reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

The formation of reproductive cells, including oogenesis (female - ovum) and spermatogenesis (male - sperm).

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2
Q

How many chromosomes do gametes have?

A

23 chromosomes (haploid).

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3
Q

What is the result of the fertilization of a gamete?

A

A zygote (diploid, 46 chromosomes).

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4
Q

What occurs during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

FSH stimulates follicle development and estrogen levels rise.

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5
Q

What triggers ovulation?

A

LH surge.

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6
Q

What hormone does the corpus luteum produce during the luteal phase?

A

Progesterone.

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7
Q

Where does conception take place?

A

In the ampulla of the fallopian tube.

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8
Q

What is the typical duration of pregnancy from LMP?

A

~40 weeks.

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9
Q

What are the three trimesters of pregnancy?

A
  • 1st: 1–12 weeks
  • 2nd: 13–27 weeks
  • 3rd: 28–40 weeks
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10
Q

What are biophysical risk factors related to reproduction?

A
  • Genetic conditions
  • Nutritional status
  • Chronic diseases (e.g., diabetes, HTN)
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11
Q

What psychosocial factors can affect reproduction?

A
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Substance abuse
  • Stress
  • Mental health disorders
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12
Q

What sociodemographic factors are considered risks in reproduction?

A
  • Age <17 or >35
  • Low income
  • Lack of prenatal care
  • Race/ethnicity disparities
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13
Q

What are teratogens?

A

Agents that cause malformation or abnormal development in an embryo or fetus.

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14
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets; risk for DIC.

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15
Q

What is the definition of gestational diabetes?

A

Glucose intolerance after 20 weeks of pregnancy.

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16
Q

What are presumptive signs of pregnancy?

A
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Fatigue
  • Amenorrhea
  • Breast changes
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17
Q

What are positive signs of pregnancy?

A
  • FHR by Doppler
  • Fetal movement felt by examiner
  • Ultrasound
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18
Q

What is Chadwick’s sign?

A

Bluish color of the cervix and vagina due to increased blood flow.

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19
Q

What happens to blood volume during pregnancy?

A

Increases by 30–50%.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

A

To aspirate amniotic fluid for examination of chromosomal or biochemical abnormalities.

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21
Q

What is the average weight gain recommended for pregnant women with normal BMI?

A

25–35 lbs.

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22
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of folic acid during pregnancy?

A

600 mcg.

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23
Q

What are the signs of preeclampsia?

A

HTN + proteinuria.

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24
Q

What is the normal baseline fetal heart rate range?

A

110 to 160 beats per minute.

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25
Q

What is the role of the placenta during pregnancy?

A

Acts as an endocrine organ producing hormones like hCG, estrogen, and progesterone.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of the contraction stress test (CST)?

A

To assess the fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions.

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27
Q

What are the disadvantages of external fetal monitoring?

A

Reduced mobility.

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28
Q

What is the significance of fetal movement assessments?

A

To monitor fetal well-being, often referred to as ‘kick counts’.

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29
Q

What is the risk associated with poor weight gain during pregnancy?

A

Low-birth-weight infants, preterm birth, and SGA.

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30
Q

What are the effects of maternal disorders like uncontrolled diabetes on fetal development?

A

Can cause congenital anomalies.

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31
Q

What is the primary prevention strategy in reproductive health?

A

Strategies aimed at preventing complications before they occur.

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32
Q

What is the importance of hydration during pregnancy?

A

Key for maternal and fetal health; recommended 8-10 cups a day.

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33
Q

What should be avoided in food safety during pregnancy?

A
  • Shark, swordfish, mackerel, and tile fish
  • Raw or undercooked fish, meats, poultry, or eggs
  • Soft cheeses
  • Unpasteurized milk products
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34
Q

What is the role of the umbilical cord during fetal circulation?

A

Cushioned by Wharton’s jelly, it transports blood between the fetus and placenta.

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35
Q

True or False: The foramen ovale is a right-to-left atrial shunt that closes after birth.

A

True.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of the biophysical profile (BPP)?

A

To assess fetal well-being by monitoring various parameters like fetal breathing and tone.

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37
Q

In which week of pregnancy would a primigravida anticipate quickening?

A

20th week

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38
Q

What does ‘primigravida’ refer to?

A

first pregnancy

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39
Q

By which week of pregnancy may a multipara feel fetal movement?

A

16th week

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40
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of folic acid for women of childbearing age?

A

at least 400 micrograms

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41
Q

Which food sources are recommended to meet the folic acid intake?

A
  • Legumes
  • Dark-green leafy vegetables
  • Citrus fruits
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42
Q

What clinical finding is expected during the third trimester of pregnancy?

A

Progressive dependent edema

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43
Q

A child born with a missing chromosome is most likely to have which condition?

A

turner syndrome

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44
Q

What is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A

autosomal recessive single-gene disorder; infant lacks a liver enzyme

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45
Q

What is Down Syndrome also known as?

A

Trisomy 21

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46
Q

What size would a newborn likely be if the mother had uncontrolled type 1 diabetes during pregnancy?

A

large for gestational age, near term

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47
Q

How is a negative contraction stress test result interpreted?

A

The fetus is likely to tolerate the stress of labor; adequate placental support

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48
Q

What is a common cause of nausea and vomiting in the first trimester?

A

increased human chorionic gonadotropin levels (hCG)

49
Q

What does ‘lightening’ refer to in pregnancy?

A

fetus’s head drops low into the uterus; third trimester

50
Q

What describes striae gravidarum?

A

reddish streaks on the abdomen and breasts

51
Q

What is Cholasma (melasma)?

A

brownish blotches develop on face

52
Q

What is Chadwick’s sign?

A

Bluish purple discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during pregnancy

53
Q

What causes urinary frequency in the first trimester?

A

hormones and bladder pressure from the enlarged uterus

54
Q

According to Naegele’s rule, what is the expected date of birth if the last period started on June 10th?

A

March 17th

55
Q

What is Naegele’s rule for calculating EDD?

A

subtract 3 months from LMP and add 7 days

56
Q

What changes are caused by melanocyte-stimulating hormone?

A
  • chloasma
  • linea nigra
57
Q

What test or treatment is advised first for a 41-year-old woman in an infertility clinic?

A

semen analysis

58
Q

Which medication is administered to trigger ovulation?

A

clomiphene

59
Q

What does the term ‘amenorrhea’ indicate?

A

absence of menstruation

60
Q

Which test determines fetal lung maturity in preterm labor?

A

Amniocentesis (2:1 lecithin to sphingomyelin)

61
Q

What supports the conclusion that a primigravida is 22 weeks gestation?

A

fundus is just above the umbilicus

62
Q

What is a consequence of maternal smoking during pregnancy?

A

low birth weight

63
Q

With which problem is a low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein associated?

A

down syndrome

64
Q

What indicates that an amniocentesis may be indicated?

A

family history of genetic abnormalities

65
Q

Which iron-rich foods should a client with mild anemia in early pregnancy eat?

A
  • Dark leafy green vegetables
  • Legumes
  • Dried fruits
  • Ground beef patty
66
Q

Why is fetal movement awareness important?

A

a decrease in fetal movement necessitates an evaluation of fetal well-being

67
Q

What is the primary reason for avoiding lying on the back during labor?

A

decreased placental perfusion

68
Q

Which are presumptive signs of pregnancy at 10 weeks gestation?

A
  • amenorrhea
  • breast changes
  • urinary frequency
69
Q

Which prenatal test provides the earliest diagnosis of fetal defects?

A

chorionic villus sampling

70
Q

What does a nonstress test evaluate?

A

the condition of the fetus by comparing fetal heart rate with fetal movement

71
Q

What is the 15/15 rule in relation to fetal movement?

A

15 beats with 15 seconds of fetal movement

72
Q

What direction should a client follow before an ultrasound at the end of the first trimester?

A

increase fluid intake for 1 hour before the procedure

73
Q

What does ‘G’ in GTPAL stand for?

A

number of pregnancies

74
Q

What does ‘T’ in GTPAL represent?

A

the number of pregnancies ending >37 weeks’ gestation

75
Q

What does ‘P’ in GTPAL indicate?

