is precision?

A

amount of variation that occurs randomly

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76
Q

Less random variation results in ___ precision in the measurement and ___ reliability.

A

greater; greater

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77
Q

When is specificity and sensitivity used?

A

If protocol involves screening for a particular condition

78
Q

What do specificity and sensitivity evaluate?

A

the cut-off value being used

79
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

the proportion of afflicted individuals who test positive

80
Q

What is specificity?

A

proportion of non-afflicted identified as non-afflicted

81
Q

What are variables?

A

characteristics that may have different values from observation to observation

82
Q

What are nominal variables?

A

non-ordinal; variables that fit into a category with no special order

83
Q

What are examples of nominal variables?

A

gender, race, marital status, present or absent

84
Q

What are rank order variables?

A

ordinal; observations compared with each other and put in order, perhaps from best to worst, or state of disease from 1 to 4

85
Q

What are numerical discrete variables?

A

data with numbers (numbers of clinical visits)

86
Q

What are numerical continuous variables?

A

Underlying continuous scales (blood pressure)

87
Q

Dependent variables are ___. Independent variables are ___.

A

outcomes; what you manipulate

88
Q

___ variables are outcomes; ___ variables are what you manipulate in your study.

A

dependent; independent

89
Q

Treatments for diseases are ___ variables.

A

independent you can change the treatment to affect the disease

90
Q

Name the independent and dependent variables in the following sentence. Effect cholesterol levels have on heart attacks.

A

Independent- cholesterol levels

Dependent- heart attacks

91
Q

?What is probability?

A

?each segment of the population will be represented in the sample

92
Q

What is randomization?

A

select a sample from the whole population so the characteristics of each of the units approximates the characteristics of the whole population

93
Q

What is non-probability?

A

no way of forecasting that each element in the population will be represented in the sample

94
Q

What is convenience or accidental?

A

take units as they arrive on the scene- no attempt to control bias

95
Q

What is quota?

A

select units in the same ratio as they are found in the general population

96
Q

What are measures of central of tendency?

A

the center of any mass of data

97
Q

**What are the three measures of central tendency?

A

mean, median, and mode

98
Q

What is the arithmetic mean? How is it calculated?

A

simple average; total the values of all observations and divide by the number of observations

99
Q

What is the median? How is it calculated?

A

Midpoint; arrange observations from low to high and count the number of values; median is the value at the midpoint; if there is an odd number of numbers the median will be the exact center. If there is an even number of numbers, the median is the average of the two numbers closest to the center

100
Q

What is the mode?

A

most frequently occurring value; prediction most likely to be right

101
Q

What are measures of dispersion?

A

how values are distributed about the mean

102
Q

What are types of measures of dispersion?

A

range and standard deviation

103
Q

What is the range?

A

the difference between the lowest and highest values in the distribution

104
Q

How is the range calculated?

A

subtracted lower from higher value; based only on extreme values

105
Q

What is standard deviation?

A

indicates degree of dispersion about the mean value of a distribution

106
Q

How is the standard deviation calculated?

A

square root of the sum of the squared deviations of each value from the mean, divided by the number of observations

107
Q

Describe the curve of a normal distribution?

A

as it falls away from the peak on either side the slope is convex (bulging outward) at point of inflection it become concave (bulging inward) as slope begins to level off

108
Q

Distance between the ___ and the ___ on either side is equal to the standard deviation.

A

mean; point of inflection

109
Q

Distance between the mean and the point of inflection on either side is equal to the ___.

A

standard deviation

110
Q

**About ___% of all observations in a normal distribution lie within 1 SD of the mean.

A

68% (2/3)

111
Q

**About 2/3 (68%) of all observations in a normal distribution lie within ___ SD of the mean.

A

1 SD of the mean

112
Q

What is the range within 1 SD of the mean called?

A

M + 1 SD of the mean (mean + 1 SD)

113
Q

___% of the observations lie outside the range?

A

32% (16% lie below (-1 SD) and 16% lie above (+1 SD))

114
Q

___% lie within about 2 SD either side of the mean.

A

95%

115
Q

Where does the mean lie?

A

at the top of the curve

116
Q

What are correlations?

