Renal/ Repro/ endo blood Flashcards

1
Q

anemia in baby pigs can be treated by the administration of ___

A

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a 10 yr old cocker spaniel is brought to the veterinary clinic with PU/PD and mild anemia. What is the potential cause of these signs, and what may be used to treat the anemia?

A

Chronic Renal failure ; EPO erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why are hemantinics not indicated for cases of acute blood loss?

A

Don’t occur quick enough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the anticoagulant of choice for collecting blood for hematologic studies?

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how can you explain the fact that clots may form in the vascular system with no external trauma to blood vessels?

A

the existence of an intrinsic clotting mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

you have accidentally cut the quick of a rottweiler puppy’s nail. what would you use to stop the bleeding?
How does this agent work?

A

silver nitrate stick
coagulates blood proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a 3 month old chow is brought to the pet emergency clinic because t has eaten a box of rat poison. What drug would the Vet use to treat this condition?
By what route would it be administered ?

A

Vitamin K ;
SC or IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

an 8 year old male Persian cat is brought to the veterinary clinic with an early onset of apparent rear leg paralysis and tachycardia. What agent may be used to treat this condition?

A

Fribrinolytic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cardiomyopathy is a potential side effect of what anti neoplastic agent

A

Doxorubican

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Briefly describe the phases of the cell cycle and what happens in each

A

G0; resting
G1; presynthesis preparation
S1; Dna and synthesis
G2; RNA production
M1; Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the sex categories of anti neoplastic drugs and an example for each

A

Alklating agents ; Cyclophosphamide
anthracyclines; doxorubican
antimetabolities; methotrexate
antitubulin agents; vinblastine
corticosteroids; prednisone
miscellaneous agents; cisplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

list 4 indications for the use of immunosuppresive agents

A

Treats autoimmune hemolytic anemia, lymphocytic plasmacytic enteritis , rheumatoid arthritis, lupus erythematosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 12 yr old Lab retriever has been through a treatment protocol for lymphoma, and the owner has opted for the use of a BRM. What agent could be used in this case?

A

Canine Lymphoma monoclonal antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why should you be very careful to avoid extravasation of anti neoplastic drugs?

A

Because most are irritating to tissue; can cause sloughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where in the body is EPO produced?

A

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ digests fibrin threads and other clotting products to cause clot lysis and the release of fibrin degradation products into the circulation

A

Plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which anticoagulant may be used to treat DIC?

A

Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why should heparin not be used as an anticoagulant when blood is collected for performance of a differential count ?

A

May mess up WBC, makes Identifying difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does EDTA work as an anticoagulant?

A

Binds with calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some potential adverse side effects associated with the use of anti neoplastic drugs?

A

Anaphylactic reactions, immunosuppresions, cystitis, pain with administration, tissue damage, V/D, hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

on what dosage are most antineoplastic agents based on?

A

Body surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Corticosteroids have lympholytic action, which makes them useful for treating

A

lymphoid neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a substance with antitumor, antiviral, and immunoregulatory effects is ____

A

Interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Erythrocytes are formed in the ____ in response to stimulation by epo

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the primary function of erythrocytes is to ____

A

carry O2 to the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

_____ are used to prevent or treat anemia

A

Hemantinics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are three examples of androgens ?

A

Winstrol- V , Equipose, and deca-durabolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation do not coverage into common pathway in the final steps of clot formation because the endothelial layer of blood vessels has the ability to regenerate itself. T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A heparin flush solution may be prepare by diluting heparin in saline at a concentration of ___

A

5 U / mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Heparin test tubes have a ____ Top

A

green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Vitamin ___ is an antidote for warfarin or dicumarol toxicity

A

K1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fluorouracil is contraindicated in ___ because of adverse side effects

A

felines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe the relationship between hormonal releasing factors, trophic hormones and the hormones produced by specific tissues or glands.

A

Releasing factors are messengers by the hypothalamus in response to its detection of hormone levels in the blood. They send messages to the pituitary to stimulate this gland to manufacture throphic hormones. TH, stimulate a specific tissue or gland to produce specific hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

list the major endocrine glands

A

Pituitary
thyroid
ovaries
testicles
adrenals
pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the reasons for using hormonal therapy in veterinary medicine

A

to obtain the desired effect and correct a deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

endogenous hormones are those that are produced ____ whereas exogenous come from _____ mechanism

A

in the body ; external

37
Q

where is the pituitary gland located and what is its function ?

