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Repro Path+Micro Flashcards

1
Q

human papilloma virus (HPV) is a small [ss/ds] [RNA/DNA] virus

A

HPV is a small ds DNA virus

causes skin and genital warts; types 16 and 18 are associated with cervical cancer

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2
Q

[?] can survive for on inanimate objects (fomites), so furniture, counters, and bathroom towels are a source of transmission

A

HPV (human papilloma virus)

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3
Q

skin warts, benign head and neck tumors, anogential warts (condyloma acuminata), and cervical dysplasia/ neoplasia are manifestations of [?]

A

HPV (human papilloma virus)

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4
Q

HPV is identified on Pap smears by [?] squamous epithelial cells which contain [?]

A

HPV is identified on Pap smears by koilocytotic squamous epithelial cells which contain vacuolated cytoplasm and occur in rounded clumps

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5
Q

[?] painless lesion with a raised border that heals in ~6 months

A

primary syphilis: painless raised border (chancre) that heals spontaneously in ~6 months, but organism spread throughout bloodstream

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6
Q

[?] “great imitator rash” - may be maculopapular, pustular, or scaly; also headache, fever, myalgia, lymphadenopathy

A

secondary syphilis; develops due to replication in lymph nodes, tissues, and skin

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7
Q

secondary syphilis includes raised lesions called [?] in skin folds and in mucous membranes

A

condyloma lata

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8
Q

manifestations of neurosyphilis

A

tabes dorsalis: loss of positional sensations => staggering

Charcot joint: trauma to knee and ankle joints

general paresis: gradual loss of higher integrative functions and personality

Argll Robertson pupil: pupil does not react to light but contracts when object is moved closer to eye

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9
Q

congenital syphilis results in [?]

A

premature birth, intrauterine growth retardation, facial and tooth deformities, deafness, arthritis, cardiovascular disease

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10
Q

non-treponemal syphilis tests include [?]

A

venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) and rapid plasma regain (RPR)

measure flocculation of cardiolipin from sera; often result in false positives; recommended for screening

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11
Q

treponemal specific tests include [?]

A

fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption test (FTA-ABS) and T. palldium particle absorption test (TP-PA)

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12
Q

syphilis is treated with [?]

A

penicillin G

there is no vaccine for T. pallidum

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13
Q

Pathology/ organism?

A

primary syphilis (chancre)

caused by T. pallidum

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14
Q

Pathology/ organism

A

secondary syphilis (“great imitator rash”)

caused by T. pallidum

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15
Q

Neisseria gonorrheoae is a gram [positive/ negative] [shape]; the cell wall contains [?]

A

N. gonorrheoae is a gram negative cocci (assorts as diplococci; coffee-bean shaped); cell wall contains LOS (not LPS)

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16
Q

clinical manifestations of N. gonorrheoae

A

urethritis: purulent discharge, thick greenish-yellow; accompanied by pain

cervicitis: 30% asymptomatic; dysuria, dyspareunia, discharge, genital discomfort; local spread can cause fallopian tube inflammation => chronic pain, ectopic pregnancy, infertility

disseminated gonococcal infections: skin lesions, septicemia, septic arthritis

ophthalmia neonatorum: conjunctivitis in newborn from infected mother

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17
Q

N. gonorrheoae infections are treated with [?]

A

dual therapy with ceftriaxone and doxycycline

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18
Q

Pathology?

A

N. gonorrheoae urethritis (purulent discharge, thick greenish-yellow; accompanied by pain)

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19
Q

Pathology?

A

ophthalmia neonatorum (N. gonorrheoae infection in baby born to infected mother)

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20
Q

Organism?

A

T. pallidum (syphilis)

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21
Q

Organism?

