PERFUSION Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of perfusion?

A

Perfusion refers to the flow of blood through arteries and capillaries, delivering nutrients and oxygen to cells and removing cellular waste products.

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2
Q

What can alteration in perfusion impair?

A

Alteration in perfusion may impair circulation of blood through the tissues.

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3
Q

What is ischemia?

A

Ischemia is a condition characterized by insufficient blood flow to tissues.

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4
Q

What is infarction?

A

Infarction refers to tissue death due to a lack of blood supply.

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5
Q

What does anoxia mean?

A

Anoxia is a condition of insufficient oxygen in the tissues.

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6
Q

What happens during systole in the cardiovascular system?

A

Systole is the contraction of ventricles, where the right ventricle sends blood to pulmonary circulation and the left ventricle sends blood into systemic circulation.

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7
Q

What is the average stroke volume?

A

The average stroke volume is 70 mL, ranging from 60-100 mL.

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8
Q

What is ejection fraction (EF)?

A

Ejection fraction is stroke volume divided by the volume in the ventricle at the end of diastole, representing the fraction of diastolic volume ejected during systole.

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9
Q

What is the normal range for ejection fraction?

A

Normal ejection fraction is 50-70%.

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10
Q

What is cardiac output (CO)?

A

Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the ventricles in one minute.

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11
Q

What is the normal range for cardiac output?

A

Normal cardiac output is 4-8 L/min.

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12
Q

What factors affect cardiac output?

A
  • Heart Rate (HR) * Stroke Volume (SV)
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13
Q

What is preload?

A

Preload is the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.

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14
Q

How does dehydration affect stroke volume?

A

Dehydration decreases stroke volume.

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15
Q

What is contractility?

A

Contractility is the ability of myocardial fibers to shorten, resulting in contraction.

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16
Q

What is afterload?

A

Afterload is the peripheral resistance against which the left ventricle must pump.

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17
Q

What is the definition of blood pressure?

A

Blood pressure is the force exerted by blood against blood vessel walls.

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18
Q

What are the main factors influencing blood pressure?

A
  • Cardiac Output (CO) * Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)
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19
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic blood pressure (SBP) and diastolic blood pressure (DBP).

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20
Q

What is the normal range for pulse pressure?

A

Normally, pulse pressure is about 1/3 of the SBP.

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21
Q

What is the mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

A

MAP is the average pressure within the arterial system that is felt by organs in the body.

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22
Q

What MAP is needed to perfuse vital organs?

A

A MAP of 60 mmHg is needed to perfuse vital organs.

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23
Q

Who are populations at greatest risk for impaired perfusion?

A
  • Middle-aged and older adults * Men * African Americans
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24
Q

What are common age-related changes affecting the cardiovascular system?

A
  • Increased collagen, decreased elastin * Decreased response to stress * Thickening of heart valves * Decrease in pacemaker cells
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25
Q

What does CPK stand for in cardiac biomarkers?

A

CPK stands for creatinine phosphokinase.

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26
Q

What is the significance of troponin in cardiac diagnostics?

A

Troponin is the biomarker of choice in the diagnosis of acutely impaired cardiac perfusion.

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27
Q

What is the normal range for creatinine?

A

Normal creatinine levels are 0.6-1.3 mg/dL.

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28
Q

What defines hypertension?

A

Hypertension is defined as persistent elevation of systolic blood pressure ≥140 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mm Hg.

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29
Q

What is isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)?

A

ISH is defined as SBP >140 mm Hg with DBP <90 mm Hg.

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30
Q

What are common risk factors for primary hypertension?

A
  • Age * Alcohol * Tobacco use * Diabetes mellitus * Elevated serum lipids * Obesity * Family history
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31
Q

What is the pathophysiology of primary hypertension?

A
  • Genetic links * Water and sodium retention * Stress and increased SNS activity * Endothelial cell dysfunction
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32
Q

What are clinical manifestations of hypertension?

A

Hypertension is often referred to as the ‘silent killer’ due to frequent asymptomatic presentation.

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33
Q

What are some complications of hypertension?

A
  • Hypertensive heart disease * Stroke * Peripheral vascular disease * Nephrosclerosis * Retinal damage
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34
Q

What lifestyle modifications can help control blood pressure?

A
  • Weight reduction * Dietary sodium reduction * DASH diet * Physical activity
35
Q

What dietary changes can help reduce blood pressure?

A

DASH diet including:
* Fish
* Fruits & vegetables
* Fiber
* Water
* Whole grains
* Nuts
* Poultry
* Seeds
* Beans

BP decreases similarly to using antihypertensive medications.

36
Q

What is the recommended daily sodium intake for healthy individuals?

A

2300 mg sodium/day

1500 mg if hypertensive, older, African American, diabetic, or with chronic kidney disease.

37
Q

How much alcohol consumption is recommended for men and women?

A

Men: no more than 2 drinks/day
Women: no more than 1 drink/day

38
Q

What is a first-line treatment for hypertension?

A

First Line Treatment includes:
* Diuretics
* ACE inhibitors
* ARBs
* Beta blockers
* Calcium channel blockers

39
Q

What are diuretics used for?

A

Accelerate urine formation to remove sodium and water

Used in the treatment of hypertension, heart failure, and renal failure.

40
Q

What are the types of diuretics?

