Renal Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in fluid and volume homeostasis?

A

ADH increases water and Na+ retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of total body water (TBW) is water? What factors affect this composition?

A

~60%. TBW varies with age, gender and body fat % (higher muscle will lead to higher water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the fluid outside of cells located?

A

Extracellular fluid (ECF) (includes ISF and Plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which fluid compartement is more immediately altered by kidneys? ICF or ECF?

A

ECF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What regulates the majortiy of osmolar homeostasis? How is osmolar homeostasis maintained? (What does body do to improve fluid volume)

A

Osmlolar homeostasis mainly mediated by osmolality-sensors in anterior hypothalamus. These sensors stimulate thirst and cause pituitary release of ADH.

atria release ANP which acts on kidneys to decrease sodium and H20 reabsorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is volume homeostasis regulated?

A

Volume homeostasis is maintained by juxtaglomerular apparatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does a decrease in volume at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) trigger?

A

Renin-Angiotensinogen-Aldosterone system (RAAS) for Na+/H2O reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the normal range for sodium?

A

135-145mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What levels of sodium require correction prior to elective surgery?

A

sodium levels ≤125 or ≥155

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the potential causes of hyponatremia in the Hypovolemic category?

A

From ppt notes section: Na+/H20 loss (diuretics, gi loss, burns, trauma)
Full list:
Renal losses: Mineralcorticoid deficiency, salt-losing nephritis, renal tubular acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, ketonuria, osmotic diuresis.
Extrarenal losses: vomiting, diarrhea, 3rd space lossed, burns, pancreatitis, muscle trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the potential causes of hyponatremia in the Euvolemic category?

A

Salt restriction, endocrine related -Hypothyroid, SIADH, gluccocorticoid deficiency, high sympathetic drive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the potential causes of hyponatremia in the Hypervolemic category?

A

ARF/CKD, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What percentage of hospitalized patients are hyponatremic?

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a contributing factor to hyponatremia in hospitalized patients?

A

Over fluid-resuscitation and increased endogenous vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment of hyponatremia involves treating the underlying conditions. What are some common methods of correcting low sodium

A

electrolyte drinks, normal saline, diuretics (for hypervolemia hyponatremia). If ineffective hypertonic saline can be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Na level 120-130 mEq/L

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Hyponatremia 130-135 mEq/L

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Na level <120 mEq/L

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two initial signs of hyponatremia

A

hyponatremia starts with headache and confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the dose for 3% NaCl?

A

80 mL/hr over 15 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How often should Na+ level be checked while treating hyponatremia?

A

q 4 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the recommended rate for Na+ correction in hyponatremia?

A

Na+ should not exceed 1.5 mEq/L/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why should Na+ correction be done slowly in hyponatremia treatment?

A

Rapid correction (>6 mEqL in 24 hr) can cause Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome (often leading to permanent neurological damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hyponatremic seizures are a medical emergency that can lead to what?

A

neurological damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the initial treatment for hyponatremic seizures?

A

3-5ml/kg of 3% over 20 min until seizures resolve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is DI often associated with?

A

Loss of dilute urine => hypernatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are common causes of hypernatremia?

A

Excessive evaporation, Poor oral intake (very young and very old, AMS pt), Overcorrection of hyponatremia, DI, GI losses, Excessive sodium bicarb (when treating acidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the diagnostic algorithms for different types of electrolyte imbalances?

A

Hypo: Renal/GI loss
Euvo: DI/insensible loss (skin, respiratory)
Hyper: ↑Na+ intake (IV)/aldosteronism/Cushings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the causes of hypervolemia hypernatremia?

A

IV intake, hyperaldosteronism, Cushings, salt water drowning, IV bicarb, NaCl tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the symptoms of Hypernatremia?

A

Orthostasis, Restlessness, Lethargy, Tremor/Muscle twitching/spasticity, Seizures, Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the initial step in treating Hypernatremia?

A

Identify root cause, Assess volume status (VS, UO, Turgor, CVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What treatment is recommended for Hypovolemic Hypernatremia?

A

Normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What treatment is recommended for Euvolemic Hypernatremia?

A

Water replacement (PO or D5W)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What treatment is recommended for Hypervolemic Hypernatremia?

A

Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the target Na+ reduction rate to avoid cerebral edema, seizures, and neurologic damage in Hypernatremia?