A

located at the hypothalamus of the brain; controls activity of other endocrine glands

38
Q

the release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary is controlled through the ____ mechanism

A

neurohormonal reflex

39
Q

GnRH is classified as a/an

A

Gonadotropin

40
Q

List three potential uses of the postglandins in veterinary medicine

A

estrus synchronization
induce abortion
induce estrus

41
Q

human skin contact or injection with prostaglandins can be a serious health risk to ____ women and individuals with _____

A

pregnant ; asthma

42
Q

before oxytocin can exert its effects on the uterus, the uterus must first be primed by ____ and _____

A

estrogen and progesterone

43
Q

what precautions should be taken before oxytocin can be administered ?

A

repro tract examined for blockage or torsion
verify cervix has dilated

44
Q

what 2 active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland ?

A

T3 and T4

45
Q

List two drugs used in the treatment of hypothyroidism

A

soloxine and synthroid

46
Q

list three major classes of insulin and examples

A
  1. short acting ; Lispro , aspart
  2. Intermediate acting ; NPH, Lente
  3. Long acting; detemir, glargine
47
Q

Which form of insulin is used in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis ?

A

Regular (short acting insulin)

48
Q

Which forms of insulin must be re-suspended before administration ?

A

NPH / PZI and lente

49
Q

What are some signs of insulin overdose?

A

Weakness, shaking, ataxia, seizures

50
Q

growth promoters generally should not be used in animals intended for ____

A

breeding purposes

51
Q

why are anabolic steroids classified as controlled substances?

A

potential abuse from human athletes

52
Q

which insulin product should be shaken thoroughly prior to use?

A

Vetsulin

53
Q

What precautions should be taken by pregnant women when regu mate is administered ?

A

Wear gloves and avoid getting on skin

54
Q

why was synthetic DES banned from use in food producing animals ?

A

Linked to cervical cancer in women

55
Q

Prostaglandin causes lysis of the __ at the end of pregnancy or at the end of diestrus if pregnancy does not occur

A

Corpus luteum

56
Q

endometrium lines the ____

A

uterus

57
Q

a ____ hormone is one that results in the production of a second hormone within a target gland

A

trophic

58
Q

GnRH is produced in the _____

A

hypothalamus

59
Q

list 3 examples of gonadotropins

A

Cystorelin, factrel, Fertagyl

60
Q

Androgen are female sex hormones produced in the ovaries, adrenal cortex and testicles.(T/F)

A

False ; they are male sex hormones not female

61
Q

Prostaglandins are a group of naturally occurring, long chain fatty acids that mediate various physiologic events in the body (T/F)

A

True

62
Q

____ causes uterine contractions

A

Oxytocin

63
Q

Corticosteroids are produced by the ___

A

adrenal cortex

64
Q

pheromones are ___ released by an animal that influence the behavior of other animals of the same species

A

Odors

65
Q

Levothyroxine is used in the treatment of _____

A

hyperthyroidism

66
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is caused by an excess of circulating ____

A

cortisol

67
Q

Pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs may be treated with ____

A

Lysodren and Captopril

68
Q

U-40 syringes have a/an ____ top

A

red

69
Q

Insulin should be frozen to prolong its effectiveness (T/F)

A

False

70
Q

Two Veterinary approved insulin products include ____

A

Vetsulin and Prozinc

71
Q

What structures constitute the urinary system ?

A

2 kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and urethra

72
Q

Name 2 drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients

A

Xylazine (rompun) and Ketamine Hydrochloride (ketaset)

73
Q

Renal damage may be categorized as a

A

Pre renal, renal or postrenal

74
Q

Explain how diuretics work

A

Remove excess extracellular fluid by increasing urine flow and sodium excretion

75
Q

what supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretic ?

A

Potassium

76
Q

ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to

A

Angiotensin II

77
Q

Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing formation of ___ uroliths

A

struvite

78
Q

the renal cortex produces _____ ; thus chronic renal failure can cause an absolute or relative _____ in its production

A

EPO; deficiency

79
Q

where is ADH secreted ?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

80
Q

the ureters ____

A

originate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder

81
Q

persistently high blood pressure is known as ____

A

hypertension

82
Q

Diuretics are used to remove ____ fluids

A

extracellular

83
Q

Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is normally secreted by the ____ pituitary gland

A

posterior

84
Q

what supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretic ?

A

Potassium

85
Q

Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing formation of

A

uroliths

86
Q

_____ is a medical term for blood urine

A

Hematuria

87
Q

what part of the kidney is responsible for the re absorption, or the secretion of certain substances

A

Tubules

88
Q

patients with renal failure are at a lesser anesthetic risk than patients with normal renal function (T/F)

A

False