Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Inman Domain 1 > Nutrition and Supporting Sciences > Flashcards

Nutrition and Supporting Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

what is energy?

A

the capacity to do work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___, ___, and ___ all yield energy

A

CHO, protein, and fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

___ and ___ provide 4 calories/gram

A

CHO and protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CHO and protein provide ___ calories/gram

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___ provides 9 calories/gram

A

fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

fat provides ___ calories/gram

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the brain uses ___ exclusively as an E source

A

glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the brain uses glucose exclusively as an ___

A

E source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does the brain use as an E source during starvation?

A

ketone bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where are tissue stores of glucose in the body

A
  1. glycogen in muscle and liver
  2. fat from adipose tissue
  3. cellular mass (protein stores)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

glucose is stored in the ___ and ___ as glycogen

A

muscle; liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

glucose is stored in the muscle and liver as ___

A

glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is gluconeogenesis

A

conversion of non-carbohydrate sources into glucose; creation of glucose from glycerol and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is homeostasis

A

state of equilibrium of the internal environment of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are enzymes

A

proteins; organic catalysts that control reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is a conenzyme

A

enzyme activators; includes some vitamins (B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what vitamins are needed for E production?

A

pantothenic acid, thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a substrate

A

substance upon which an enzyme works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a cofactor

A

assists enzymes; minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are hormones?

A

secretions from endocrine; trigger enzyme action; chemical messengers that trigger enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does thyroxine regulate

A

metabolism and rate of oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

thyroxine influences what

A

physical and mental growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what happens when glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis of the liver is stimulated

A

raises the blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is anabolism

A

synthesis of a more complex substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is catabolism

A

breakdown; uses and releases energy; creates a constant energy deficit, which must be supplied by food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is BEE

A

basal energy expenditure; minimum amount of energy needed at rest in fasting (amount needed to carry out involuntary work of the body, activity of internal organs, and internal temp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BEE is affected by what?

A

extremes in environmental temperatures; tropical climate 5-20% increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what stimulates metabolic rate and by how much?

A

caffeine, alcohol, and nicotine; 7-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is EEPA

A

energy expended in physical activity; highly variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is TEF

A

thermic effect of food, diet-induced thermogenesis, the calorigenic effect of food; energy needed to digest, absorb, and assimilate nutrients; ~10% of E expenditure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

TEF is greater or less after consumption of carb and protein than after fat

A

greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

TEF is about ___% of E expenditure

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is BMR

A

basal metabolic rate; measured in morning when reclining, awake, relaxed, at normal body temp, at least 12 hrs after meal, and several hours after strenuous activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

BMR measures

A

oxygen consumed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

BMR is affected primarily by what 4 things

A
  1. sex
  2. age
  3. body composition
  4. endocrine glands-thyroid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how is BMR affected by sex

A

women have 5-10% lower BMR than men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how is BMR affected by age

A

highest BMR is 0-2 years of age; older adults less activity, less lean body mass, more body fat: BMR decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how is BMR measured

A

by PBI/protein bound iodine; measures activity of thyroid gland, metabolism, level of thyroxine priduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

when PBI is elevated, BMR is ___

A

elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

is PBI a nutritional assessment parameter?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

BMR can be increased by ___

A

exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is BEE

A

basal energy expenditure; calculated BMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

BEE includes what

A

age, sex, body surface area (height, weight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is rmr?

A

energy expenditure measured under similar conditions, after a short rest and controlled intake of caffeine, alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

___ is more frequently measured than BMR

A

RMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

RMR is ___ than BMR by ___%

A

greater; 10-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

of the predictive equations ___ predicts within 10% of indirect calorimetry

A

Mifflin St Jeor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Mifflin St Jeor should be used with ___ and ___ individuals

A

normal weight and obese individuals; use actual body weight for underweight, overweight, and obese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the most practical way of measuring energy balance

A

following changes in weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

RQ depends on what

A 
fuel mixture being metabolized: 
cho alone: 1
mixture: 0.85
protein alone: 0.82
fat alone: 0.7
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

list the monosaccharides

A

glucose, fructose, galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

list the disaccharides

A

sucrose, lactose, maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what 2 monosaccharides is sucrose made of

A

glucose and fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what 2 monosaccharides is lactose made of

A

glucose and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what 2 monosaccharides is maltose made of

A

glucose and galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

list the polysaccharides

A
  1. starch
  2. cellulose
  3. glycogen
  4. dextrin
  5. pectin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is starch

A

glucose chains, 50% of CHO intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is cellulose

A

resistant to digestive enzyme amylase; adds bulk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is glycogen

