Reproductive and Sexual Health Flashcards

1
Q

What happens to Wollfian and Mullerian ducts in females?

A

Wollfian degenerates

Mullerian - reproductive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happened to wollfian and mullerian ducts in males?

A

Mullerian degenerates

Wollfian - male genital tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hormones are involved in the development of male genital tract in males and are absent in females?

A

Testosterone

Mullerian inhibiting factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What hormone stimulates male external genital formation?

A

Dihydrotestosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is testosterone converted to?

A

Dihydrotestosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the name for undescended testes?

A

Cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is testosterone produced?

A

Leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are the spermatogenic cells located?

A

Seminferous tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What route does sperm take?

A

Testes - epididymis - vas deferens - ejaculatory duct - urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name 3 causes of male infertility?

A
Low sperm count
Obstructive - congential, cf
Non obstructive - klinefelters, chemotherapy
Endocrine
Erectile difficulties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the indiction for intra-uterine insemination?

A

Low sperm count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the indication for surgical sperm aspiration?

A

Azoospermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the indication for intracytoplasmic sperm injection?

A

Very low sperm count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the indications for donor sperm insemination?

A

Azoospermia, low sperm count, genetic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the target for the HIV virus?

A

CD4+ receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why does HIV cause susceptibility to infection?

A

Causes a reduction in proliferation and circulation of CD4 cells and a reduction in CD8 T cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the normal range for CD4 cells?

A

500-1600cells/mm cubed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At what CD4 count is the risk of opportunistic infections highest?

A

Less than 200cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is a HIV primary infection likely to present and what are the symptoms?

A

2-4 weeks after infection

Fever, rash, myalgia, pharyngitis, headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the 4 likely opportunistic infections in HIV?

And at what CD4 counts do they present?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia - less than 200
TB
Cerebral toxoplasmosis - less than 150
Cytomegalovirus - less than 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What organism causes pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What virus causes kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Human herpes virus 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the risk a baby of HIV infected mother will also become infected?

A

1 in 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most likely group to present with a late stage HIV infection?

A

Heterosexual men

25
Q

What is thelarche?

A

Breast development

26
Q

What is adrenarche?

A

Hair growth and pubic areas

27
Q

Where is GnRH released from?

A

Hypothalamus

28
Q

Where does GnRH act on and what does it cause the release of?

A

Anterior pituitary

LH and FSH

29
Q

What triggers ovulation?

A

LH surge

30
Q

At roughly what day in the cycle does ovulation occur?

A

Day 14

31
Q

What hormone rises after ovulation?

A

Progesterone

32
Q

What does the follicle become after ovulation and what hormone does it release?

A

Corpus luteum

Progesterone

33
Q

If fertilisation occurs what does the developing fetus help to maintain?

A

Corpus luteum

34
Q

What signals the end of the follicular phase?

A

Ovulation

35
Q

What are the 2 stages of the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicular

Luteal

36
Q

For women on anti-epileptics which contraceptives are UKMEC 1,2 and 3?

A

UKMEC 3 - COCP, POP
UKMEC 2 - Implant
UKMEC 1 - Depo, IUD, IUS

37
Q

For women on lamotrigine which contraceptives are UKMEC 1,2 and 3?

A

UKMEC 3 - COCP

UKMEC 1 - POP, implant, Depo, IUS, IUS

38
Q

What is metorrhagia?

A

Regular intermenstrual bleeding

39
Q

What is polymenorrhoea?

A

Menses occurring at a less than 21 day interval

40
Q

What is polymenorrhagia?

A

Increased bleeding and frequent cycle

41
Q

What is menometorrhagia?

A

Prolonged menses and intermenstrual bleeding

42
Q

What is oligomenorrhoea?

A

Menses at intervals greater than 35 days

43
Q

What are the two types of dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

Anovulatory - extremes of reproductive age

Ovulatory

44
Q

How long after UPSI does levonelle work?

A

72 hours

45
Q

How long after UPSI does ellaOne work?

A

120 hours

46
Q

What follow up should be given after emergency contraception?

A

Pregnancy test at 3 weeks

47
Q

How long after UPSI can the copper IUD be used?

A

120 hours

48
Q

When can medical TOP be performed?

A

Early - up to 9 weeks
Late - 9-12 weeks
Mid trimester - 12-24 weeks

49
Q

When can vacuum aspiration be performed?

A

6-13 weeks

50
Q

When can dilatation and evacuation be performed?

A

13-24 weeks - not available in scotland

51
Q

What two drugs are given in a medical TOP?

A

Oral mifepristone

Vaginal or oral prostaglandin - 24-48 hours later

52
Q

When can the second part of TOP be completed at home?

A

Before 9 weeks

53
Q

Which serotypes of chlamydia are associated with lymphogranuloma venereum infection in MSM?

A

L1, L2, L3

54
Q

What serotypes of chlamydia are most commonly associated with genital tract infection?

A

D-K

55
Q

What is the starting rules for COCP?

A

Up to and including day 5 - no precautions

After day 5 - extra precautions

56
Q

What are the starting rules for COCP in a non breastfeeding postpartum woman?

A

Up to day 21 - no precautions

After day 21- precautions

57
Q

What are the starting rules for POP?

A

Up to and including day 5 - no precautions

After day 5 - precautions for 48 hours

58
Q

When is COCP UKMEC 1 in breastfeeding women?

A

Only after 6 months

59
Q

When is COCP UMKEC 1 in non breastfeeding postpartum women?

A

After 21 days