A

≤0.5 mmol/L/hr, and ≤ 10 mmol/L per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Normal Potassium Level?

A

3.5-5 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Percentage of Potassium in ECF?

A

< 1.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does Serum K+ level reflect?

A

Transmembrane K+ regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Effect of Aldosterone on K+?

A

Causes distal nephron to secrete K+ and reabsorb Na+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens to K+ excretion in renal failure?

A

Renal excretion of K+ declines and excretion of K+ shifts towards GI system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 3 major categories of causes for hypokalemia?

A

Renal loss, GI loss, Transcellular shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are common causes of hypokalemia related to renal loss?

A

Diuretics, Hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are common causes of hypokalemia related to GI loss?

A

N/V/D, malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are some common causes of hypokalemia related to intracellular shift?

A

Alkalosis, β-Ag’s, Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What medical condition can lead to hypokalemia due to osmotic diuresis?

A

DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which medication in blood pressure management can cause hypokalemia?

A

HCTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What dietary item in excess can lead to hypokalemia?

A

Excessive licorice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the symptoms of hypokalemia?

A

Generally cardiac (dysrhythmias, U wave) and neuromuscular (muscle weakness/cramps and ileus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How can hypokalemia be treated?

A

Treatment of underlying cause.
Potassium PO > IV (CVC) may take days to correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the IV dose range for IV potassium? How much will IV potassium increase serum K+ levels?

A

Generally 10-20meq/L/hr IV.
EAch 10 mEq IV K+ will increase serum K+ by 0.1mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What should be avoided in the treatment of hypokalemia?

A

Avoic excessive insulin, β-agonists (decrease speed of Na+/K+ pump), bicarb, hyperventilation, diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are some symptoms of hyperkalemia?

A

Chronic may be minimally symptomatic (Malaise, GI upset)
Skeletal muscle paralysis, cardiac dysrhythmias, decrease fine motor function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some EKG changes associated with hyperkalemia?

A

Peaked T wave, P wave disappearance, prolonged QRS complex, sine waves, asystole

slowing of conduction
Fusion of QRS-T
Loss of ST segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What can cause hyperkalemia?

A

Renal failure, hypoaldosteronism, drugs inhibiting RAAS/K+ excretion, Succinylcholine, Acidosis, cell death, massive blood transfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How does succinylcholine affect serum K+ levels?

A

Increases by 0.5-1 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the initial consequence of dialysis?

A

Hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the initial treatment for hyperkalemia? Why is this the initial treatment?

A

Calcium administration. Calcium will stabilize cell membrane quickly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does hyperventilation affect potassium levels?

A

Hyperventilation will increase pH. Increase of pH by 0.1 will decrease K+ by 0.4-1.5 mmol/L.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the dose of insulin and D50 in hyperkalemia treatment? How long will it take for insulin to work in hyperkalemia treatment?

A

10 units IV insulin: 25 g D50. Onset of 10-20 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What should be avoided in hyperkalemia management?

A

Succs, hypoventilation, LR & K+ containing IV fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In addition to Calcium, hyperventilation and insulin what other methods are utilized to decrease potassium?

A

Bicarb, loop diuretics, Kayexalate (hours to days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How much of the body’s Calcium is in ECF? Where is the majority of Calcium stored? What percentage of plasma Ca++ is protein bound?

A

Only 1% of Calcium is in ECF; the other 99% is stored in bone.
Of the 1% of calcium in ECF 60% of it is bound to proteins (mainly Albumin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How does pH affect the binding of Ca++ to albumin?

A

↑pH/Alkalosis→↑Ca++ binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which form of plasma Ca++ is physiologically active?

A

Ionized calcium is physologically active whereas protein bound calcium is not active.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the normal range for ionized Ca++?

A

1.2-1.38 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which hormones regulate Calcium

A

parathyroid, Vitamin D (calcitriol), Caclitonin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What hormone increases GI absorption, renal reabsorption, and bone absorption of Ca++?

A

Parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which hormone augments intestinal Ca++ absorption?

A

Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What hormone helps store calcium into bone and lowers calcium lvls in blood?

A

Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is required for PTH production?

A

Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How does pH influence the binding of Calcium to albumin?

A

increased pH/alkalosis leads to increase calcium binding to albumin (therefore decreasing ionized calcium levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When should iCa++ be checked in relation to PRBC transfusions?