A

animal starch; from glucose; stored in muscle and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is pectin

A

nondigestible; thickening quality; in fruits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is dextrin

A

intermediate product of starch breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is sorbitol

A

alcohol from glucose; absorbed by passive diffusion; converted into fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

how sweet is fructose

A

the sweetest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

how sweet is sorbitol

A

slightly less sweet than glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

put the following in order of sweetness: sucrose, sorbitol, glucose, fructose, invert sugar, lactose, galactose, maltose, mannitol

A
  1. fructose
  2. invert sugar
  3. sucrose
  4. glucose
  5. sorbitol
  6. mannitol
  7. galactose
  8. maltose
  9. lactose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is the make up carbohydrates

A

made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what are the functions of cho

A

energy, protein-sparing action, regulation of fat metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

sulfur is found in what proteins

A

cystine, cysteine, and methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what make up protein

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen; sulfur in cystine, cysteine, and methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what % of a protein is nitrogen

A

16%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

amino acids have a ___ and a ___

A

amino group (NH2) as acid; carboxyl group (COOH) as the acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

**what are the essential amino acids

A 
TV TILL PMH; 
threonine
valine
tryptophan
isoleucine
leucine
lysine
phenylalanine
methionine
histidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what are the 2 conditionally essential amino acids

A

arginine

glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

tryptophan is a precursor for ___ and ___

A

seratonin; niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

___ is converted to tyrosine

A

phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

phenylalanine is converted to ___

A

tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

methionine is converted to ___

A

cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

___ is converted to cysteine

A

methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is a conjugated protein

A

simple plus non protein substance (like lipoprotein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is a simple protein

A

yields only amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is a derived protein

A

fragments from simple and conjugates (like peptide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what are the functions of protein

A
  • tissue synthesis
  • maintains growth
  • regulated body processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

why is protein an inefficient energy source

A

nitrogen must be removed first; 58% of protein can be converted to gluose

84
Q

what are the diet requirements for protein

A

0.8 g/kg body weight; 10-15% of total E intake

85
Q

legumes are low in what amino acids

A

methionine, cystine, and tryptophan

86
Q

gelatin is low in what amino acids

A

methionine and cystine; has NO tryptophan

87
Q

most food fat is a ___

A

triglyceride

88
Q

triglycerides are ___ fats; made of ___ and ___

A

simple; 3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol

89
Q

where are phospholipid found

A

cell membrane

90
Q

what is a compound fat

A

simple plus other component (like a phospholipid)

91
Q

what is a derived fat

A

derived from simple or compound by fat hydrolysis or enzymatic breakdown (like fatty acid, glycerol, steroid)

92
Q

what are examples of a derived fat

A

fatty acid, glycerol, steroid

93
Q

what are saturated fatty acids

A

all available bonds of carbon dioxide are filled with hydrogen; solid and hard at room temp

94
Q

what is an unsaturated fatty acid

A

one or more double bond

95
Q

**___ is the most polyunsaturated

A

safflower oil

96
Q

**___ is the most unsaturated

A

canola oil

97
Q

**linoleic acid is omega ___

98
Q

**what is the best source

A

safflower oil

99
Q

**a deficiency in linoleic acid does what

A

creates eczema, poor growth rate, petechiae

100
Q

**if linoleic acid replaces CHO

A

LDL decreases, HDL increases

101
Q

**if linoleic acid replaces saturated fat

A

cholesterol decreases, HDL decreases

102
Q

EPA and DHA are what type of omega

103
Q

EPA mainly comes from

104
Q

DHA comes mainly from

A

walnut, flaxseed, and canola oil

105
Q

omega 3 have what effect on cholesterol levels

A

little; decreases hepatic production of triglycerides (inhibit VLDL synthesis)

106
Q

omega 3 is involved in ___

A

retinal function and brain development

107
Q

what does omega 3 deficiency result in

A

neurological changes-blurred vision, numbness

108
Q

what is the structure of fatty acids

A

straight hydrocarbon chain ending in a corboxyl (COOH) group at one end and a methyl group (CH3) at the other

109
Q

how are fatty acids classified

A
  • number of carbons
  • position of first double bond
  • number of double bonds
110
Q

what is designated by the omega sign

A

location of the first double bond counted from the METHYL end

111
Q

what is the structure of linoleic acid

A

C18:2omega6

112
Q

what is the structure of linolenic acid

A

C12:3omega3

113
Q

linoleic acid is omega ___

114
Q

linolenic acid is omega ___

115
Q

in terms of fat, what is hydrogenation

A

process of adding hydrogen at the double bond of unsaturated fatty acids to increase saturation and stability