A

relationships between varying types of data

117
Q

The closer point are to the line, the ___ the degree of the linear relationship.

A

stronger

118
Q

The ___ point are to the line, the stronger the degree of the linear relationship.

A

closer

119
Q

What is the linear correlation coefficient?

A

r; measures the degree to which the points in a scatter diagram cluster about a straight line

120
Q

The value of r is always between ___ and ___.

A

-1 and 1

121
Q

r = 1 when ___.

A

all points lie exactly on a straight line with a positive slope

122
Q

r= ___ when all points lie exactly on a straight line with a positive slope.

A

1

123
Q

r = -1 when ___.

A

all points lie exactly on a straight line with a negative slope

124
Q

r= ___ when all points lie exactly on a straight line with a negative slope.

A

-1

125
Q

**The closer r is to 1 or -1, the ___ the points tend to cluster about the line, and the ___ the degree of the linear relationship.

A

closer; stronger

126
Q

**The closer r is to ___ or ___, the closer the points tend to cluster about the line, and the stronger the degree of the linear relationship.

A

1 or -1

127
Q

The closer r is to 0, the ___ the points will be from the line.

A

more dispersed

128
Q

The closer r is to ___, the more dispersed the points will be from the line.

A

0

129
Q

if r = ___, there is no linear relationship

A

0

130
Q

if r = 0, is there a linear relationship?

A

no

131
Q

Describe the strength of correlation if r =0.0-0.2

A

very weak

132
Q

Describe the strength of correlation if r =0.2-0.4

A

weak, low

133
Q

Describe the strength of correlation if r =0.4-0.7

A

moderate

134
Q

Describe the strength of correlation if r =0.7-0.9

A

strong, high

135
Q

Describe the strength of correlation if r =0.9-1.0

A

very strong, very high

136
Q

Describe the strength of correlation if

a. r =0.0-0.2
b. r =0.2-0.4
c. r =0.4-0.7
d. r =0.7-0.9
e. r =0.9-1.0

A

a. 0.0-0.2: very weak
b. 0.2-0.4: weak, low
c. 0.4-0.7: moderate
d. 0.7-0.9: strong, high
e. 0.9-1.0: very strong, very high

137
Q

With perfect positive correlation r = ___.

A

+1.0

138
Q

With perfect negative correlation r = ___.

A

-1.0

139
Q

Describe the slope when r = 1

A

positive slope, upward to right

140
Q

Describe the slope when r = -1

A

negative slope, upward to left

141
Q

What is clinical significance?

A

a change of difference in outcomes that somebody cares about; the outcome must be relevant for patient care, public health, or the field of study. the change must be statistically significant, not due to chance.

142
Q

The p value represents what?

A

level of significance

143
Q

**The lower the p value, the ___ the significance of your results

A

higher

144
Q

**The ___ the p value, the higher the significance of your results.

A

lower

145
Q

**What is the level of significance if p ≤ .05?

A

significant differences, results are reliable

146
Q

**What is the level of significance if p ≤ .01?

A

very significant difference, more reliable results

147
Q

**What is the level of significance if p ≤ .0.0001?

A

very, very significant, reliable results

148
Q

**What is the level of significance if p > .05?

A

not very significant difference; not reliable results

149
Q
  • *What is the level of significance for the following p values:
    a. p ≤ .05
    b. p ≤ .01
    c. p ≤ .0.0001
    d. p > .05
A

a. p ≤ .05: significant differences, results are reliable
b. p ≤ .01: very significant difference, more reliable results
c. p ≤ .0.0001: very, very significant, reliable results
d. p > .05: not very significant difference; not reliable results

150
Q

What does the p value show?

A

how strong or weak the evidence is in support of a hypothesis

151
Q

Most will not accept results as statistically significant unless p___.

A

p<0.05

152
Q

The ___ the p value, the higher is your confidence that the effect you observed is real.

A

smaller

153
Q

The smaller the p value, the ___ is your confidence that the effect you observed is real.