A

After 4+ units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A major cause of Hypocalcemia is a decrease in what hormone?

A

PTH (Parathyroid hormone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What role does Magnesium play in Hypocalcemia?

A

Deficiency can cause Hypocalcemia because it’s needed to make PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How does Renal failure contribute to Hypocalcemia?

A

Kidneys not responding to PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is a consequence of massive blood transfusion on calcium levels?

A

Citrate preservative binds Ca++, causing Hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Most common causes of hypercalcemia

A

Hyperparathyroidism or cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Hyperparathyroidism serum Calcium level range

A

<11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cancer serum Calcium level range for those with hypercalcemia

A

> 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Less common causes of hypercalcemia

A

Vit D intoxication, Milk-alkali syndrome (excess GI Calcium absorption), Granulomatous diseases (sarcoidosis)

81
Q

What caution should be taken when extubating after parathyroidectomy?

A

Have laryngospasm plan

82
Q

What are signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia?

A

Confusion, lethargy, hypotonia/decreased deep tendon reflexes, abdominal pain, n/v, short QT interval.

83
Q

What are signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia?

A

Paresthesias, irritability, hypotension, seizures, myocardial depression, prolonged QT interval.

84
Q

What can chronic high calcium levels lead to?

A

Hypercalciuria & nephrolithiasis

85
Q

What is a life-threatening complication post-parathyroidectomy related to hypocalcemia?

A

Laryngospasm. Due to calcium absoprtion dependent on PTH.

86
Q

What are the causes of hypo-magnesium?

A

Low dietary intake or absorption, Renal wasting

87
Q

What are the symptoms of hypo-magnesium?

A

Muscle weakness or excitation, seizures, Ventricular dysrhythmia (polymorphic v Tach, Torsades)

88
Q

How is hypo-magnesium treated for torsades or seizures?

A

2g Mag Sulfate

89
Q

What are the symptoms of hypermagnesemia at 4-5 mEq/L?

A

Lethargy, N/V, Flushing

90
Q

What are the symptoms of hypermagnesemia at >6 mEq/L?

A

HoTN, ↓DTR

91
Q

What are the symptoms of hypermagnesemia at >10 mEq/L?

A

Paralysis, apnea, heart blocks, cardiac arrest

92
Q

How is hypermagnesemia treated?

A

Diuresis, IV Calcium (cell membrane stabilization), Dialysis

93
Q

Where are the kidneys located?

A

Retroperitoneal between T12-L4

94
Q

Which kidney is slightly caudal to accommodate the liver?

A

Right

95
Q

What is the primary structural and functional unit in the kidney? How many are present in each kidney?

A

Nephron. There are approximately ~1 million per kidney.

96
Q

What are the components of a nephron?

A

Glomerulus,
Tubular system: Bowman capsule, PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT, Collecting duct

97
Q

What percentage of cardiac output do the kidneys receive? What does this equate to in L/min

A

20% of CO, 1-1.25 L/min

98
Q

Which part of the kidney receives the majority of renal blood flow? What % of RBF does it receive?

A

Cortex receives majority of RBF (85-90%)

99
Q

Which part of the kidney is particularly vulnerable to necrosis in response to hypotension?

A

Loop of Henle

100
Q

What system is responsible for increasing Na+/H2O reabsorption?

A

RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone system)

101
Q

What is crucial for pH balance in the body?

A

Reabsorption & excretion of HCO3- & H+

102
Q

What role does EPO play regarding blood?

A

Involved in RBCs production. Renal patients often on EPO supplements.

103
Q

What maintains serum calcium levels?

A

Calcitriol

104
Q

What are prostaglandins’ roles in the kidneys?

A

Inflammatory modulators, vasodilatory effects, maintain renal blood flow

105
Q

What additional role do kidneys play in metabolism?

A

Gluconeogenesis and filtration & reabsorption of glucose

106
Q

How do kidneys help in regulating blood pressure?

A

RAAS, ANP

107
Q

Name a function of the kidneys related to excretion.

A

Excrete toxins/metabolites

108
Q

How do kidneys contribute to maintaining acid/base balance?

A

By managing the balance of HCO3- and H+

109
Q

Which hormones are produced by the kidneys?

A

Renin, Erythropoietin, Calcitriol, Prostaglandins

110
Q

What is the role of the kidneys in blood glucose homeostasis?

A

Gluconeogenesis, filtration & reabsorption of glucose

111
Q

What is the best measure of renal function over time? What is this lab heavily influenced by? How does aging affect this lab?

A

Glomerular filtration rate (125-140 mL/min) is best measure of renal function over time. GFR is heavily dependent on hydration status. GFR decreases by 10 mL/min per decade after 20’s.

112
Q

What does Creatinine Clearance measure? What is the normal range?

A

Most reliable measure of GFR. Conducted using 24 hour urine test. Normal level (110-140 mL/min)

113
Q

What is normal serum creatinine level? What is serum creatinine relationship to GFR?

A

Serum Creatinine (0.6-1.3 mg/dL).
It is inversely related to GFR.

114
Q

What can a double serum creatinine in an acute case indicate?

A

Drop in GFR by 50%

115
Q

What is the normal range for Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)?

A

10-20 mg/dL

116
Q

What could a low BUN level indicate?

A

Malnourished or volume diluted

117
Q

What could a high BUN level indicate?

A

High protein diet, dehydrated, GI bleed, trauma, muscle wasting

118
Q

What is the normal BUN:Creatinine ratio?

A

10:1

119
Q

Why is the BUN:Creatinine ratio a good measure of hydration status?

A

BUN reabsorbed, creatinine not reabsorbed

120
Q

Normal proteinuria level? What could proteinuria (>750 mg/day) suggest?

A

Normal level is (<150 mg/dL). >750 mg/day is indicative of Glomerular injury or UTI

121
Q

What is the normal range for specific gravity? What is it used to assess?

A

1.001-1.035. Measures nephron’s ability to concentrate urine.

122
Q

What should you consider when assessing volume status?

A

Hydration status, history, physical exam

123
Q

What is oliguria?

A

<500mL in 24h

124
Q

What is the normal range for urine output (UOP)?

A

0.5-1ml/kg/hr or 30 ml/hr

125
Q

What does a compressed IVC indicate? How is this assessed?

A

compressed IVC is indicative of dehydration. It can be assessed via Ultrasound

126
Q

What does LAP/PCWP stand for?

A

Left atrial pressure & Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure;

(Powerful stimuli for renal vasoconstriction?)

127
Q

What assumption is made when measuring stroke volume variation?

A

Patient is ventilated and in sinus rhythm

128
Q

What does >50% IVC collapse indicate?

A

Fluid deficit

129
Q

What can be considered to determine fluid responsiveness in addition to IVC collapsibility?

A

Passive leg raise

130
Q

What is a common hallmark of Acute Kidney Injury? Is Acute Kidney injury reversible?

A

Azotemia: buildup of urea and creatinine
Yes, it is Reversible with timely interventions

131
Q

AKI with Multiple System Organ Failure (MSOF) requiring dialysis results in a mortatility rate of?

A

> 50%

132
Q

What are some risk factors of AKI?

A

Primary risk:
- Pre-existing renal disease
Others:
- Advanced age (GFR decreases with age), CHF, PVD, Diabetes, Sepsis (via hypotension), Jaundice, Major operative procedures, IV Contrast

133
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for AKI?

A

SCr increase by 0.3 mg/dL within 48h, SCr increase by 50% within 7 days, Creatinine clearance decrease by 50%, and abrupt oliguria (although not always seen in AKI)

134
Q

Physical symptoms of AKI

A

Can be asymptomatic, malaise, hypotension, hypo or hypervolemia

135
Q

What is the cause of pre-renal azotemia?

A

↓ renal perfusion

136
Q

What is the cause of renal azotemia?

A

nephron injury

137
Q

What is the cause of post renal azotemia?

A

outflow obstruction

138
Q

Which type of azotemia is the easiest to treat? Which is the most common form of AKI?

A

Postrenal Azotemia easiest to treat.
Pre-renal is the most common form of AKI.

139
Q

Name the causes of prerenal azotemia.

A
140
Q

Name the causes of renal azotemia.

A
141
Q

Name the causes of postrenal azotemia.

A
142
Q

What is the typical BUN:Cr ratio in Pre-Renal AKI?

A

> 20:1

143
Q

Is Pre-renal azotemia reversible? What can it lead to if it is not reversed in a timely manner?