A

N. gonorrheoae (cultured on chocolate agar or Thayer Martin medium)

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22
Q

[?] are an intracellular bacteria with a complex life cycle including an elementary body (resistant to environmental conditions) and reticulate body

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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23
Q

[?] is the leading cause of preventable blindness in the world

A

Trachoma caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

chronic disease caused by inflammation => corneal scarring

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24
Q

clinical manifestations of Chlamydia trachomatis

A

trachoma: corneal scarring

acute follicular conjunctivitis: mucopurulent discharge, keratitis

neonatal conjunctivitis

urogenital infections: asymptomatic in 25% M, 80% F; cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, urethritis, discharge (less purulent than gonorrhea)

LGV: small painless lesions on genitals that heal spontaneously; second stage involves draining lymph nodes - enlarged nodes (painful, can rupture), fever, myalgia

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25
Chlamydia trachomatis is treated with [?]
antimicrobials that can penetrate cells (macrolides)
26
Haemophilis ducreyi are small pleomorphic gram [positive/ negative] [shape]
H. ducreyi are small pleomorphic gram negative rods
27
Pathology?
chancroid - tender raised lesion with erythematous base that develops in genital region; ulcerates and becomes painful; soft ragged margins caused by H. ducreyi
28
H. ducreyi infections are treated with [?]
azithromycin or ceftriaxone; drain involved nodes
29
the predominant vaginal flora genus is [?], which are gram positive rods that produce hydrogen peroxide
Lactobacillus species may help protect against vaginal pathogens
30
low vaginal pH results from [?]
bacterial fermentation of glycogen to lactic acid
31
[disease] often asymptomatic; minimal discharge; usually has a fishy odor; may have mild vulvar irritation
bacterial vaginosis treatment: metronidazole
32
[disease] purulent vaginal discharge; usually has a bad odor; vulvar irritation
trichomoniasis (caused by Trichomonas vaginalis) treatment: metronidazole
33
[disease] vulvar pruritis/ irritation; may have mild discharge
Candida vulvovaginitis (caused by Candida albicans in immune suppressed individuals/ patients on antibiotics) treatment: fluconazole
34
bacterial vaginitis is associated with a reduction in [?] and a concomitant increase in [?]
reduction in Lactobacilli + increase in anaerobes (Gardnerella, Mobiluncus, Prevotella species)
35
[disease] painful genital ulcers or vesicles, generally multiple; local lymphadenopathy; fever; headache
primary genital HSV (herpes simplex virus 2)
36
HSV treatment
acyclovir, famiciclovir, valacyclovir
37
HSV and H. ducreyi (chancroid) generally cause [painless/ painful] lesions syphilis generally causes [painless/ painful] lesions
HSV and H. ducreyi (chancroid) generally cause painful lesions syphilis generally causes painless lesions
38
syphilis and H. ducreyi (chancroid) generally cause [single/ multiple] lesions HSV generally causes [single/ multiple] lesions
syphilis and H. ducreyi (chancroid) generally cause single lesions HSV generally causes multiple lesions
39
pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with [?]
ceftriaxone + doxycycline + metronidazole OR cefotetan OR cefoxitin + doxycycline
40
Listeria monocytogenes infections are treated with [?]
penicillin G, ampicillin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol
41
grown on blood agar (beta hemolytic), [?] are catalase positive and demonstrate tumbling end-over-end motility at 25 C
Listeria monocytogenes
42
important causes of congenital infections
TORCH Toxoplasma gondii, Other [T. pallidum, parvovirus B19, Zika virus], Rubella, CMV, HSV
43
Name the congenital infection: infection in first trimester usually results in spontaneous abortion or stillbirth; manifest months to years later as intellectual disability, visual impairment, hearing loss, learning disabilities, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia
Toxoplasma gondii treatment: pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine
44