116
Q

in trans fatty acids the hydrogens are found ___ from each other

A

across from each other; harmful to cell function

117
Q

trans fats are found in milk fat, ___%

118
Q

___, ___. and ___ contain trans fats as a product of partial hydrogenation of PUFA

A

margarine, shortenings, frying fats

119
Q

**what is the most saturated

A

coconut oil

120
Q

list the following in order from most to least saturated fat: palm oil, palm kernel, cocoa butter, coconut, canola, butter

A

coconut, palm kernel, cocoa butter, butter, palm oil, canola

121
Q

Medium chain triglycerides have how many carbons

122
Q

where are MCTs found

A

milk fat, coconut oil, palm kernel

123
Q

list the following in order from most to least MUFA: coconut, sunflower, peanut, kernel, olive

A

olive, canola, peanut, sunflower, coconut

124
Q

what has the most MUFA

125
Q

what has the most PUFA

A

safflower oil

126
Q

list the following in order from most to least PUFA: cottonseed, soybean, safflower, p;am kernel, sunflower

A

safflower, corn, soybean, cottonseed, sunflower, palm kernel

127
Q

list the following from most to least for butter: MUFA, PUFA, sat

A

sat, pufa, mufa

128
Q

list the following from most to least for margarin: MUFA, PUFA, sat

A

pufa, mufa, sat

129
Q

how does fat delay gastric emptying

A

depresses gastric secretion

130
Q

why does fat provide more energy than CHO

A

has less oxygen and more carbon; more carbon atoms for oxidation

131
Q

what are the diet requirements for fat

A

less than 30% kcals

132
Q

how is alcohol metabolized

A

as a fat; 7 g/kcal

133
Q

how do you determine calories from alcohol?

A

(.8)(proof)(ounces); proof=(%alcohol)(2)

134
Q

how is proof calculated

A

(% alcohol)(2)

135
Q

**what is winterized oil

A

treated so won’t crystallize when cold (salad dressings)

136
Q

**how is winterized oil made?

A

oil chilled to 45 degrees; fatty acids with high melting points crystallize and are filtered out

137
Q

**what is the appearance of winterized oil

A

clear NOT cloudy

138
Q

**what are some oils that have are winterized

A

corn, soy, cottonseed; NOT olive

139
Q

how much insensible water is lost each day

A

0.8-1.2 litres

140
Q

how do you calculate mEq

A

(mg/atomic wt)*valence

141
Q

what are the atomic weights and valances of Na+, K+, and Ca2+

A

Na+: 23, 1
K+: 39, 1
Ca2+ :40, 2

142
Q

what are extracellular electrolytes

A
  • Na; sodium
  • Ca; calcium
  • Cl; chloride
  • HCO3; bicarbonate
143
Q

sodium chloride is ___% sodium

144
Q

one tsp of salt has ___g of NaCl

145
Q

sodium is reabsorbed by ___ and retained by ___

A

aldosterone; steroids

146
Q

what are intracellular electrolyes

A
  • K; potassium
  • Mg; magnesium
  • P; phosphorus
147
Q

what are sources of potassium

A

meat, fruits, veg; banana, orange, tomato, potato, cantaloupe

148
Q

potassium excretion is increased by ___

A

aldosterone

149
Q

hypercalemia causes ___

A

cardiac irregularities

150
Q

**what is the normal range for sodium

A

136-145 mEq/L

151
Q

what is the normal range for potassium

A

3.5-5 mEq/L

152
Q

what is the normal range for calcium

A

4.5-5.5 mEq/L

153
Q

what is the normal range for magnesium

A

1.5-2.5 mEq/L

154
Q

what is the normal range for chloride

A

96-106 mEq/L

155
Q

what is the normal range for phosphorus

A

3-4.5 mEq/L

156
Q

what is the effect of protein of fluid balance

A

exerts osmotic pressure

157
Q

what is the function of albumin

A

exerts pressure on blood vessel wall that keeps water within; when alb drops, pressure drops, causing fluid to leak out-water moves from extracellular to interstitial space (edema)

158
Q

what happens when albumin is low

A

when alb drops, pressure drops, causing fluid to leak out-water moves from extracellular to interstitial space (edema)

159
Q

low serum protein leads to ___ and ___

A

edema and ascites

160
Q

what is anasarca

A

extreme, generalized edema and widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid in extracellular space

161
Q

anasarca is associated with what?

