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Human Disease Systems > Repro Path+Micro > Flashcards

Repro Path+Micro Flashcards

1
Q

human papilloma virus (HPV) is a small [ss/ds] [RNA/DNA] virus

A

HPV is a small ds DNA virus

causes skin and genital warts; types 16 and 18 are associated with cervical cancer

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2
Q

[?] can survive for on inanimate objects (fomites), so furniture, counters, and bathroom towels are a source of transmission

A

HPV (human papilloma virus)

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3
Q

skin warts, benign head and neck tumors, anogential warts (condyloma acuminata), and cervical dysplasia/ neoplasia are manifestations of [?]

A

HPV (human papilloma virus)

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4
Q

HPV is identified on Pap smears by [?] squamous epithelial cells which contain [?]

A

HPV is identified on Pap smears by koilocytotic squamous epithelial cells which contain vacuolated cytoplasm and occur in rounded clumps

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5
Q

[?] painless lesion with a raised border that heals in ~6 months

A

primary syphilis: painless raised border (chancre) that heals spontaneously in ~6 months, but organism spread throughout bloodstream

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6
Q

[?] “great imitator rash” - may be maculopapular, pustular, or scaly; also headache, fever, myalgia, lymphadenopathy

A

secondary syphilis; develops due to replication in lymph nodes, tissues, and skin

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7
Q

secondary syphilis includes raised lesions called [?] in skin folds and in mucous membranes

A

condyloma lata

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8
Q

manifestations of neurosyphilis

A

tabes dorsalis: loss of positional sensations => staggering

Charcot joint: trauma to knee and ankle joints

general paresis: gradual loss of higher integrative functions and personality

Argll Robertson pupil: pupil does not react to light but contracts when object is moved closer to eye

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9
Q

congenital syphilis results in [?]

A

premature birth, intrauterine growth retardation, facial and tooth deformities, deafness, arthritis, cardiovascular disease

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10
Q

non-treponemal syphilis tests include [?]

A

venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) and rapid plasma regain (RPR)

measure flocculation of cardiolipin from sera; often result in false positives; recommended for screening

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11
Q

treponemal specific tests include [?]

A

fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption test (FTA-ABS) and T. palldium particle absorption test (TP-PA)

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12
Q

syphilis is treated with [?]

A

penicillin G

there is no vaccine for T. pallidum

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13
Q

Pathology/ organism?

A

primary syphilis (chancre)

caused by T. pallidum

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14
Q

Pathology/ organism

A

secondary syphilis (“great imitator rash”)

caused by T. pallidum

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15
Q

Neisseria gonorrheoae is a gram [positive/ negative] [shape]; the cell wall contains [?]

A

N. gonorrheoae is a gram negative cocci (assorts as diplococci; coffee-bean shaped); cell wall contains LOS (not LPS)

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16
Q

clinical manifestations of N. gonorrheoae

A

urethritis: purulent discharge, thick greenish-yellow; accompanied by pain

cervicitis: 30% asymptomatic; dysuria, dyspareunia, discharge, genital discomfort; local spread can cause fallopian tube inflammation => chronic pain, ectopic pregnancy, infertility

disseminated gonococcal infections: skin lesions, septicemia, septic arthritis

ophthalmia neonatorum: conjunctivitis in newborn from infected mother

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17
Q

N. gonorrheoae infections are treated with [?]

A

dual therapy with ceftriaxone and doxycycline

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18
Q

Pathology?

A

N. gonorrheoae urethritis (purulent discharge, thick greenish-yellow; accompanied by pain)

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19
Q

Pathology?

A

ophthalmia neonatorum (N. gonorrheoae infection in baby born to infected mother)

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20
Q

Organism?

A

T. pallidum (syphilis)

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21
Q

Organism?

A

N. gonorrheoae (cultured on chocolate agar or Thayer Martin medium)

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22
Q

[?] are an intracellular bacteria with a complex life cycle including an elementary body (resistant to environmental conditions) and reticulate body

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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23
Q

[?] is the leading cause of preventable blindness in the world

A

Trachoma caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

chronic disease caused by inflammation => corneal scarring

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24
Q

clinical manifestations of Chlamydia trachomatis

A

trachoma: corneal scarring

acute follicular conjunctivitis: mucopurulent discharge, keratitis

neonatal conjunctivitis

urogenital infections: asymptomatic in 25% M, 80% F; cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, urethritis, discharge (less purulent than gonorrhea)

LGV: small painless lesions on genitals that heal spontaneously; second stage involves draining lymph nodes - enlarged nodes (painful, can rupture), fever, myalgia

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25
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is treated with [?]

A

antimicrobials that can penetrate cells (macrolides)

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26
Q

Haemophilis ducreyi are small pleomorphic gram [positive/ negative] [shape]

A

H. ducreyi are small pleomorphic gram negative rods

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27
Q

Pathology?

A

chancroid - tender raised lesion with erythematous base that develops in genital region; ulcerates and becomes painful; soft ragged margins

caused by H. ducreyi

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28
Q

H. ducreyi infections are treated with [?]

A

azithromycin or ceftriaxone; drain involved nodes

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29
Q

the predominant vaginal flora genus is [?], which are gram positive rods that produce hydrogen peroxide

A

Lactobacillus species

may help protect against vaginal pathogens

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30
Q

low vaginal pH results from [?]

A

bacterial fermentation of glycogen to lactic acid

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31
Q

[disease] often asymptomatic; minimal discharge; usually has a fishy odor; may have mild vulvar irritation

A

bacterial vaginosis

treatment: metronidazole

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32
Q

[disease] purulent vaginal discharge; usually has a bad odor; vulvar irritation

A

trichomoniasis (caused by Trichomonas vaginalis)

treatment: metronidazole

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33
Q

[disease] vulvar pruritis/ irritation; may have mild discharge

A

Candida vulvovaginitis (caused by Candida albicans in immune suppressed individuals/ patients on antibiotics)

treatment: fluconazole

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34
Q

bacterial vaginitis is associated with a reduction in [?] and a concomitant increase in [?]

A

reduction in Lactobacilli + increase in anaerobes (Gardnerella, Mobiluncus, Prevotella species)

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35
Q

[disease] painful genital ulcers or vesicles, generally multiple; local lymphadenopathy; fever; headache

A

primary genital HSV (herpes simplex virus 2)

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36
Q

HSV treatment

A

acyclovir, famiciclovir, valacyclovir

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37
Q

HSV and H. ducreyi (chancroid) generally cause [painless/ painful] lesions

syphilis generally causes [painless/ painful] lesions

A

HSV and H. ducreyi (chancroid) generally cause painful lesions

syphilis generally causes painless lesions

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38
Q

syphilis and H. ducreyi (chancroid) generally cause [single/ multiple] lesions

HSV generally causes [single/ multiple] lesions

A

syphilis and H. ducreyi (chancroid) generally cause single lesions

HSV generally causes multiple lesions

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39
Q

pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with [?]

A

ceftriaxone + doxycycline + metronidazole

OR

cefotetan OR cefoxitin + doxycycline

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40
Q

Listeria monocytogenes infections are treated with [?]

A

penicillin G, ampicillin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol

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41
Q

grown on blood agar (beta hemolytic), [?] are catalase positive and demonstrate tumbling end-over-end motility at 25 C

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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42
Q

important causes of congenital infections

A

TORCH

Toxoplasma gondii, Other [T. pallidum, parvovirus B19, Zika virus], Rubella, CMV, HSV

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43
Q

Name the congenital infection:

infection in first trimester usually results in spontaneous abortion or stillbirth; manifest months to years later as intellectual disability, visual impairment, hearing loss, learning disabilities, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia

A

Toxoplasma gondii

treatment: pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine

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44
Q

Name the congenital infection:

10-20% infants infected in utero have intellectual disability or deafness; other manifestations = microcephaly, chorioretinitis, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice

A

Cytomegalovirus

treatment: ganciclovir/ valganciclovir

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45
Q

Name the congenital infection:

ophthalmologic, cardiac, auditory, and neurologic anomalies (deafness, patent ductus arteriosus, and cataracts)

A

Rubella

treatment: none, but immunization is 100% protective

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46
Q

Name the congenital infection:

global development/ intellectual disability, rash, hepatosplenomegaly, osteomyelitis, dental/long bone abnormalities, blindness

A

T. pallidum (syphilis)

treatment: penicillin IV

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47
Q

diamniotic/ dichorionic twins develop [?] days post-fertilization; diamniotic/ monochorionic twins develop [?] days post-fertilization; monoamniotic/ monochorionic twins develop [?] days post-fertilization

A

diamniotic/ dichorionic: <3 days

diamniotic/ monochorionic: 4-8 days

monoamniotic/ monochorionic: 9-12 days

conjoined: 12+ days

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48
Q

the endoplasmic reticulum of the syncytiotrophoblasts is responsible for production of [?]

A

human chorionic gonadotropin

hCG enters maternal circulation => corpus luteum maintained

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49
Q

teratogen exposure during weeks [?] is when most structural defects occur

A

weeks 2-8

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50
Q

[?] bluish discoloration of vagina and cervix

A

Chadwick’s sign

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51
Q

[?] softening of the cervix

A

Hegar’s sign

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52
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

surface inclusion cysts

secondary to invagination of surface epithelium

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53
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

corpus luteum cysts

seen in ovaries of reproductive age F

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54
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome

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55
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

stromal hyperthecosis (cortical stromal hyperplasia)

postmenopausal women who present with symptoms similar to PCOS

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56
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

serous cystadenoma

one or several cysts with smooth inner and outer surfaces; lined by a layer of tall columnar, serous secreting ciliated or non-ciliated cells with no atypia

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57
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

serous tumor of borderline malignancy (low malignant potential)

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58
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

malignant serous tumors (cystadenocarcinoma)

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59
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

mucinous cystadenoma

many show KRAS mutations

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60
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

mucinous borderline tumor

epithelial stratification, tufting, and/or papillary intraglandular growth; may look similar to intestinal adenomas

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61
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

mucinous carcinoma

expansile invasion; marked epithelial atypia; can get very large

62
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

endometrioid carcinoma

mutations in PTEN, PIK3A, ARIDIA, KRAS => increased PIEK/AKT pathway signaling

63
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

clear cell adenocarcinoma

large cells with clear cytoplasm or hobnail type cells arranged in solid, tubular, or papillary configuration

64
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

Brenner tumor

fibrous stroma containing scattered groups of transitional epithelial cells

65
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

mature teratoma

filled with sebaceous material, hair shafts, and other tissue types

66
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

immature teratoma

contain immature embryonic tissues, mostly solid with focal necrosis and hemorrhage; more common in children and young adults

67
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

dysgerminoma

large cells with clear cytoplasm and centrally located nuclei in cords or sheets, separated by thin, fibrous septa that contains lymphocytes

ALWAYS malignant

68
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

yolk sac tumor

yolk sac differentiation with Schiller-Duval bodies (look like glomerulus) that contain intracytoplasmic hyalin droplets (AFP and alpha-1-antitrypsin)

malignant and very aggressive

69
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

choriocarcinoma

produce hCG; rare tumor

70
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

embryonal carcinoma

solid tumor with necrosis and hemorrhage; solid sheets and nests of large primitive cells; syncytiotrophoblast-like cells

secrete hCG, see elevated AFP

71
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

granulosa cell tumor

microfollicular with Call-Exner bodies (coffee bean nuclei)

72
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

theca/fibroma

solid, round, firm; fascicles of spindle cells; can see fat in thecomas

73
Q

Pathology? (ovarian)

A

sertoli-leydig cell tumor

resembles immature testes with Sertoli and Leydig cells

74
Q

[?] cycles of bleeding with intervals >35 days

[?] bleeding that occurs at intervals <21 days

A

oligomenorrhea: cycles of bleeding with intervals >35 days

polymenorrhea: bleeding that occurs at intervals <21 days

75
Q

[?] prolonged or excessive bleeding at regular intervals (>7 days or >80 mL)

[?] irregular intervals of bleeding

A

menorrhagia: prolonged or excessive bleeding at regular intervals (>7 days or >80 mL)

metrorrhagia: irregular intervals of bleeding

menometrorrhagia: prolonged bleeding at irregular intervals

76
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

endometriosis

chocolate cyst - ovaries can contain large cysts containing degenerated bloody material

77
Q

Pathology?

A

endometriosis

78
Q

Pathology?

A

adenomyosis

endometrial glands and stroma within myometrium

79
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

endometrial hyperplasia

loss of PTEN gene expression in intraepithelial neoplasia

80
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

atypical endometrial hyperplasia

gland crowding, approaching adenocarcinoma

81
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

mucinous carcinoma

82
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

serous papillary adenocarcinoma

83
Q

Pathology (uterine)

A

clear cell adenocarcinoma

84
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

malignant mixed mullerian tumor (MMMT)

highly malignant tumors of postmenopausal F that present with postmenopausal bleeding; many have prior radiation therapy

85
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

leiomyoma

sharply circumscribed, discrete, round, firm, gray-white tumors with a “whorled” appearance

rearrangements of chromosomes 12q14 and 6p; mutations in MED12 gene

86
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

leiomyoma

whorled bundles of smooth muscle cells that resemble uninvolved myometrium

87
Q

Pathology? (uterine)

A

leiomyosarcoma

88
Q

Pathology? (cervix)

A

chronic cervicitis

Chlamydia trachomatis, Candida albicans, Trichomonas vaginalis, HPV, herpes

89
Q

Pathology?

A

condyloma acuminatum

usually caused by HPV 6, 11

90
Q

Pathology?

A

koilocytes - indicates HPV infection

91
Q

Pathology? (cervix)

A

low grade SIL = mild dysplasia = CIN I

abnormal cells within bottom 1/3

92
Q

Pathology? (cervix)

A

moderate dysplasia = CIN II

atypical cells 2/3 of the way up

93
Q

Pathology? (cervix)

A

severe dysplasia = CIN III

atypical cells into top 1/3

94
Q

Pathology?

A

herpes

shallow ulcers

95
Q

Pathology?

A

syphilis chancre

96
Q

Pathology?

A

granuloma inguinale (Donovanosis)

large ulcerated lesions that contain inflamed granulation tissue and numerous macrophages; bacteria in cytoplasm of neutrophils, histiocytes, and plasma cells (Donovan bodies) shaped like a safety pin

97
Q

Pathology?

A

lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

transient vesicles on penis or vagina followed by lymphadenopathy with formation of bubos containing Chlamydia trachomatis

98
Q

Pathology?

A

sarcoma botryoides

most common neoplasm of lower genital tract in girls <5 years

99
Q

Pathology?

A

clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina

100
Q

Pathology?

A

placental abruption

premature separation of normally implanted placenta prior to birth of the fetus

101
Q

Pathology?

A

complete hydatidiform mole

cystic swelling of the chorionic villi, sometimes with trophoblastic proliferation

all villi affected in complete

102
Q

Pathology?

A

partial hydatidiform mole

nor all villi are affected, less trophoblastic proliferation, may see fetal parts

karyotype is usually triploid (69, XXY)

103
Q

Pathology? (pregnancy)

A

choriocarcinoma

104
Q

Marfan syndrome is an inherited defect in [?]

A

fibrillin

patient is tall with arachnodactyly, lax joints, lens discoloration, mitral valve prolapse, dilation of aortic ring and root of aorta, aortic dissection

105
Q

Pathology?

A

G6PD deficiency

106
Q

Pathology?

A

Marfan syndrome

107
Q

Pathology?

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints; can lead to colon rupture, artery rupture, etc.

108
Q

Pathology?

A

Tay-Sachs disease (cherry red spot in macula)

due to deficiency of hexosaminidase A on chromosome 15

109
Q

[?] lysosomal accumulation of sphingomyelin due to deficiency of sphingomyelinase

A

Neimann-Pick disease

110
Q

[?] mutation in gene encoding glucocerebrosidase => glucocerebrosidase accumulation in phagocytes

A

Gaucher disease

111
Q

Pathology?

A

Gaucher disease

mutation in gene encoding glucocerebrosidase => glucocerebrosidase accumulation in phagocytes

Gaucher cells resemble “crumpled tissue paper” due to fibrillary cytoplasm

112
Q

all mucopolysaccharidoses are autosomal recessive except [?]

A

Hunter Syndrome (X-linked recessive)

113
Q

alkaptonuria: lack of [?]

A

homogentisic oxidase => blocks metabolism of phenylalanine-tyrosine at level of homogentisic acid => accumulation of homogentisic acid

114
Q

Pathology?

A

alkaptonuria

accumulation of homogentisic acid => discoloration of connective tissue, tendons, cartilage

115
Q

Pathology?