A

Types of diuretics include:
* Loop diuretics
* Potassium-sparing diuretics
* Thiazide diuretics

41
Q

What is the most commonly used diuretic for hypertension?

A

Thiazide diuretics such as Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

42
Q

What adverse effect is commonly associated with thiazide diuretics?

A

Hypokalemia

43
Q

What is the action of loop diuretics?

A

Inhibit chloride and sodium resorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle

Increases renal prostaglandins leading to blood vessel dilation.

44
Q

What is the most commonly used loop diuretic?

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

45
Q

What are potassium-sparing diuretics designed to do?

A

Interfere with sodium–potassium exchange and block aldosterone receptors

46
Q

What are the adverse effects of Spironolactone?

A

Adverse effects include:
* Gynecomastia
* Amenorrhea
* Irregular menses
* Hyperkalemia

47
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors?

A

Blocks ACE, preventing conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

48
Q

What are some common ACE inhibitors?

A

Common ACE inhibitors include:
* Enalapril
* Lisinopril
* Ramipril

49
Q

What are the indications for ACE inhibitors?

A

Indications include:
* Hypertension
* Heart failure
* Cardioprotection post-MI
* Renal protection in diabetes

50
Q

What are the common adverse effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Adverse effects include:
* Hyperkalemia
* Postural hypotension
* Dry cough
* Angioedema

51
Q

What are Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) often referred to as?

A

Sartan sisters

52
Q

What is the action of ARBs?

A

Block the binding of Angiotensin II to its receptors, preventing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion

53
Q

What is the main action of beta blockers?

A

Reduce heart rate and decrease peripheral vascular resistance

54
Q

What are some common beta blockers?

A

Common beta blockers include:
* Propranolol
* Metoprolol
* Atenolol

55
Q

What are the nursing implications for patients on beta blockers?

A

Monitor pulse rates daily; report rates < 60 beats/min; avoid abrupt discontinuation

56
Q

What is the primary use of Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)?

A

Treatment of hypertension and angina

57
Q

What is a common side effect of centrally acting adrenergic agonists?

A

Drowsiness and dry mouth

58
Q

What are vasodilators used for?

A

Treatment of hypertension

59
Q

What is a hypertensive crisis defined as?

A

SBP >180 mmHg and/or DBP >110 mmHg

60
Q

What is the classic symptom of Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

A

Intermittent claudication

61
Q

What are the risk factors for developing PAD?

A

Risk factors include:
* Cigarette smoking
* Hyperlipidemia
* Hypertension
* Diabetes mellitus
* Chronic kidney disease

62
Q

What is the ankle-brachial index (ABI) threshold for severe PAD?

63
Q

What is the recommended exercise therapy for PAD?

A

Walking 30 to 45 minutes daily, 3-5 times a week

64
Q

What are the goals of nutritional therapy for PAD?

A

Goals include:
* Maintain BMI < 25 kg/m2
* Waist circumference <40 inches for men and <35 inches for women

65
Q

What is the process of opening an artery and removing plaque called?

66
Q

What does patch graft angioplasty involve?

A

Opening artery, removing plaque and sewing patch to widen lumen

67
Q

What is the goal of amputation in the context of limb preservation?

A

Preserve as much of limb as possible

68
Q

What is a nursing diagnosis for Peripheral Arterial Disease related to tissue perfusion?

A

Ineffective tissue perfusion (peripheral)

69
Q

Identify two nursing diagnoses for Peripheral Arterial Disease.

A
  • Impaired skin integrity
  • Chronic pain
70
Q

What is a key aspect of nursing implementation for patients with Peripheral Arterial Disease?

A

Health Promotion

71
Q

What dietary modifications should be made for at-risk patients?

A
  • Reduce fat
  • Reduce cholesterol intake
72
Q

What should be regularly monitored after surgery for patients with Peripheral Arterial Disease?

A
  • Skin color and temperature
  • Capillary refill
  • Presence of peripheral pulses distal to the operative site
  • Sensation and movement of extremity
73
Q

Name two potential complications to monitor for after surgery.

A
  • Hematoma
  • Thrombosis
74
Q

What position should be avoided to prevent occlusion of bypass graft?

A

Knee-flexed positions except for exercise

75
Q

What is the purpose of blood transfusion?

A
  • Increase circulating blood volume after surgery, trauma, or hemorrhage
  • Increase number of RBCs & hemoglobin levels in severe anemia
  • Provide selected components as replacement therapy
76
Q

True or False: Blood transfusions are common treatments that can be life-threatening.

77
Q

What is essential to prevent transfusion reactions?

A

Proper identification of recipient and blood product

78
Q

What is the ABO blood system based on?

A

Presence or absence of A and B red blood cell (RBC) antigens

79
Q

What are the characteristics of a type A blood individual?

A

Has A antigens on RBCs and anti-B antibodies in plasma

80
Q

What is a universal blood recipient?

A

People who have type AB blood

81
Q

What defines a type O individual in terms of blood antigens?

A

Has neither A nor B antigens on RBCs but has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma

82
Q

What is autologous transfusion?

A

The collection and reinfusion of a patient’s own blood

83
Q

When is blood typically collected for autologous transfusion?

A

Before or during surgery & transfused after surgery

84
Q

Why is autologous transfusion considered safer?

A

Safer than transfusion of another person’s blood