A

heart, liver, renal failure, and extreme protein/calorie malnutrition

162
Q

a serum albumin of ___ is often associated with physical signs of fluid retention

163
Q

**what are the symptoms of dehydration

A

nausea, dizziness, sunken eyes, fever, hyperventilation, excessive sweating, concentrated urine, dry inelastic skin, increase in solutes (BUN), tachycardia, headache, fatigue, decreased appetite, and rapid weight loss

164
Q

what is the best assessment parameter for fluid status

A

serum sodium

165
Q

___ releases hydrogen ions

166
Q

___ takes up hydrogen ios

167
Q

what is a buffer?

A

mixture of acid and base components to protect against a strong acid or strong base

168
Q

what is a major extracellular buffer

A

combination of carbonic acid and sodium bicarbonate

169
Q

the pH scale measures what

A

hydrogen ion concentration

170
Q

lungs control supply of ___ to help with acid base balance

A

carbonic acid; hypoventilation retains acid and hyperventilation loss of acid

171
Q

kidneys control supply of ___ to help with acid base balance

A

bicarbonate (base); excrete excess bicarbonate and level of base decreases

172
Q

**a change in one side of the buffer brings about a ___ in the other side to ___

A

compensatory change; maintain balance, pH close to 7.4

173
Q

in acid-base balance, a failure related to the pulmonary system is

A

respiratory

174
Q

in acid-base balance, a failure related to the kidneys is

175
Q
  • *what do the following tell you and what are the normal values:
    1. HCO3 (bicarb)
    2. pCO2 (carbonic acid)
A
  1. tell you if kidneys working; 24-28

2. tell you if lungs working; 35-45

176
Q

**what is the function of vitamin A

A

skin, vision

177
Q

**what are sources of vitamin A

A

yellow, orange fruits; dark green leafy vegetables; cantaloupe, fish, liver, carrots, fortified skim milk, apricots, sweet potato

178
Q

**what are signs of vitamin A deficiency

A

night blindness, nyctalopia, xeropthalmia, bitot’s spots, hyperkeratosis

179
Q

**what is the earliest sign of vitamin A deficiency?

A

nyctalopia, reversible

180
Q

**what is a sign of vitamin A deficiency that appears when deficiency is severe and prolonged

A

xeropthalmia -corneal damage, not reversible

181
Q

**what is one of the least toxic vitamins

182
Q

**what is the function of vitamin E

A

antioxidant; resists hemolysis of RBC

183
Q

what are sources of vitamin K

A

spinach, kale, broccoli, green leafy vegetables

184
Q

what vitamin is lost in cooking as temp of ph rises but is stable in acidic solution

A

b1 aka thiamin

185
Q

what is the function of b1/thiamin

A

oxidation of CHO; increase CHO increased need for b1; metabolism of pyruvate

186
Q

what are sources of b1/thiamin

A

grains, wheat germ, pork, liver

187
Q

what are signs of b1/thiamin deficiency

A

beriberi, muscle weakness, foot drop, memory loss tachycardia, decreased erythrocyte transketolase, increased plasma pyruvate

188
Q

what is the name for vitamin b1

189
Q

what is the name for vitamin b2

A

riboflavin

190
Q

what are signs of b2/riboflavin deficiency

A

cheilosis (cracked lips), angular stomatitis (mouth corner cracks, sore throat), and magenta tongue

191
Q

what are sources of folate

A

fortified dry cereal, liver, kidney, green leafy vegetables, citrus fruits, lentils, beans

192
Q

what is the name for b6

A

pyridoxine

193
Q

what is the name for b12

A

cyanocobalamin

194
Q

an increase in protein requires an increase in what vitamin

A

b6/pyridoxine

195
Q

what is the most abundant mineral

196
Q

what mineral is regulated by the parathyroid hormone

197
Q

what aids calcium absorption

A

vitamin D, acid, lactose

198
Q

what lowers serum calcium and how

A

calcitonin by inhibiting bone resorption

199
Q

what are the functions of calcium in the body

A

blood clotting, cardiac function, nerve transmission, smooth muscle contractility

200
Q

what are sources of phosphorus

A

meat, milk, poultry, eggs, fish, cheese

201
Q

what is the absorbable form of iron

A

ferrous (stored form is ferritin)

202
Q

what are signs of copper deficiency

A

rare: microcytic anemia, neutropenia

203
Q

what is Wilson’s disease

A

low serum copper, genetic absence of liver enzyme

204
Q

what are sources of sulfur

A

meat, fish, eggs, poultry

205
Q

what are the 2 minerals required in glucose metabolism

A

chromium and zinc

206
Q

as E expenditure of the body increases, the need for ___, ___, ___, and ___ also increase

A

thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, and pantothenic acid

Inman Domain 1 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions