Multisystem Flashcards

1
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteoporosis

increased resorption and decreased bone formation; overall organic to mineral matrix balance remains the same, but spicules are smaller, thinner, and more fragile

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2
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteomalacia

overabundance of organic matrix that is not mineralized, due to a deficiency of vitamin D; see widening of osteoid seams

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3
Q

Pathology?

A

Paget’s disease (osteitis deformans)

caused by infection of osteoclasts by Paramyxovirus; osteolytic stage (osteoclast stimulated by virus, resorbs bone) => osteolytic/osteoblastic stage (lysis of bone continues, but also osteoblastic activity laying down abnormal bone) => mosaic pattern

often incidental finding

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4
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteomyelitis

infection of the bone (60% S. aureus; Beta hemolytic strep next most common)

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5
Q

Radiographic finding?

A

Buttress

periosteal reaction caused by slow-growing tumors that provoke cortical thickening

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6
Q

Radiographic finding?

A

Codman’s triangle

elevation of periosteum to a significant degree, forming and acute angle

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7
Q

Radiographic finding?

A

Hair-on-end appearance

periosteal reaction due to new bone formation

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8
Q

Radiographic finding?

A

Osteoid

cloud-like or ill-defined amorphous densities with haphazard mineralization

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9
Q

Radiographic finding?

A

Chondroid

focal stippled or flocculent densities, or in lobulated areas, as rings or arcs of calcifications

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10
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteoid osteoma

benign, bone-producing neoplasm; small size, limited growth potential, but causes extensive reactive changes in surrounding tissues

10-25 years; 50% in femur and tibia

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11
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteoid osteoma

thin, often interconnected spicules of osteoid and woven bone rimmed by osteoblasts; osteoclast-like giant cells can be seen; intervening fibrous stroma shows prominent vascularity; without significant nuclear atypia

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12
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteoblastoma

rare, bone-producing neoplasm

second and third decades; axial skeleton (spine and sacrum), mandible, and other craniofacial bones

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13
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteoblastoma

resembles osteoid osteoma; osteoblasts and osteoclast-like giant cells rim interconnected spicules of osteoid and woven bone; intervening stroma shows prominent vascularity; no significant atypia

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14
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteosarcoma

malignant tumor of neoplastic mesenchymal cells synthesizing osteoid or immature bone

second decade; distal femur and proximal tibia, proximal humerus

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15
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteosarcoma

highly pleomorphic cells and haphazard deposits of osteoid; anaplastic features and mitotic activity; lace-like pattern

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16
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteosarcoma

highly pleomorphic cells and haphazard deposits of osteoid; anaplastic features and mitotic activity; lace-like pattern

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17
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteochondroma

cartilage-capped outgrowth attached to underlying bone by a bony stalk

M>F; usually stops growing when skeletal maturity reached

EXT1 and EXT2 gene deletions (q24 of chromosome 8, p11-12 of chromosome 11)

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18
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteochondroma

uniform, cartilaginous cap with stippled calcifications; cortex and medulla are continuous with those of lesion

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19
Q

Pathology?

A

Chondroma

common, benign, intramedullary bone tumor composed of mature hyaline cartilage

third and fourth decades; limited growth potential

vague lobularity (soap bubbles)

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20
Q

Pathology?

A

Chondroma

abundant cartilaginous matrix, can be focally calcified; low cellularity; clustered and scattered chondrocytes with small, uniform, darkly staining nuclei; occasional binucleated chondrocytes

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21
Q

Pathology?

A

Chondroblastoma

rare, benign neoplasm occurring second decade when growth plates are still open

70% in proximal humerus and knee, invariably at EPIPHYSIS

irregular but circumscribed, radiolucent epiphyseal lesion surrounded by reactive bone sclerosis

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22
Q

Pathology?

A

Chondroblastoma

highly cellular, sheets of round to polygonal cells; multiple small foci of immature bluish-pink chondroid give a lobular appearance; multinucleated giant cells; chicken-wire (right photo) calcification

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23
Q

Pathology?

A

Chondromyxoid fibroma

well-defined, expansile lytic lesion, centered at metaphysis and bordered by sclerotic rim

<40 years, peak incidence 10-20 years; 30% in knee area

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24
Q

Pathology?

A

Chondromyxoid fibroma

moderately cellular chondromyxoid tissue with vague lobularity and mildly pleomorphic, angular and stellate cells set in bluish-pink chondromyxoid stroma

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25
Q

Pathology

A

Chondrosarcoma

malignant, cartilage-producing tumor

30-50 years, extremely rare in children; bones of trunk (pelvis), femur, and humerus

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26
Q

Pathology?

A

Chondrosarcoma

large, lobulated, ill-defined lesion; moderately cellular, atypia

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27
Q

Pathology?

A

Non-ossifying fibroma

common, non-neoplastic, self-healing lesion occurring in skeletally immature individuals 5-20 years

often incidental findings

sharply demarcated, lucent, lobulated, meta-diaphyseal lesion surrounded by sclerotic rim

28
Q

Pathology?

A

Non-ossifying fibroma

moderately cellular lesion composed of uniform spindle cells in a storiform pattern and scattered giant cells; mitotic figures easily found; foamy histiocytes (xanthoma cells) and hemosiderin-laden macrophages

29
Q

Pathology?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

inability of tissue to produce mature lamellar bone; benign fibro-osseous lesion; 10-25 years; intramedullary location

long bones (ribs, femur, tibia, jaw, humerus) in metaphysis or diaphysis

30
Q

Pathology?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

thin wavy spicules of woven bone; lack of osteoblastic rimming or osteoclastic activity

31
Q

Pathology?

A

Giant cell tumor

relatively uncommon, locally aggressive neoplasm that may produce bone destruction and soft tissue destruction

20-50 years

65% in distal femur, proximal tibia, and distal radius

well-defined, lytic lesion eccentrically located in epiphysis with subchondral and metaphyseal extension

32
Q

Pathology?

A

Giant cell tumor

multinucleated giant cells in a background of small, ovoid, mononuclear stromal cells with poorly defined cytoplasmic borders

33
Q

Pathology?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

arises in medullar cavity, invades cortex and periosteum, and frequently produces soft tissue mass

80% occur between 5-20 years

diaphysis of femur, tibia, humerus, pelvis, and ribs

34
Q

Pathology?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

sheets of primitive cells with little histological evidence of differentiation; mitotic rate is relatively low; positive for CD99/O13

35
Q

Pathology?

A

Lipoma

36
Q

Pathology?

A

Spindle cell lipoma

37
Q

Pathology?

A

Angiolipoma

38
Q

Pathology?

A

Intramuscular lipoma

39
Q

Pathology?

A

Lipoblastoma

40
Q

Pathology?

A

Lipoblastoma

41
Q

Pathology?

A

Liposarcoma type 1: well-differentiated liposarcoma

42
Q

Pathology?

A

Liposarcoma type 2: myxoid liposarcoma

43
Q

Pathology?

A

Liposarcoma type 3: pleomorphic liposarcoma

44
Q

Pathology?

A

Nodular fasciitis

45
Q

Pathology?

A

Palmar superficial fibromatosis (Dupuytren contracture)

46
Q

Pathology?

A

Palmar fibromatosis

dense, but uniform, proliferation of fibroblasts with dense collagen in superficial fibromatosis

47
Q

Pathology?

A

Deep fibromatoses (desmoid tumors)

large infiltrative masses in anterior abdominal wall, limb girdles, or mesentery; most common in young F

48
Q

Pathology?

A

Myositis ossificans

athletic adolescents and young adults, often following trauma

49
Q

Pathology?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

most common soft tissue sarcoma of childhood and adolescence

50
Q

Pathology?

A

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

51
Q

Pathology?

A

Leiomyoma (top), leiomyosarcoma (bottom)

52
Q

Crystal type?

A

Urate crystals

53
Q

Crystal type?

A

Calcium pryophosphate dihydrate crystals

54
Q

Pathology?

A

Lyme

55
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteoarthritis

56
Q

Pathology?

A

Osteoarthritis

57
Q

Pathology?

A

Class IV lupus nephritis - Diffuse proliferative nephritis

most common nephritis in lupus

58
Q

Pathology?

A

Lupus

59
Q

Pathology?

A

Discoid lupus

60
Q

Pathology?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

61
Q

Pathology?

A

Scleroderma

62
Q

Pathology?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

left: synovium in RA
right: lymphoid follicles in RA

63
Q

Pathology?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

left to right: swan neck deformity, rheumatoid nodules, ulnar deviation

64
Q

Pathology?

A

Giant cell arteritis

vasculitis of large vessels

65
Q

Pathology?

A

Giant cell arteritis

66
Q

Pathology?

A

Takayasu arteritis

67
Q

Pathology?

A

Kawasaki disease