A

Yes, pre-renal AKI is usually a volume issue.
If not reversed it can lead to Acute tubular necrosis (progressives from a pre-renal issue to a renal issue)

144
Q

What is the primary goal in treating Pre-renal azotemia? How is this achieved?

A

Restore RBF is primary goal and can be achieved via: fluids, mannitol, diuretics, maintain MAP, pressers.

145
Q

What is the typical BUN:Cr ratio in renal azotemia?

A

< 15:1

146
Q

In renal AKI, why does BUN:Cr decrease compared to pre-renal AKI?

A

Decreased urea reabsorption in proximal tubule

147
Q

What are the characteristics of renal azotemia?

A

Intrinsic renal disease, potentially reversible

decreased GFR (late sign), decreased urea reabsorption in proximal tubule (decreased BUN), decreased creatinine filtration (elevated blood creatinine)

148
Q

What is hydronephrosis?

A

Obstruction causing renal pelvis dilation

149
Q

What is post-renal azotemia?

A

Result of outflow obstruction

150
Q

How is reversibility related to the duration of obstruction in hydronephrosis?

A

Inversely related. (longer duration/less reversible) and vice versa

151
Q

What is the treatment for hydronephrosis?

A

Remove obstruction if possible

152
Q

What does persistent obstruction in hydronephrosis lead to?

A

Damage to tubular epithelium

153
Q

What are some neurological complications of AKI?

A
  • related to protein/amino acids buildup in blood!
  • Uremic Encephalopathy (improved with HD)
  • mobility disorders, neuropathies, myopathies, seizures, stroke
154
Q

What is the order of cardiovascular complications in AKI?

A

HTN → LVH → CHF → ischemic heart disease →anemic heart failure →Arrhythmias → pericarditis (with or without effusion) →cardiac tamponade, Uremic cardiomyopathy

155
Q

What are some hematological complications of AKI?

A

Anemia (decreased EPO/RBC/RBC survival), Platelet dysfunction, vWF disruption (d/t uremia)

156
Q

What can be done prophylactically to address vWF disruption in AKI?

A

Prophylactic DDAVP (increased vWF/Factor VIII)

157
Q

What are some metabolic complications of AKI?

A

Hyperkalemia, Water/sodium imbalances, Hypoalbuminemia, Metabolic acidosis, malnutrition, hyperparathyroidism (parathyroid in overdrive to stimulate kidney reabsorption of Calcium)

158
Q

What is preferred pressor for maintaining renal blood flow in acute kidney injury?

A

Vasopressin (constricts efferent arteriole)

159
Q

What is the preferred fluid for renal issues? What is the preferred colloid?

A

NS preferred for renal (no K+)
Colloids: albumin is preferred over hetastarch

160
Q

How should mean arterial pressure be maintained in AKI anesthesia?

A

20% of baseline

161
Q

What role does sodium bicarb play in AKI prophylaxis?

A

decreases formation of free-radicals and prevents ATN from causing renal failure.

162
Q

Why may a patient with AKI need post-op dialysis?

A

Can’t clear drugs on their own

163
Q

What are some anesthesia implications for a patient needing dialysis?

A

Low threshold for invasive hemodynamic monitoring, prefer preoperative dialysis, recent labs especially K+, want POC equipment available, tailored drug dosing, avoid drugs with active metabolites, drugs that decrease RBF, and renal toxins.

164
Q

What are the leading causes of chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

A

Diabetes 38%, Hypertension 26%

165
Q

What are common presentations of chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients?

A

Surgery for dialysis access, Non-healing wounds, Diabetic toe/foot debridements/amputations, often frequent flyers

166
Q

What is the formula for estimating GFR?

A

GFR = 186 x (SCr)-1.154x (age)-0.203x (0.742 if female) x (1.210 if African American)

167
Q

What are the 5 stages of CKD based on GFR levels?

A
168
Q

How are CKD stages typically discovered?

A

Often found during routine testing (focus on trends)

169
Q

What are some cardiovascular effects of CKD?

A

Systemic hypertension
- cause & consequence
- retention of Na & H2O
- RAAS

170
Q

How does CKD lead to retention of sodium and water?

A

Activation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

171
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for CKD in terms of medications? What additional medications may be needed for CKD?