A

higher

154
Q

**What is a double blind study?

A

removes bias from research; neither the researcher nor the subject knows which group is receiving the treatment and which the placebo

155
Q

**Define mortality.

A

rate of death

156
Q

**Define morbidity.

A

state of disease

157
Q

Define variable of interest.

A

what researchers are observing

158
Q

Define population of interest.

A

describes a group about which the observations are made

159
Q

What are descriptive statistics?

A

they summarize and describe aspects of a set of data

160
Q

**What are inferential statistics?

A

techniques that allow conclusions to extend beyond an immediate data set

161
Q

What are questions that inferential statistics answer?

A
  • What is the probability that the results can be applied to a larger group?
  • What can you infer from the results of your study?
162
Q

What is a non-parametric test?

A

a test that does not depend on a normal distribution

163
Q

What are dichotomous scores?

A

only two events are possible (ex. heads, tails)

164
Q

What are continuous scores?

A

scores measured on a continuous scale

165
Q

**What is a pilot study?

A

a scaled down version of the larger investigation; practice implementation; includes every step in the study, but is done on a small test group.

166
Q

What can a pilot study help to determine?

A

whether a clinical trial, as planned, is feasible; are goals realistic and attainable?; will the study plan work?

167
Q

What is a focus group?

A

a method of attaining information about a target group; small group who talk about the beliefs, opinions, problems; contributes attitudinal data

168
Q

What is chi square?

A

χ2; tests whether or not there is a real difference between categories

169
Q

When is the chi square test used?

A

with attributes that have more than 2 catgories

170
Q

What does the chi square test compare?

A

the frequency with which we’d expect certain observations to occur with the frequency that actually occurred

171
Q

What is a t test?

A

it tests the significance between the means of different populations; tests the null against alternative hypothesis

172
Q

In a t-test, if the probability value is equal to less than the level set for significance, the ___ is rejected in favor of the ___.

A

null hypothesis; alternative hypothesis

173
Q

In a t-test, if the probability value is ___, the null hypothesis is rejected in favor of the alternative hypothesis.

A

equal to less than the level set for significance

174
Q

What is a histogram?

A

a block diagram whose blocks are proportional in area to the frequency in each call or group (frequency distribution of data)

175
Q

What does a histogram summarize?

A

data from a process that has been collected over time

176
Q

What is the EAL?

A

evidence analysis library; evidence based guidelines are developed by conducting a systematic review and then using the conclusion of the review to develop practice-based guidelines

177
Q

Who summarizes the best available evidence for the EAL?

A

subject matter experts and trained analysts

178
Q

The AND Evidence Analysis Library assists in what?

A

answering questions that may arise during the provision of nutrition care.

179
Q

What is a line graph?

A

shows frequency on vertical scale and method of classification on the horizontal scale

180
Q

What are bar charts?

A

show measurement only on the vertical axis; bars are arranged horizontally or vertically in ascending or descending order

181
Q

What is a pie chart?

A

chart in which pieces add up to 100%

182
Q

What is meta analysis?

A

a formal, defined system combining results of numerous small studies to increase the strength of belief in the observed effect

183
Q

What are requirements for a study to be included in a meta analysis?

A

similar design, defined inclusion and exclusion criteria, published peer-reviewed studies

184
Q

What does RCT stand for?

A

randomized clinical trial

185
Q

What is the gold standard for clinical nutrition research?

A

randomized clinical trial with comparison placebo control group

186
Q

Randomized clinical trials are best for evaluating what?

A

medical treatments; intervention with one or more treatments

187
Q

What is parallel design RCT?

A

participants are randomly assigned to a particular treatment group and remain on that treatment throughout the study

188
Q

What is a crossover design study?

A

each participant serves as his own control

189
Q

What is a two period crossover design?

A

each participant would receive either intervention or control (A or B) in the first period, and the alternate treatment (A or B) in the second period

190
Q

What is the major advantage of a crossover design?

A

variability is reduced because the measured effect of the intervention is the difference in that participant’s response to the intervention and control

191
Q

The decrease in variance of a crossover study design allows use of a ___ sample size.

A

smaller

192
Q

Are crossover study designs generally longer or shorter?

A

longer; but each is “exposed” to all treatments

Inman Domain 1 (4 decks)

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