A

neurofibromatosis

NF1 gene encodes neurofibrinin (downregulates p21 oncoprotein on chromosome 17)

NF2 gene encodes protein suppressor gene on chromosome 22

116
Q

name the disorder: simian crease, flat facial profile, epicanthal folds, large tongue, hypotonia, gap between first and second toes, Brushfield spots in iris

A

trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

117
Q

name the disorder: micrognathia, low set ears, overlapping fingers, mental retardation, cardiac and renal defects

A

trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)

118
Q

name the disorder: microphthalmia, microcephaly, mental retardation, cleft lip and palate, cardiac and renal defects, “rocker-bottom” feet

A

trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome)

rarely live more than a few years

119
Q

[?] intrinsic abnormalities occurring during the developmental process

A

malformation

120
Q

[?] alteration in form or structure resulting from mechanical factors

A

deformation

121
Q

[?] due to secondary destruction of or interference with an organ or body region that was previously normal in development

A

disruption

122
Q

[?] pattern or cascade of abnormalities

A

sequence

123
Q

[?] constellation of congenital abnormalities which are believed to be pathologically related but cannot be explained on the basis of a single, localized initiating defect

A

syndrome

124
Q

acute mastitis is typically due to [?]

A

Staph aureus

125
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

duct ectasia

palpable periareolar mass with thick, white nipple secretions; ducts filled with inspissated secretions and lipid-laden macrophages

126
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

fibroadenoma

well-circumscribed, rubbery, easily movable on exam, no necrosis; very rarely become malignant

127
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

fibroadenoma

epithelial (round or elongated glands, distorted by growth of stromal cells) and stromal (loose CT) elements

128
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

phyllodes tumor

similar to fibroadenoma, but less well-delineated and stroma is more cellular

129
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

intraductal papilloma

most common cause of nipple discharge; complex papillary configuration with fibrovascular core upon which lie two layers of cells

130
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

fibrocystic change (blue dome cyst)

fibrosis + cysts with tenderness beyond usual monthly changes

131
Q

breast DCIS pattern?

A

cribiform DCIS

132
Q

breast DCIS pattern?

A

papillary DCIS

133
Q

breast DCIS pattern?

A

comedo DCIS (pleomorphic high grade nuclei and central necrosis)

134
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

135
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

invasive carcinoma

136
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

invasive lobular carcinoma (cells often line up)

137
Q

Pathology?

A

inflammatory carcinoma

dermal lymphatics are filled with metastatic carcinoma that blocks lymphatic drainage => peau d’orange

138
Q

Pathology? (breast)

A

Paget disease

large, pale Paget cells extend from DCIS in ductal system via lactiferous sinuses into nipple skin without crossing basement membrane

139
Q

Pathology? (penis)

A

balantis xerotica obliterans

atrophy of glans penis, counterpart to vulvar lichen sclerosus in F

140
Q

Pathology?

A

condyloma acuminatum (genital wart)

HPV infection

141
Q

Pathology?

A

Bowen disease (carcinoma in situ of penis)

142
Q

Pathology? (testis)

A

granulomatous orchitis

unknown etiology; non-caseating granulomas around seminiferous tubules

143
Q

Pathology? (testis)

A

seminoma (pale tissue in testicle)

corresponds to dysgerminoma in ovary

144
Q

Pathology? (testis)

A

spermacytic seminoma

no lymphocytic infiltrate (differs from seminoma)

145
Q

Pathology? (testis)

A

embryonal carcinoma

highly aggressive tumors; solid sheets, trabeculae, abortive glands, papillary and cleft-like spaces

146
Q

Pathology? (testis)

A

yolk sac tumor

Schiller-Duval body (looks like a glomerulus)

147
Q

Pathology? (testis)

A

teratoma (mature)

148
Q

Pathology? (testis)

A

Leydig cell tumor

architecture of solid sheets, nests, or trabeculae surrounded by stroma; cells are polygonal with granular acidophilic or vacuolated cytoplasm

149
Q

Pathology? (prostate)

A

acute prostatitis

see neutrophils

150
Q

Pathology? (prostate)

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

glandular hyperplasia

151
Q

Pathology? (prostate)

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

atrophic area

152
Q

Pathology? (prostate)

A

adenocarcinoma

Human Disease Systems (11 decks)

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