A

Thiazide Diuretics are 1st line.
Other meds: ACE-I/ARB

172
Q

Why ACE’s and ARB’s often used in CKD?

A

Reduces systemic BP and glomerular pressure
Reduces proteinuria by reducing glomerular hyperfiltration
Reduces glomerulosclerosis

173
Q

Why should ACE-I/ARBs be withheld on the day of surgery? If ACE-I/ARBs on board, what other medications may be required during surgery?

A

To reduce the risk of profound HoTN.
Vasopressin, NE, EPI may be needed if medication effects still present during surgery.

174
Q

Which populations are high risk for silent MI?

A

CKD?
Women and Diabetics

175
Q

What are common lipid abnormalities in CKD patients?

A

Triglycerides often > 500, LDL often > 100

176
Q

What neuropathies may CKD patients experience?

A

Peripheral & autonomic neuropathy. Sensation may be blunted.

177
Q

What hematologic effects are associated with chronic kidney disease?

A

Anemia, Platelet dysfunction

178
Q

How is anemia in chronic kidney disease managed?

A

Exogenous erythropoietin with a target Hbg of 10

179
Q

What should be considered when transfusing blood in chronic kidney disease patients?

A

Risks vs benefits, Excess Hgb leads to sluggish circulation

180
Q

What are indications to consider dialysis?

A

Volume overload, Severe hyperkalemia, Metabolic acidosis, Symptomatic uremia, Failure to clear medications

181
Q

Why might peritoneal dialysis (PD) be more suitable for some patients?

A

Slower, less dramatic volume shifts, suitable for patients intolerant of fluid swings/volume shifts such as poor cardiac function

182
Q

What is the most common side effect of hemodialysis (HD)?

A

Hypotension

183
Q

What is the leading cause of death in dialysis patients?

A

Infection (due to impaired immune system/healing)

184
Q

What are some anesthesia concerns for patients with ESRD?

A

Stability of ESRD, glucose management, well controlled BP, body weight pre-post dialysis within 24 hrs post op, aspiration precautions, pressers, uremic bleeding.

185
Q

Why should body weight pre/post dialysis be assessed within 24 hours of surgery?

A

To monitor fluid shifts

186
Q

What is the onset time and duration of desmopressin? What is a limitation of desmopressin?

A

Peak 2-4h; lasts 6-8h
Can develop tachyphylaxis therefore should only be used when needed.

187
Q

What is important to consider about many anesthetic agents in patients with CKD?

A

Many anesthetic agents are lipid soluble, reabsorbed by renal tubular cells, lean towards agents not dependent on renal elimination, and avoid active metabolites (morphine and demerol)

188
Q

What are examples of lipid insoluble drugs? What is renal dosing usually based on?

A

Thiazide diuretics, Loop diuretics, Digoxin, Many antibiotics.
Renal dosing usually based on the GFR.

189
Q

What is important about lipid insoluble drug elimination? Especially with renal patients?

A

Lipid Insoluble meds are eliminated unchanged in urine. Longer duration of action in renal impaired patients.

190
Q

What is the class of the drug Edrophonium?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

191
Q

What percentage of Morphine is cleared through urine?

A

40%

192
Q

What is the inactive metabolite of Morphine? What is the active metabolite of Morphine?

A

Inactive: morphine-3 glucuronide
Active: morphine-6 glucuronide

193
Q

What is the main adverse effects of Demerol?

A

Neurotoxicity: nervousness, tremors, muscle twitches, seizures

194
Q

Why does multiple doses of meperidine result in the accumulation of normeperidine?

A

Long elimination half-life of normeperidine (15-30 h) compared to (2-4 hr) for meperidine.

195
Q

What level should potassium be under for elective surgery?

A

K+ < 5.5 mEq/L

196
Q

What is recommended for dialysis patients before elective surgery?

A

Dialyzed within 24 h before

197
Q

How do anesthesia and surgery affect renal blood flow (RBF) and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

A

Decrease RBF & GFR
Ex. Longer period of hypotension (cross clamping, hemorrhage, sepsis) => lower RBF

198
Q

What effect does blood loss have on baroreceptors and sympathetic nervous system (SNS) outflow?

A

Activates SNS outflow

199
Q

How do catecholamines decrease renal blood flow (RBF)?

A

Catecholamines activate alpha 1 Receptors, this constricts afferent arterioles which decreases renal blood flow.