Name the congenital infection: 10-20% infants infected in utero have intellectual disability or deafness; other manifestations = microcephaly, chorioretinitis, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice
Cytomegalovirus treatment: ganciclovir/ valganciclovir
45
Name the congenital infection: ophthalmologic, cardiac, auditory, and neurologic anomalies (deafness, patent ductus arteriosus, and cataracts)
Rubella treatment: none, but immunization is 100% protective
46
Name the congenital infection: global development/ intellectual disability, rash, hepatosplenomegaly, osteomyelitis, dental/long bone abnormalities, blindness
T. pallidum (syphilis) treatment: penicillin IV
47
diamniotic/ dichorionic twins develop [?] days post-fertilization; diamniotic/ monochorionic twins develop [?] days post-fertilization; monoamniotic/ monochorionic twins develop [?] days post-fertilization
diamniotic/ dichorionic: <3 days diamniotic/ monochorionic: 4-8 days monoamniotic/ monochorionic: 9-12 days conjoined: 12+ days
48
the endoplasmic reticulum of the syncytiotrophoblasts is responsible for production of [?]
human chorionic gonadotropin hCG enters maternal circulation => corpus luteum maintained
49
teratogen exposure during weeks [?] is when most structural defects occur
weeks 2-8
50
[?] bluish discoloration of vagina and cervix
Chadwick's sign
51
[?] softening of the cervix
Hegar's sign
52
Pathology? (ovarian)
surface inclusion cysts secondary to invagination of surface epithelium
53
Pathology? (ovarian)
corpus luteum cysts seen in ovaries of reproductive age F
54
Pathology? (ovarian)
polycystic ovarian syndrome
55
Pathology? (ovarian)
stromal hyperthecosis (cortical stromal hyperplasia) postmenopausal women who present with symptoms similar to PCOS
56
Pathology? (ovarian)
serous cystadenoma one or several cysts with smooth inner and outer surfaces; lined by a layer of tall columnar, serous secreting ciliated or non-ciliated cells with no atypia
57
Pathology? (ovarian)
serous tumor of borderline malignancy (low malignant potential)
58
Pathology? (ovarian)
malignant serous tumors (cystadenocarcinoma)
59
Pathology? (ovarian)
mucinous cystadenoma many show KRAS mutations
60
Pathology? (ovarian)
mucinous borderline tumor epithelial stratification, tufting, and/or papillary intraglandular growth; may look similar to intestinal adenomas
61
Pathology? (ovarian)
mucinous carcinoma expansile invasion; marked epithelial atypia; can get very large
62
Pathology? (ovarian)
endometrioid carcinoma mutations in PTEN, PIK3A, ARIDIA, KRAS => increased PIEK/AKT pathway signaling
63
Pathology? (ovarian)
clear cell adenocarcinoma large cells with clear cytoplasm or hobnail type cells arranged in solid, tubular, or papillary configuration
64
Pathology? (ovarian)
Brenner tumor fibrous stroma containing scattered groups of transitional epithelial cells
65
Pathology? (ovarian)
mature teratoma filled with sebaceous material, hair shafts, and other tissue types
66
Pathology? (ovarian)
immature teratoma contain immature embryonic tissues, mostly solid with focal necrosis and hemorrhage; more common in children and young adults
67
Pathology? (ovarian)
dysgerminoma large cells with clear cytoplasm and centrally located nuclei in cords or sheets, separated by thin, fibrous septa that contains lymphocytes ALWAYS malignant
68
Pathology? (ovarian)
yolk sac tumor yolk sac differentiation with Schiller-Duval bodies (look like glomerulus) that contain intracytoplasmic hyalin droplets (AFP and alpha-1-antitrypsin) malignant and very aggressive
69
Pathology? (ovarian)
choriocarcinoma produce hCG; rare tumor
70
Pathology? (ovarian)
embryonal carcinoma solid tumor with necrosis and hemorrhage; solid sheets and nests of large primitive cells; syncytiotrophoblast-like cells secrete hCG, see elevated AFP
71
Pathology? (ovarian)
granulosa cell tumor microfollicular with Call-Exner bodies (coffee bean nuclei)
72
Pathology? (ovarian)
theca/fibroma solid, round, firm; fascicles of spindle cells; can see fat in thecomas
73
Pathology? (ovarian)
sertoli-leydig cell tumor resembles immature testes with Sertoli and Leydig cells
74
[?] cycles of bleeding with intervals >35 days [?] bleeding that occurs at intervals <21 days
oligomenorrhea: cycles of bleeding with intervals >35 days polymenorrhea: bleeding that occurs at intervals <21 days