A

number of deliveries between 20-36 weeks

76
Q

What does ‘A’ in GTPAL refer to?

A

Number of terminated pregnancies

77
Q

What does ‘L’ in GTPAL signify?

A

number of children currently living

78
Q

What is Hegar’s sign?

A

softening of the lower uterine segment

79
Q

What is Goodell’s sign?

A

softening of the cervix

80
Q

What are Braxton Hicks contractions?

A

intermittent painless uterine contractions that occur with increasing frequency

81
Q

What factors contribute to male infertility?

A
  • abnormalities in sperm
  • erections
  • ejaculation
  • seminal fluid
82
Q

What is the chance of transmitting an autosomal dominant disorder?

83
Q

What is the chance of transmitting an autosomal recessive disorder between two carriers?

84
Q

What is the primary reason for referring someone to a genetic counselor?

A

family history of genetic abnormalities

85
Q

What factors contribute to female infertility?

A
  • disorders in ovulation
  • abnormalities of fallopian tubes or cervix
  • repeated pregnancy loss
86
Q

What is clomiphene used for?

A

ovulation medication

87
Q

What are common side effects of clomiphene?

A
  • Mood swings
  • Hot flashes
  • Abdominal discomfort
88
Q

What is assisted reproductive technology (ART)?

A

any infertility treatment in which the egg is fertilized outside the womb

89
Q

What is IVF (in vitro fertilization)?

A

eggs are fertilized with sperm in a petri dish

90
Q

What does gametogenesis refer to?

A

production of gametes (reproductive cells)

91
Q

What is ovulation?

A

release of the mature ovum from the ovary

92
Q

What is fertilization?

A

fusion of an egg and sperm cell

93
Q

What is implantation?

A

process in which the blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus

94
Q

Where is the best location for implantation?

A

upper uterus (fundus)

95
Q

What are chorionic villa?

A

Fetal portion of the placenta

96
Q

What is the decidua basalis?

A

maternal portion of placenta

97
Q

What is the embryonic stage?

A

3rd to 8th week after conception, all major body organs are completed

98
Q

What is the pre-embryonic period?

A

first 2 weeks after conception

99
Q

What is the fetal stage?

A

from 9 weeks after conception till birth

100
Q

What is Vernix?

A

a greasy deposit covering the skin of a baby at birth

101
Q

What is Lanugo?

A

fine downy hair of newborn infant

102
Q

What are the patterns of growth and development?

A
  • cephalocaudal
  • central to peripheral
  • simple to complex
  • general to specific
103
Q

What is considered a full-term pregnancy?

A

37-42 weeks

104
Q

What role does estrogen play during pregnancy?

A

causes uterus to increase in size and weight

105
Q

What is the role of progesterone during pregnancy?

A

maintains pregnancy and prepares breasts for lactation

106
Q

What risks are adolescents at during pregnancy?

A
  • impaired nutrition
  • anemia
  • infection
107
Q

Which diagnostic tests are performed for pregnancy?

A
  • CBC
  • blood type
  • Rh factor
  • rubella titer
108
Q

What does ultrasound assess during pregnancy?

A

presence and location of pregnancy

109
Q

When is transvaginal ultrasound done?

A

during first trimester

110
Q

When is transabdominal ultrasound done?

A

during 2nd-3rd trimester

111
Q

What is amniocentesis used for?

A

analysis of possible fetal abnormalities

112
Q

What indicates preeclampsia?

A

elevated blood pressure with presence of protein in the urine

113
Q

What is a Biophysical Profile (BPP)?

A

done in the 3rd trimester; ultrasound and non-stress test

114
Q

What does a triple or quad screen test for?

A

chromosomal abnormalities using maternal serum

115
Q

What does increased AFP indicate?

A

neural tube defect

116
Q

What does decreased AFP indicate?

A

Down syndrome

117
Q

What does a non-stress test assess?

A

increased fetal heart rate with fetal movement

118
Q

What does a Contraction Stress Test (CST) determine?

A

baby’s ability to handle contractions during birth

119
Q

When is surfactant produced in fetal development?

A

around week 24