Neonatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the gap between the left and right atrium called?

A

Foramen Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the ductus arteriosus link and what is its function?

A

Links pulmonary artery and aorta

So blood can by pass the non functioning lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does ductus venousus link?

A

Umbilical vein and inferior vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the healthy term weight of a baby?

A

2.5-4kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is a pregnancy considered post term?

A

After 41 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many times should the baby feed in the first 24 hours?

A

3 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can be given to prevent haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What 3 screening tests are performed on newborns?

A

Heel prick test
Hip exam screening
Newborns hearing screening test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What 5 conditions are tested for in the heel prick test?

A
Hypothyroidism
PKU
CF
Haemoglobinopathies 
Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is the new born examination performed?

A

At 24 hours of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What might an absent red eye reflex indicate?

A

Cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes tongue tie in newborns?

A

Tight frenulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What might cause a heart murmur in the first 24 hours?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When should the first passage of urine be?

A

First 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Urethra opening in the wrong place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 components of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Pulmonary stenosis
Overriding aorta
Ventricular septal defect
Right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is potters syndrome?

A

Morphological appearance due to oligohydramnious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a normal neonatal heart rate?

A

120-140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a normal neonatal Respiratory rate?

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What % of babies are born pre term?

A

6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name 3 causes of pre term birth?

A

Spontaneous/unknown
Multiple pregnancy
Premature rupture of membranes
Elective caesarean - Pre eclampsia, IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name 3 risk factors for pre term birth?

A
Previous pre term delivery
Abnormally shaped uterus
Multiple
Less than 6 months between pregnancies
IVF
Smoking
Alcohol
Illicit drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should be done with the cord after the birth of a pre term baby?

A

Wait for 1 minutes before clamping to allow placental perfusion - if the baby is OK and can be kept warm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How should a pre term baby be kept warm initially?

A

Placed immediately while still wet into a plastic bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
For how long should gestation correction be continued?
For babies born 32-36 weeks - 1 year | For babies born before 32 weeks - 2 years
26
Name 3 symptoms of respiratory distress syndrome?
``` Tachypnoea Grunting Intercostal recessions Nasal flaring Cyanosis ```
27
Where does neonatal intraventricular haemorrhage begin?
Germinal matrix
28
What is the mortality rate in grade 1 and 2 intraventricular haemorrhage?
10%
29
What is the mortality rate in grade 3 and 4 intraventricular haemorrhage?
50%
30
What is necrotising enterocolitis?
Wide spread necrosis in the small and large intestine
31
What risk does necrotising enterocolitis pose?
It may perforate
32
What is a meconium ileum?
Intraluminal obstruction
33
What condition might cause a meconium ileus?
Cystic fibrosis
34
When is the heel prick test done?
5 days
35
What does green vomit in a neonate suggest?
Malrotation or volvulus
36
Most common cause of neonatal jaundice?
Physiological
37
When does physiological jaundice occur?
After the first 24 hours
38
What are the 3 types of pathological neonatal jaundice?
Too early - before 24 hours age Too high - high levels of bilirubin after 24 hours Too long - After 10 days of age - especially after 2 weeks
39
What is the most common cause of jaundice before 24 hours of age?
Haemolysis
40
Name 2 causes of persistent unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia?
Hypothyroidism | Haemolysis
41
Name 2 causes of persistent conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia?
Hepatitis | Biliary atresia
42
What is the complication of untreated hyperbilirubinaemia?
Kernicterus
43
At what age is pyloric stenosis seen?
2-8 weeks
44
When does malrotation and volvulus typically present?
In the first 7 days
45
When does intussception typicaly present?
6-18 months
46
In what condition would you see bile stained vomit?
Malrotation
47
In which condition would you feel an olive shaped mass in the upper abdomen?
Pyloric stenosis
48
In which condition would you feel a sausage shaped mass?
Intussception
49
In which condition would you see jelly red stool?
Intussception
50
What are buccal koplik's spots pathognomonic of?
Measels
51
What is a Kawasaki's disease?
Vasculitis that presents in children under 5
52
Where does a medulloblastoma originate from?
Granular layer of cerebellum
53
What % of retinoblastoma is genetic?
45% - chromosome 13 - autosomal dominant
54
What is the mean age of presentation of a retinoblastoma?
18 months
55
What causes meckel's diverticulum?
Persistence of vitaline duct
56
What are the 5 areas assessed in APGAR?
``` Activity Pulse Grimace - movement Appearance Respiration ```
57
How are points awarded in activity in APGAR?
0 - No movement 1 - Arms and legs flexed 2 - Active movement
58
How are points awarded in pulse in APGAR?
0 - Absent 1 - Below 100bpm 2 - Over 100 bpm
59
How are points awarded in grimace in APGAR?
0 - Flaccid 1 - Some flexion of extremities 3 - Active movement - pull away, cough, sneeze
60
How are points awarded in appearance in APGAR?
0 - Blue, pale 1 - Body pink, extremities blue 2 - Completely pink
61
How are points awarded in respiration in APGAR?
0 - Absent 1 - Slow, irregular 2 - Vigorous cry
62
How are the total points interpreted in APGAR?
0-3 Severely depressed 4-6 Moderatley depressed 7-10 Excellent condition