75
[?] prolonged or excessive bleeding at regular intervals (>7 days or >80 mL) [?] irregular intervals of bleeding
menorrhagia: prolonged or excessive bleeding at regular intervals (>7 days or >80 mL) metrorrhagia: irregular intervals of bleeding menometrorrhagia: prolonged bleeding at irregular intervals
76
Pathology? (uterine)
endometriosis chocolate cyst - ovaries can contain large cysts containing degenerated bloody material
77
Pathology?
endometriosis
78
Pathology?
adenomyosis endometrial glands and stroma within myometrium
79
Pathology? (uterine)
endometrial hyperplasia loss of PTEN gene expression in intraepithelial neoplasia
80
Pathology? (uterine)
atypical endometrial hyperplasia gland crowding, approaching adenocarcinoma
81
Pathology? (uterine)
mucinous carcinoma
82
Pathology? (uterine)
serous papillary adenocarcinoma
83
Pathology (uterine)
clear cell adenocarcinoma
84
Pathology? (uterine)
malignant mixed mullerian tumor (MMMT) highly malignant tumors of postmenopausal F that present with postmenopausal bleeding; many have prior radiation therapy
85
Pathology? (uterine)
leiomyoma sharply circumscribed, discrete, round, firm, gray-white tumors with a "whorled" appearance rearrangements of chromosomes 12q14 and 6p; mutations in MED12 gene
86
Pathology? (uterine)
leiomyoma whorled bundles of smooth muscle cells that resemble uninvolved myometrium
87
Pathology? (uterine)
leiomyosarcoma
88
Pathology? (cervix)
chronic cervicitis Chlamydia trachomatis, Candida albicans, Trichomonas vaginalis, HPV, herpes
89
Pathology?
condyloma acuminatum usually caused by HPV 6, 11
90
Pathology?
koilocytes - indicates HPV infection
91
Pathology? (cervix)
low grade SIL = mild dysplasia = CIN I abnormal cells within bottom 1/3
92
Pathology? (cervix)
moderate dysplasia = CIN II atypical cells 2/3 of the way up
93
Pathology? (cervix)
severe dysplasia = CIN III atypical cells into top 1/3
94
Pathology?
herpes shallow ulcers
95
Pathology?
syphilis chancre
96
Pathology?
granuloma inguinale (Donovanosis) large ulcerated lesions that contain inflamed granulation tissue and numerous macrophages; bacteria in cytoplasm of neutrophils, histiocytes, and plasma cells (Donovan bodies) shaped like a safety pin
97
Pathology?
lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) transient vesicles on penis or vagina followed by lymphadenopathy with formation of bubos containing Chlamydia trachomatis
98
Pathology?
sarcoma botryoides most common neoplasm of lower genital tract in girls <5 years
99
Pathology?
clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina
100
Pathology?
placental abruption premature separation of normally implanted placenta prior to birth of the fetus
101
Pathology?
complete hydatidiform mole cystic swelling of the chorionic villi, sometimes with trophoblastic proliferation all villi affected in complete
102
Pathology?
partial hydatidiform mole nor all villi are affected, less trophoblastic proliferation, may see fetal parts karyotype is usually triploid (69, XXY)
103
Pathology? (pregnancy)
choriocarcinoma
104
Marfan syndrome is an inherited defect in [?]
fibrillin patient is tall with arachnodactyly, lax joints, lens discoloration, mitral valve prolapse, dilation of aortic ring and root of aorta, aortic dissection
105
Pathology?
G6PD deficiency
106
Pathology?
Marfan syndrome
107
Pathology?
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints; can lead to colon rupture, artery rupture, etc.
108
Pathology?
Tay-Sachs disease (cherry red spot in macula) due to deficiency of hexosaminidase A on chromosome 15
109
[?] lysosomal accumulation of sphingomyelin due to deficiency of sphingomyelinase
Neimann-Pick disease
110
[?] mutation in gene encoding glucocerebrosidase => glucocerebrosidase accumulation in phagocytes
Gaucher disease
111
Pathology?
Gaucher disease mutation in gene encoding glucocerebrosidase => glucocerebrosidase accumulation in phagocytes Gaucher cells resemble "crumpled tissue paper" due to fibrillary cytoplasm
112
all mucopolysaccharidoses are autosomal recessive except [?]
Hunter Syndrome (X-linked recessive)
113
alkaptonuria: lack of [?]
homogentisic oxidase => blocks metabolism of phenylalanine-tyrosine at level of homogentisic acid => accumulation of homogentisic acid
114
Pathology?
alkaptonuria accumulation of homogentisic acid => discoloration of connective tissue, tendons, cartilage
115
Pathology?
neurofibromatosis NF1 gene encodes neurofibrinin (downregulates p21 oncoprotein on chromosome 17) NF2 gene encodes protein suppressor gene on chromosome 22
116
name the disorder: simian crease, flat facial profile, epicanthal folds, large tongue, hypotonia, gap between first and second toes, Brushfield spots in iris
trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
117
name the disorder: micrognathia, low set ears, overlapping fingers, mental retardation, cardiac and renal defects
trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)
118
name the disorder: microphthalmia, microcephaly, mental retardation, cleft lip and palate, cardiac and renal defects, "rocker-bottom" feet
trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) rarely live more than a few years
119
[?] intrinsic abnormalities occurring during the developmental process
malformation
120
[?] alteration in form or structure resulting from mechanical factors
deformation
121
[?] due to secondary destruction of or interference with an organ or body region that was previously normal in development
disruption
122
[?] pattern or cascade of abnormalities
sequence
123
[?] constellation of congenital abnormalities which are believed to be pathologically related but cannot be explained on the basis of a single, localized initiating defect
syndrome
124
acute mastitis is typically due to [?]
Staph aureus
125
Pathology? (breast)
duct ectasia palpable periareolar mass with thick, white nipple secretions; ducts filled with inspissated secretions and lipid-laden macrophages
126
Pathology? (breast)
fibroadenoma well-circumscribed, rubbery, easily movable on exam, no necrosis; very rarely become malignant
127
Pathology? (breast)
fibroadenoma epithelial (round or elongated glands, distorted by growth of stromal cells) and stromal (loose CT) elements
128
Pathology? (breast)
phyllodes tumor similar to fibroadenoma, but less well-delineated and stroma is more cellular
129
Pathology? (breast)
intraductal papilloma most common cause of nipple discharge; complex papillary configuration with fibrovascular core upon which lie two layers of cells
130
Pathology? (breast)
fibrocystic change (blue dome cyst) fibrosis + cysts with tenderness beyond usual monthly changes
131
breast DCIS pattern?
cribiform DCIS
132
breast DCIS pattern?
papillary DCIS
133
breast DCIS pattern?
comedo DCIS (pleomorphic high grade nuclei and central necrosis)
134
Pathology? (breast)
invasive ductal carcinoma
135
Pathology? (breast)
invasive carcinoma
136
Pathology? (breast)
invasive lobular carcinoma (cells often line up)
137
Pathology?
inflammatory carcinoma dermal lymphatics are filled with metastatic carcinoma that blocks lymphatic drainage => peau d'orange
138
Pathology? (breast)
Paget disease large, pale Paget cells extend from DCIS in ductal system via lactiferous sinuses into nipple skin without crossing basement membrane
139
Pathology? (penis)
balantis xerotica obliterans atrophy of glans penis, counterpart to vulvar lichen sclerosus in F
140
Pathology?
condyloma acuminatum (genital wart) HPV infection
141
Pathology?
Bowen disease (carcinoma in situ of penis)
142
Pathology? (testis)
granulomatous orchitis unknown etiology; non-caseating granulomas around seminiferous tubules
143
Pathology? (testis)
seminoma (pale tissue in testicle) corresponds to dysgerminoma in ovary
144
Pathology? (testis)
spermacytic seminoma no lymphocytic infiltrate (differs from seminoma)
145
Pathology? (testis)
embryonal carcinoma highly aggressive tumors; solid sheets, trabeculae, abortive glands, papillary and cleft-like spaces
146
Pathology? (testis)
yolk sac tumor Schiller-Duval body (looks like a glomerulus)
147
Pathology? (testis)
teratoma (mature)
148
Pathology? (testis)
Leydig cell tumor architecture of solid sheets, nests, or trabeculae surrounded by stroma; cells are polygonal with granular acidophilic or vacuolated cytoplasm
149
Pathology? (prostate)
acute prostatitis see neutrophils
150
Pathology? (prostate)
benign prostatic hyperplasia glandular hyperplasia
151
Pathology? (prostate)
benign prostatic hyperplasia atrophic area
152
Pathology? (prostate)
adenocarcinoma

Human Disease Systems (11 decks)

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